Complex Final Exam Old Info Flashcards

(247 cards)

1
Q

What color is sputum production with pneumonia?

A

thick, yellow-green

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2
Q

When should you do a sputum culture and sensitivity with pneumonia?

A

before antibiotics

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3
Q

What will a chest x-ray show with pneumonia?

A

consolidation/fluid build-up

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4
Q

What might ABG’s show with pneumonia?

A

hypoxemia, PaO2 <80

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5
Q

What position should a patient with pneumonia be placed in?

A

high fowlers

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6
Q

What antibiotics can be used for pneumonia?

A

penicillins, cephalosporins

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7
Q

What color is sputum production with TB?

A

purulent, blood tinged

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8
Q

How long does a cough last to be dx with TB?

A

3+ weeks

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9
Q

What is the priority intervention for TB?

A

preventing infection transmission

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10
Q

What precautions are used for TB?

A

airborne

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11
Q

What type of room should a patient with TB be in?

A

negative airflow

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12
Q

How many negative sputum cultures are needed to determine that you do not have TB anymore?

A

3

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13
Q

How often should you get sputum cultures?

A

every 2-4 weeks

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14
Q

What tests should be done before starting TB meds?

A
  • liver
  • vision
  • hearing
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15
Q

What toxicity is common with all TB meds except ethambutol?

A

hepatotoxicity

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16
Q

What TB medication is neurotoxic, and what does this cause?

A
  • isoniazid (TB)
  • paresthesias of the hands/feet
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17
Q

What vitamin should you give for neurotoxicity?

A

B6

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18
Q

What happens to urine/secretions when taking rifampin (TB)?

A

turns orange

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19
Q

What TB med should vision changes be reported for?

A

ethambutol

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20
Q

Who can not be administered ethambutol?

A

patients <8 y/o

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21
Q

What is a normal PaO2 level?

A

80-100

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22
Q

What happens to the PaCO2 with respiratory acidosis?

A

increases, >45

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23
Q

What happens to the PaCO2 with respiratory alkalosis?

A

decreases, <35

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24
Q

What happens to the HCO3 with metabolic acidosis?

A

decreases, <22

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25
What happens with HCO3 with metabolic alkalosis?
increases, >26
26
With asthma, what does silent chest indicate?
no lung sounds, obstruction
27
How can you tell an asthma attack is worsening?
unable to talk, cyanosis
28
What position should you place someone with asthma in?
high fowlers
29
What happens with emphysema?
- loss of lung elasticity - CO2 retention - respiratory acidosis
30
What happens with chronic bronchitis?
inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles
31
What are signs with COPD that the brain is not getting enough oxygen (<88%)?
- confusion - disorientation - altered mental status
32
What color is sputum production with COPD?
rust colored
33
What position should you place someone with COPD in?
high fowlers
34
What breathing techniques should people with COPD do?
- abdominal breathing - pursed-lip breathing - TCDB - incentive spirometer
35
What do respirations look like with COPD?
rapid, shallow, use of accessory muscles
36
Why should you increase calories with COPD?
there is increased work needed to breathe, so more calories are being burned
37
What type of meals should someone with COPD eat?
small and frequent with soft, easy-to-chew foods
38
What are the expected side effects of albuterol (COPD)?
tachycardia, tremors
39
What side effect of ipratropium (COPD) indicates toxicity?
palpitations
40
What is the therapeutic range of theophylline (COPD)?
10-20
41
In what order should you give meds for COPD?
B before C, bronchodilator before corticosteroid
42
What should you watch for with fluticasone and prednisone (COPD corticosteroids)?
- infection (immunosuppressant) - black, tarry stools - hyperglycemia - weight gain
43
What diagnostic tests for HIV antibodies?
ELISA
44
What does the western blot tests do (HIV)?
confirms results after + ELISA test
45
What CD4 T lymphocyte level indicates severe HIV?
200
46
What precautions should be used for HIV?
standard unless bodily fluids are involved
47
What is the priority intervention for HIV?
preventing secondary infection
48
What happens to blood, vomit, and feces with HIV?
they are contaminated
49
What happens to healthy tissue with lupus?
gets inflamed and destroyed
50
What immunological tests are done for lupus?
- ANA - dsDNA
51
When lupus affects the bones, what happens to the CBC?
pancytopenia
52
When lupus affects the kidneys, what happens to the BUN/creatinine?
increased
53
What is Raynaud's phenomenon (lupus)?
pallor and cyanosis of the fingers
54
What is the first sign of lupus?
morning stiffness
55
What type of rash do you get with lupus?
butterfly rash
56
What are the 4 "A" symptoms of lupus?
- alopecia - anorexia - anemia - arthraligia
57
What part of the GI tract does UC affect?
the rectum and sigmoid colon
58
Where do you have pain with UC?
LLQ
59
How many diarrheas can you have a day with UC, and what can they consist of?
- 15-20/day - blood, mucus, pus
60
What part of the GI tract does Chron's affect?
the whole GI tract
61
How many diarrheas can you have a day with Chron's, and what can they consist of?
- 5/day - mucus, pus
62
Where do you have pain with Chron's?
RLQ
63
What levels should you assess for UC/Chron's?
- albumin - K - Mg - Vitamin B12
64
What foods should you avoid with UC/Chron's?
- grains - fruits/veggies - seeds - beans
65
What nutritional intake should you increase with UC/Chron's?
protein and calories
66
What nutritional intake should you decrease with UC/Chron's?
fiber (diarrhea)
67
What medications can you take for UC/Chron's?
- sulfonamides - corticosteroids - immunosuppressants - immunomodulators - anti-diarrheals
68
What is cholelithiasis?
gallbladder stones
69
What is cholecystitis?
inflamed gallbladder
70
Where/how does the pain occur with gallbladder disease?
sharp, in RUQ, radiates to the right shoulder
71
What nutritional intake should you decrease with gallbladder disease?
- fat (dairy, fried food, chocolate, nuts, gravies) - gas-forming foods (beans, cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, coffee)
72
What nutritional intake should you increase with gallbladder disease?
- fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) - bile salts (dark, leafy green veggies)
73
What does gonorrhea target?
male urethra, female cervix
74
What happens with urination in gonorrhea?
- dysuria - pain w/ voiding
75
What symptoms are present in females with chlamydia?
- painful intercourse/voiding - vaginal discharge - lower abdominal pain
76
What symptoms are present in males with chlamydia?
penile discharge
77
What are the manifestations of genital herpes?
- pain, itching - small red bumps - white blisters - ulcers - scabs
78
What antibiotic is given for gonorrhea?
ceftriaxone IM
79
What antibiotics are given for chlamydia?
azithromycin or doxycycline
80
When can the patient resume sex after having chlamydia?
- 7 days - after completion of meds - negative test
81
Does acyclovir cure genital herpes?
no, it just relieves symptoms and decreases transmission
82
Is BPH a precursor for prostate cancer?
NO
83
What happens to urination with BPH?
- frequency - urgency - hesitancy -incontinence - incomplete emptying - post-void dribbling - nocturia - decreased force of the urinary system - straining with urination - hematuria
84
What does persistent urinary retention lead to with BPH?
frequent UTI's
85
What is hydronephrosis (BPH)?
the backflow of urine into the ureters and kidneys that can lead to kidney damage
86
What lab levels are increased with BPH?
- WBC (systemic infection) - BUN/creatinine (kidney damage)
87
What lab levels are decreased with BPH?
RBC (hematuria)
88
What is the level for PreHTN?
120-129/<80
89
What is the level for stage 1 HTN?
130-139/80-89
90
What is the level for stage 2 HTN?
>/= 140 / >/= 90
91
What lab level should you monitor with diuretics (HTN/HF)?
potassium (K)
92
What are the side effects of ACE inhibitors (HTN/HF)?
- angioedema - cough - elevated potassium
93
What should you watch for with beta blockers and ACE inhibitors (HTN/HF)?
redness, itching, rash
94
What should you monitor with beta blockers (HTN/HF)?
HR, SBP, glucose
95
What is the DASH diet for HTN?
- decreased sodium - increased potassium and calcium
96
What foods are high in sodium?
- canned soups/sauces - chips, pretzels - smoked meats - seasonings - tomato juice - processed foods
97
What fruits and veggies are rich in potassium?
- apricots - bananas - tomatoes - potatoes
98
What does left-sided HF affect?
lungs
99
What does right-sided HF affect?
body
100
What color is sputum production in LHF?
pink and frothy
101
Which heart failure causes hepatomegaly and splenomegaly?
right
102
Which heart failure causes SOB, cough, crackles, and wheezing?
left
103
Which heart failure causes JVD and ascites?
right
104
When should you report weight gain with HF?
- 2 lbs/day - 5 lbs/week
105
What position should you place someone with HF in?
high fowlers
106
What does the B-type natriuretic peptide do?
confirms HF dx
107
What do labs look like for LHF? (H&H, BUN/creatinine)
- decreased H&H - increased BUN/creatinine
108
What do labs look like for RHF? (H&H, albumin, total protein)
- decreased H&H - decreased albumin - decreased total protein
109
What nutritional intake should be decreased with HF?
- sodium - saturated fats
110
What nutrition intake should be increased with HF?
protein
111
What must be assessed before administering digoxin?
apical HR, hold <60
112
What can hypokalemia cause for digoxin?
toxicity
113
What is the normal digoxin level?
0.8-2
114
What are the signs of digoxin toxicity?
- confusion - muscle weakness - loss of appetite (N/V) - fatigue - yellow-green halos
115
What is the main cause of PAD?
smoking
116
How can you promote vasodilation with PAD?
provide a warm environment and insulated socks
117
What type of clothing should you wear for PAD?
non-restrictive
118
How should the legs be with PAD?
- not crossed - can elevate for short time (not above the heart) - dAngle
119
Can heat be directly applied to the affected extremity with PAD?
no, because sensitivity is decreased
120
Can the client be exposed to cold with PAD?
no
121
What will happen over the involved blood vessel with a DVT?
- warmth - edema - induration - redness
122
Should you ambulate with a DVT?
NO
123
How should the legs be with a DVT?
- not crossed - elevated above the heart
124
What type of compress should be used for a DVT?
warm, moist
125
What is a normal d-dimer?
- <500 ng/mL FEU OR - < 250 ng/mL DDU
126
What does a venous duplex ultrasonography show for a DVT?
a picture of blood flow through the vessel
127
Should you massage a DVT?
NO
128
What do anticoagulants do for a DVT? (Heparin, Warfarin)
keep the clot from getting bigger and prevent the formation of new clots
129
What does alteplase do, and what should you watch for (DVT)?
clot buster, watch for bleeding
130
What are some clinical manifestations of HYPERthyroidism?
- heat intolerance - weight loss - diarrhea - tachycardia
131
What are some clinical manifestations of HYPOthyroidism?
- cold intolerance - weight gain - constipation - bradycardia
132
Which thyroid deficiency includes exophthalmos and goiter?
HYPERthyroidism
133
Which thyroid deficiency includes myxedema and what is it?
- HYPOthyroidism - swollen face, hands, feet
134
What happens in myxedema coma (HYPOthyroidism)?
- hypotension - bradycardia - respiratory failure - hypothermia - hyponatremia - hypoglycemia - coma
135
How often should you palpate the thyroid with HYPERthyroidism?
once per shift
136
What medication should you not take with HYPERthyroidism due to an increase in T4?
aspirin
137
What should you do to room temperature with HYPERthyroidism?
decrease (heat intolerance)
138
What temperature change indicates a thyroid crisis?
an increase of 1 degree or more
139
What medications should you avoid with HYPOthyroidism due to an increased risk of respiratory depression?
CNS depressants
140
What should you do to room temperature with HYPOthyroidism?
increase (cold intolerance)
141
What nutritional intake should be increased with HYPERthyroidism?
calories, protein
142
What nutritional intake should be increased with HYPOthyroidism?
bulk, fiber
143
What nutritional intake should be decreased with HYPOthyroidism?
calories
144
What is a normal blood glucose level?
65-110
145
What is a hyperglycemic blood glucose level?
>250
146
What are the 3 P's of hyperglycemia?
polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
147
What is the skin like with hyperglycemia?
hot, dry
148
What is a hypoglycemic blood glucose level?
<70
149
What is the skin like with hypoglycemia?
cold, clammy
150
What are some manifestations of hypoglycemia?
- shakiness - confusion - diaphoresis - tachycardia
151
What is the reference range of HA1C?
4-6%
152
What is the acceptable DM range of HA1C?
6.5-8%
153
What is the target goal of HA1C?
7%
154
What should patients with DM be able to do?
- self-monitor blood glucose (SMBG) - self-administer insulin
155
What part of the body should those with DM inspect daily?
feet
156
Can people with DM massage their feet or put lotion between their toes?
NO
157
How should those with DM cut their toenails?
straight across
158
How should insulin be drawn up?
clear (short-acting) to cloudy (long-acting)
159
How often should BG be taken on a sick day?
every 3-4 hours
160
What should you drink every 30 minutes on s sick day (DM)?
4 oz sugar-free, noncaffeinated liquid
161
How should you get your carbs on a sick day (DM)?
through soft foods 6-8 times/day
162
At what BG level should you call the provider?
>240
163
At what body temperature should you call the provider (DM)?
>101.5 for over 24 hrs with no response to tylenol
164
What should you eat/ drink when experiencing hypoglycemia?
10-20g readily absorbable carbs - 2-3 glucose tabs - 4 oz juice - 6-10 hard candies
165
What nutritional intake should you decrease with DM?
- saturated fats - trans fats - cholesterol - simple carbs (refined grains, sugar)
166
What do omega-3 fatty acids do?
decrease cholesterol
167
What are the onset, peak, and duration of rapid-acting insulin (lispro, apart)?
O: w/in 15 mins P: 1-2 hours D: 3-4 hours
168
What are the onset, peak, and duration of short-acting insulin (regular)?
- O: 30-60 mins - P: 2-4 hours - D: 5-7 hours
169
What are the onset, peak, and duration of intermediate-acting insulin (NPH)?
- O: 2-4 hours - P: 4-10 hours - D: 10-16 hours
170
What are the onset, peak, and duration of long-acting insulin (glargine)?
- O: 3-4 hours - P: none - D: 24 hours
171
Which insulins should you give before meals?
- rapid (lispro, aspart) - short (regular)
172
When should you give NPH insulin?
between meals, at night
173
When should you give glargine?
once daily at the same time
174
Metformin (T2D) can cause lactic acidosis. What are the symptoms of lactic acidosis?
- myalgia - sluggishness - somnolence - hyperventilation
175
When should glipizide (T2D) be administered?
before meals
176
Why should you avoid alcohol with glipizide (T2D)?
disulfiram effect
177
What should you monitor with repaglinide (T2D)?
fluid retention and liver function
178
When should you take acarbose (T2D)?
with the first bite of each meal
179
When should you take pramlintide (T2D)?
right before each meal (SQ)
180
What are some foods that are high in calcium?
- milk products - green veggies - fortified OJ and cereals - red and white beans - figs - broccoli - kale - grains
181
What are some foods high in vitamin D?
- fish - egg yolks - fortified milk and cereal
182
How often should someone with osteoporosis get sun exposure?
for 5-30 minutes 2 times/week
183
What does increased bilirubin cause in cirrhosis?
jaundice - clay-colored stool - dark urine - yellow skin/sclera
184
What does increased ammonia cause in cirrhosis?
- hepatic encephalopathy: confusion - asterixis (hand flapping tremor)
185
What does decreased albumin cause in cirrhosis?
ascites
186
How do you treat ascites?
paracentesis (drain 1L at a time)
187
What does portal vein HTN cause in cirrhosis?
- splenomegaly - esophageal varices
188
What does increased estrogen cause in cirrhosis?
- palmar erythema - gynecomastia - spider angiomas
189
When splenomegaly occurs, WBC and PLT get trapped. What does this cause an increased risk for?
infection and bleeding
190
What labs do you need to look at before a liver biopsy, and why?
- H&H, PT/INR - worried about hemorrhage/bleeding and coagulation
191
How much should the bed be elevated for someone with cirrhosis?
30 degrees with feet elevated
192
How should encephalopathy be treated in cirrhosis?
lactulose (excretes ammonia)
193
What are diuretics used for in cirrhosis?
ascites
194
What are beta blockers used for in cirrhosis?
portal vein HTN, varices, preventing bleeding
195
What nutritional intake should be increased with cirrhosis?
- protein (unless encephalopathy occurs) - calories - vitamin B, C, K supplements
196
What precautions should be used for hepatitis?
standard unless bodily fluids are involved
197
What are safe injection practices for hepatitis?
- aseptic technique - sterile, single-use disposable needles/syringes - single dose vials - hand hygiene, PPE
198
What are the symptoms of hepatitis during the prodromal phase?
- flu-like - body pains - fatigue - decreased appetite - N/V - adbominal and joint pain
199
What are the symptoms of hepatitis during the icteric phase?
jaundice - dark urine - clay-colored stool - "i" yellowing
200
What are the risk factors for hepatitis A?
- ingestion of contaminated food/water/stool (SHELLFISH) - close contact with the infected person
201
What are the risk factors for hepatitis B?
- unprotected sex with an infected individual - infants born to infected mothers
202
What are the risk factors for hepatitis C?
- IV drug use - blood/blood products - organ transplants - contaminated needles
203
Why was there such a high risk & prevalence of hepatitis C before 1992?
blood transfusions were unscreened before this time
204
What nephrotoxic meds should you avoid with chronic kidney disease?
NSAIDS
205
What should you teach a patient with CKD to monitor at home?
BP and weight
206
What electrolyte consumption should be decreased with CKD?
- sodium - potassium - phosphorus
207
What is the recommended daily protein before starting dialysis?
0.6-1.0g/kg/day
208
What is the recommended daily protein intake after starting dialysis?
1.2-1.5g/kg/day
209
For CKD, when should you give digoxin, and what should you do to the level?
- give after dialysis - reduce the level
210
For CKD, what does sodium polystyrene (kayexalate) do and what should you restrict?
- increases the elimination of potassium - restrict sodium
211
For CKD, what do calcium carbonate and vitamin D do, and when should you take them?
- stop phosphate absorption - take with meals, 2 hrs away from meds
212
In CKD, when can furosemide not be used?
END STAGE
213
What is needed for hemodialysis?
vascular access
214
What should the temperature of the dialysate be in hemodialysis? In peritoneal dialysis?
- H: body temperature - P: warmed, but not microwaved
215
For hemodialysis, what is disequilibrium syndrome?
a rapid decrease in BUN and circulating fluid volume
216
What electrolyte consumption should be decreased with hemodialysis?
- sodium - potassium - phosphorus
217
What nutritional intake should be increased with hemodialysis?
- calcium - protein - carbs
218
When would you do peritoneal dialysis?
- inability to tolerate anticoagulation - difficulty with vascular access - chronic diseases (DM, CHF, HTN)
219
What would an infected dialysate return look like?
bloody, cloudy, frothy
220
Peritonitis is a complication of peritoneal dialysis. What is peritonitis?
infection of the peritoneum
221
What should you do if protein loss is noticed after peritoneal dialysis?
increase protein and monitor albumin
222
Peritoneal dialysis can cause hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia leading to HTN. What meds can be given?
- insulin - anti-lipemics - anti-HTN
223
How do you assess the thrill and bruit for an AV graft/fistula?
- feel/palpate the thrill (vibration) - hear/auscultate the bruit (whooshing sound)
224
How is sinus tachycardia described?
fast but regular
225
What HR and BP show sinus tachycardia?
HR: >/= 150 bpm BP: decreased, SBP <90
226
What can be used at home to test for atrial fibrillation?
Holter monitor
227
What medications can be used to treat sinus tachycardia?
ADENOSINE (restarts heart) - beta-blockers: metoprolol - CCB: verapamil, diltiazem - pain meds - antipyretics
228
What are those with atrial fibrillation at a huge risk for?
CLOTS - MI - PE - CVA - DVT
229
How is atrial fibrillation described?
rapid and disorganized
230
What medications/interventions can be used to treat atrial fibrillation? (ABCDE)
- anticoagulants - beta-blockers - cardiac ablation - digoxin - electro cardioversion
231
What do anticoagulants do in A fib?
prevent clots, but have a high risk for bleeding
232
What do beta blockers do in A fib?
slow HR
233
What does cardiac ablation do in A fib?
burns erratic cells
234
What does digoxin do in A fib?
slows and strengthens
235
What is electro cardioversion for A fib?
a baby shock to reset the SA node
236
What is the rate for A fib?
usually > 100
237
What is the rhythm for A fib?
irregular
238
Is there a P wave with A fib?
no
239
Is there a PR interval with A fib?
no
240
What does QRS look like in A fib?
normal
241
What is the rate for A flutter?
75-150
242
What is the rhythm for A flutter?
regular
243
Is there a P wave with A flutter?
no
244
Is there a PR interval with A flutter?
no
245
What does the QRS look like in A flutter?
normal
246
what medications can be given for atrial flutter?
AMIODARONE - beta blockers
247
What are you worried about with atrial flutter?
rate control