Complications Flashcards

(103 cards)

0
Q

What is an embryonic demise?

A

Clear evidence of a nonviable embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are THREATENED ABORTION complications?

A
Less than 20 wks
Viable embryo
Fetal heartbeat
Vaginal bleeding
Cervix long & closed

*if complications are present, 50% will miscarry or abort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a characteristic of a BLIGHTED OVUM/ANEMBRYONIC PREGNANCY?

A

GS with no visible embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Intrauterine fetal demise can occur _________ throughout a pregnancy.

A

Anytime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Intrauterine fetal demise incidence in 1st trimester occurs _________% of the time.

A

15-20

*usually caused by chromosomal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Approximately half of all intrauterine fetal demises are _________ mortality.

A

Perinatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

50% of intrauterine fetal demise are of unknown cause, what can cause a fetal demise?

A
Congenital/chromosomal anomalies
Infection
Placental abruption
IUGR
Blood group isoimmunization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Spontaneous _________/_________ Prior to 20 weeks.

A

Abortion or miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_________ _________ After 20 weeks.

A

Fetal demise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What will be seen/not seen in an embryonic demise?

A

Early IUP visualized

No heart beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fetal heart tones should be heard with _________ 10-12 weeks menstrual age.

A

M mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If there is no heart beat or cessation of fetal movement after initially felt, what should be done?

A

Immediate US exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sonographic findings of a fetal demise?

A

Absent of heart beat & motion

Overlap of skull bones - Spalding’s sign

Exaggerated curvature of the spine

Gas in fetal ABD/echogenic fetal heart

Fetal skin edema (may take 2-4 days to develop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Secondary signs of a fetal demise may take up to _________ days to develop.

A

Several

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can be measured during an US to determine the time of death of a fetus?

A

Femur length (FL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe an Anembryonic pregnancy…

A

Early IUP - MSD > 18 mm - grows < .6 mm/day

Yolk sac

No embryo

Also called a BLIGHTED OVUM

+hCG but doesn’t increase normally

GS echogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_________ _________ Is the most common reason for bleeding in the 1st trimester.

A

Subchorionic Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Symptoms of subchorionic hemorrhage…

A

Bleeding - low pressure bleed resulting from implantation
Spotting
Cramping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Subchorionic hemorrhage may lead to _________ _________ _________.

A

Spontaneous pregnancy loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Subchorionic hemorrhage sonographic findings?

A

Separation between uterine wall & fetal membrane

Early echogenic - late hypoechoic

Color Doppler demonstrates no blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe absent intrauterine sac…

A

Beta hCG level 1000-2000 mIU/ml

No IUP

Possibilities could include spontaneous abortion, ectopic, or incomplete abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the 4 types of spontaneous abortions.

A

Complete

Incomplete

Threatened

Inevitable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

_________ _________ Products of conception are completely expelled.

A

Complete abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clinical findings of complete abortion?

A

Bleeding/cramping

+ hCG

Beta hCG will decrease rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Sonographic findings of complete abortion?
Empty uterus - endo usually < 5 mm No adnexal masses No free fluid
25
Clinical findings of an incomplete abortion?
May or may not have bleeding/cramping
26
Sonographic findings of an incomplete abortion?
Intact IUP No embryo heartbeat GS misshapen Thickened endo > 5 mm Obvious fetal parts
27
_________ _________ Is a 1st trimester pregnancy typically associated with bleeding.
Threatened abortion
28
With a threatened abortions, the embryo is still _________ but often is showing signs of _________.
Alive Distress
29
Sonographic findings of threatened abortion?
Lack of expected growth of GS/embryo Decreased fetal HR (<95 BPM)
30
Clinical findings of an inevitable abortion?
+ hCG Vaginal bleeding/cramping
31
Describe an inevitable abortion...
GS with fetus in uterus Detached from uterus May lie in LUS GS surrounded by hemorrhage Spontaneous abortion will happen within couple hrs or less
32
_________ _________ _________ Is a proliferative disease of the trophoblast after abnormal conception - MOLAR PREGNANCY.
Gestational trophoblastic disease
33
Molar pregnancies affect approximately _________ pregnancies.
1 of every 1000
34
Women under _________ or over _________ years old are more likely to have a molar pregnancy.
20 40
35
Clinical symptoms of gestational trophoblastic disease?
Vaginal bleeding Hyperemesis Extremely elevated beta hCG
36
What diseases could gestational trophoblastic disease/molar pregnancy cause?
Hydatidform mole (h-mole) Choriocarcinoma Bilateral theca lutein cysts
37
_________ Is a partial, complete (classic), & complete with co-existing fetus.
Hydatidform mole or h-mole
38
H-mole partial usually _________ chromosomes.
Abnormal
39
Sonographic findings of h-mole?
"Snowstorm" appearance within GS Echogenic tissue within sac with cystic spaces Distorted sac May or may not have coexisting fetus - partial Increased blood flow around the sac Theca lutein cyst seen
40
Treatment for h-mole is...
D&E (dilate & evacuate)
41
After treatment for h-mole, _________ should return to normal within 10-12 weeks.
Serum hCG
42
What is the most COMMON and most BENIGN form of trophoblastic disease?
H-mole of any kind...complete, partial, or complete with co-existing fetus
43
What is a complete or "classic" h-mole?
Egg with an absent or inactivated nucleus - only fathers chromosomes
44
What is a complete h-mole with co-existing fetus?
One normal/other is a mole
45
What is a partial h-mole?
Normal egg fertilized by 2 different sperm - triple chromosomes
46
_________ _________ _________ Is an invasive mole - chorioadenoma destruens.
Malignant trophoblastic disease
47
Describe non metastatic malignant trophoblastic disease...
May be seen with molar pregnancy or after evacuation Hydropic villi invade myometrium May even penetrate uterine wall
48
Clinical findings of non metastatic malignant trophoblastic disease?
Continued heavy bleeding Highly elevated hCG Theca lutein cysts beyond 4 months post evacuation
49
Sonographic findings of a non metastatic malignant trophoblastic disease?
Enlarged uterus Multiple focal areas of GRAPELIKE clusters
50
_________ Is a highly metastatic trophoblastic tumor.
Choriocarcinoma
51
Describe choriocarcinoma...
Fast growing Mets to lung (MOST COMMON), liver & brain Vaginal bleeding, dyspnea, ABD pain, neurological symptoms Persistent theca lutein cysts Increased hCG levels
52
Heart rate should be detected by _________ weeks or _________ mm on TV.
5.5-6.5 wks 5 mm
53
Heart rate below 90 BPM is called _________.
Bradycardia *poor prognosis
54
Heart rate over 170 BPM is called _________.
Tachycardia * may lead to heart failure * hydrops - pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, ascites
55
Describe embryonic oligo & growth restrictions...
GS measures 5 mm < CRL Demise highly likely Usually related to chromosomal abnormalities Must have accurate dating to verify
56
Normal yolk sac diameter is _________ mm between 5-10 weeks.
5.5
57
Yolk sac over 5.6 mm has an increased risk for a _________ _________.
Spontaneous abortion
58
What 3 things about the yolk sac are early signs of pregnancy failure?
Too large Mis-shapen Echogenic
59
_________ _________ Is an implantation of a developing zygote outside the endometrial cavity.
Ectopic pregnancy
60
How often do ectopic pregnancies occur?
1 in every 100-400 pregnancies
61
Ectopic pregnancies have a higher incidence rate with infertility due to _________ _________.
Tubal pathology
62
Ectopic pregnancies are missed what percent of the time?
70% Symptoms are nonspecific
63
3 reasons ectopic pregnancies occur?
Delayed transit of fertilized zygote secondary to fallopian tube malformation Obstruction of passage of zygote through tube secondary to adhesions Abnormal angulation of tube relative to cornua
64
4 maternal risk factors of ectopic pregnancy?
Previous ectopic pregnancy (25% reoccurrence) History of PID Tubal reconstructive surgery (re-anastamosis) Recent ART - IVF
65
Locations of ectopic pregnancies?
MOST COMMON - tubal, majority in ampulla ABD, ovary, cervix
66
Tubal ectopic pregnancies are more common on what side?
Right
67
33% of ectopics have corpus luteum on _________ side as ovum migrates from one ovary to opposite tube.
Contralateral
68
Clinical symptoms of ectopic pregnancy? These are called the "classic triad".
Pain Abnormal vaginal bleeding Abnormal adnexal mass
69
Other symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are...
Diffuse ABD pain Rebound tenderness Right shoulder pain Mild uterine enlargement
70
5 types of ectopic pregnancies?
Ampullary Isthmus Interstitial Abdominal Cervical
71
Describe ampullary ectopic pregnancy...
MOST COMMON tubal location Adjacent to ovary
72
Describe isthmus ectopic pregnancy...
Tend to rupture early due to small diameter
73
Describe interstitial ectopic pregnancy...
MOST DANGEROUS tubal site Located within muscular cornua; ectopic may grow 3-4 months; highly vascular area > hemorrhage could occur
74
Describe abdominal ectopic pregnancy...
Can grow to full term, but will need a c-section Sac is attached to omentum Fetus is abortd through the fimbrated
75
Describe cervical ectopic pregnancy...
MOST DANGEROUS location overall High likelihood of hemorrhage if rupture occurs
76
Ectopic pregnancy is a GS with either yolk sac, embryo, and/or cardiac cavity _________ the endometrial cavity.
Outside
77
4 other signs that suggest an ectopic pregnancy...
Adnexal mass Fluid in posterior cul de sac Absence of IUP in the presence of a + beta hCG Pseudogestational sac in endometrial cavity
78
What is a pseudogestational sac?
Intrauterine fluid collection that may mimic a GS in the endo cavity
79
What can a pseudogestational sac also be called?
Decidual cyst
80
Where is a pseudogestational sac located?
In the exact center of the uterus with only 1 ring of decidua > the near decidual reaction
81
Where is an IU GS located?
Eccentrically within endo cavity with 2 rings of decidua
82
What is a heterotrophic pregnancy?
Ectopic pregnancy & an IUP occurring at the same time Increased incidence in women undergoing ART
83
Detection of hCG may occur with _________ days post conception.
10 days
84
HCG levels will be _________ with an ectopic pregnancy. Why?
Lower *due to lesser amount of trophoblastic tissue around GS
85
What equipment is better with increased sensitivity?
TV or higher frequency transducers
86
Embryonic abnormalities that can occur end of 1st trimester or 2nd trimester?
Monoamniotic twins Conjoined twins Cardiac arrest Cystic hygroma ABD wall defects Cranial & spinal abnormalities
87
Describe Nuchal translucency...
11 wks - 13 wks 6 days Thickening if subcutaneous lucency at the back of neck Should be less then 3 mm Linked too trisomy 13, 18, 21 & fetuses with cardia issues CRL 45-84 mm
88
Cardiac defects in general...
Will look for specific markers Ectopia cordis Limb body wall complex
89
Describe cranial anomalies in general...
Should be confirmed at 12-14 wks ``` Acrania Anencephaly Cephalocele Iniencephaly Ventriculomegaly Holoprosencephaly ```
90
Describe Dandy-Walker malformation...
Cystic dilation of 4th ventricle Occurs 6th-7th wk gestation Large posterior fossa cyst
91
Describe spina bifida...
Occurs after 6 weeks May be detected at end of 1st trimester Spinal irregularities of bulging Extrusion of mass from vertebral column
92
Abnormal wall defects are?
Bowel herniation Gastroschisis Omphalocele
93
What is bowel herniation?
Echogenic mass at base of umbilical cord May include liver
94
What is gastroschisis?
Anterior ABD wall mass usually to right of umbilical cord
95
What is omphalocele?
ABD contents into base of umbilical cord May contain just bowel or bowel and organs May contain just bowel - usually associated with chromosomal abnormalities
96
What is obstructive uropathy?
Bladder visualized at 10-12 wks gestation Large urinary bladder visualized if obstruction at urethra
97
What is cystic hygroma?
One of the most common 1st trimester abnormality identified Associated with trisomy 13, 18, 21 & Turners syndrome Cystic mass posterior aspect fetal neck
98
What is an umbilical cord cyst?
Vary in size from 2-7.5 mm May resolve in 2nd trimester If persists, may be associated with other anomalies May be innocent
99
What are 4 1st trimester pelvic masses?
Ovarian masses Corpus luteum cyst Uterine masses Fibroids (MOST COMMON)
100
Describe corpus luteum cysts...
MOST COMMON Less than 5 cm Can become large Should not be visualized past 18 wks If persists after 18 wks surgery will fix it High incidence of torsion
101
Why do fibroids grow rapidly?
Because of estrogen stimulation
102
What must be done if a mass is found in a 1st trimester patient?
Mass must be identified and relationship described to GS