Complications of Pregnancy - Exam 1 Flashcards

(182 cards)

1
Q

If the pregnancy is ectopic, where is it most likely to implant? What are 5 risk factors?

A

ampulla of the fallopian tube

Prior ectopic pregnancy – scaring in the tube
STDs
PID
Assisted reproductive technology (ART)
IUD

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2
Q

What would a pt experiencing an ectopic pregnancy complain of? What would you find on PE?

A

Vaginal bleeding
Lower abdominal pain

Adnexal mass
Tenderness on pelvic exam

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3
Q

Based on hCG, how can you tell if a preg is ectopic or in the uterus?

A

ectopic preg: does NOT double every 48h as it does with a normal IUP

normal IUP: hCG WILL double every 48 hours

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4
Q

What level of hCG should you see of pregnancy in the uterus?

A

1500-2000mIU/mL (depends on facility)

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5
Q

What is a heterotopic pregnancy? ____ pts have an increased risk

A

have both an IUP and ectopic pregnancy

ART

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6
Q

_____ sign on US is pathoneumonic
for ectopic pregnancy

A

donut sign

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7
Q

What is the medical management tx for ectopic pregnancy? What drug class? What is the MOA?

A

Methotrexate

Folic acid antagonist

Highly effective against rapidly proliferating tissue

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8
Q

In order to qualify for methotrexate as tx an ectopic pregnancy, what 5 pt factors must be present?

A

Patient should be: Asymptomatic, Motivated, Compliant

Low initial β-hCG (<5000)

Small ectopic size (<3.5cm)

Absent fetal cardiac activity

No evidence of intraabdominal bleeding

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9
Q

What are the CI to methotrexate?

A

Sensitivity to MTX

Evidence of tubal rupture

Breast feeding

IUP

Hepatic, renal or hematologic dysfunction

Peptic ulcer disease

Active pulmonary disease

Evidence of immunodeficiency

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10
Q

What labs need to be drawn before methotrexate can be given? What is the monitoring requirements?

A

CMP, CBC

-Check β-hCG on Day 1 then 4 and 7
May not decline from Day 1 to 4 but should decrease by 15% from Day 4 to 7
-Can consider repeating dose of Methotrexate, if first dose is not effective

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11
Q

What are the SE of methotrexate?

A

Liver
Stomatitis
Gastroenteritis
Bone Marrow Depression

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12
Q

_____ is the surgical management for an ectopic pregnancy. What are the 2 options?

A

laparascopy

Salpinostomy -> tubal salvage

Salpingectomy -> tube resection

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13
Q

Why is a Salpinostomy not done as often as a Salpingectomy?

A

Higher rate of subsequent uterine pregnancy
Higher rate of persistently functioning trophoblast

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14
Q

What is the technical definition of an abortion?

A

Abortion or miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends before 20 weeks’ gestation

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15
Q

What are the 5 different types of abortion?

A

complete

incomplete

inevitable

missed

threatened

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16
Q

What is a complete abortion? What are 2 things to pt will complain of?

A

complete expulsion of all products of conception(POC) before 20 weeks

vaginal bleeding and passage of tissue

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17
Q

What is important to note regarding a complete abortion?

A

need to f/u if no evidence of POC because you CANNOT rule out an ectopic pregnancy

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18
Q

What is considered an incomplete abortion? What is the tx?

A

partial expulsion of some but not all POC before 20 weeks

Curettage
Prostaglandins
Expectant management

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19
Q

What is the cervical os doing in an complete and incomplete abortion?

A

complete: cervical os is closed

incomplete: cervical os is dilated or actively bleeding

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20
Q

Define inevitable abortion. What is the tx?

A

no expulsion of products, but vaginal bleeding and dilation of the cervix such that a viable pregnancy is unlikely. Has ruptured membranes/ vaginal bleeding

Prostaglandins
Expectant management

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21
Q

Define missed abortion. What is the tx?

A

death of the embryo or fetus before 20 weeks with complete retention of all POC

Curettage
Prostaglandins
Expectant Management

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22
Q

Define threatened abortion. What will you see on PE? What is the tx?

A

any vaginal bleeding before 20 weeks without dilation of the cervix or expulsion of any POC

Cervical os closed
Vaginal spotting
US: viable intrauterine pregnancy

pelvic rest and monitoring closely

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23
Q

What is the MOA for RhoGAM?

A

Suppresses the immune response and antibody formation of Rh negative individuals to Rh positive red blood cells

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24
Q

When is RhoGAM recommended within if the choriodecidual space is breached?

A

within 72 hours

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25
What is a molar pregnancy? What is another name for it? What is it caused by?
Excessively edematous immature placentas Hydatiform Mole chromosomally abnormal fertilizations
26
What are the risk factors for a molar pregnancy?
Age (extremes of reproductive age)- 12-20 or older than 30 History of prior mole
27
What is considered a complete mole? 15-20% have subsequent _______
Both sets of chromosomes are paternal in origin. Chromosomes of ovum either absent or inactivated. No fetal parts present just edematous placenta villi Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia: a rare group of cancers that develop in the placenta during or after pregnancy. GTN occurs when trophoblast cells, which normally develop into the placenta, instead form abnormal tumors.
28
What is the clinical presentation of a molar pregnancy?
Vaginal bleeding Large for date Soft consistency of uterus hCG >100,000 Theca Lutein Cysts
29
What is the underlying cause of Theca Lutein Cysts? What are they associated with?
Result from overstimulation of lutein elements by hCG complete molar pregnancy
30
46, XX or XY (Diploid) is considered a ______ mole. 69 XXX or XXY occasionally XYY (triploid) is considered a _____mole
complete mole partial mole
31
What is the underlying cause of a partial mole? What is the clinical presentation?
Two paternal haploid sets of chromosomes and one maternal haploid set missed abortion and small for date
32
Will a complete mole or partial mole have evidence of fetal parts? Be small for date or large for date? Level of hCG?
complete mole: NO fetal parts, LARGE for date, greater than 100,000 partial mole: some fetal parts present, small for date, less than 100,000
33
What will a complete molar pregnancy look like on US? **What is the pearl associated with it?
echogenic uterine mass with numerous anechoic cystic spaces but without fetus or amnionic sac “Snowstorm” appearance
34
What will a partial mole look like on US? How do you confirm?
thickened, multicystic placenta along with a fetus or fetal tissue pathology
35
What are three common sequelae that result of molar pregnancies?
thyroid storm Hyperemesis gravidarum Preeclampsia/Eclampsia
36
Why do you see a thyroid storm with molar pregnancies?
Elevated hCG leads to elevated TSH which elevates fT4 fT4 normalizes after uterine evacuation
37
What am I?
“snowstorm” appearance complete mole
38
What is the preop management needed for a molar pregnancy?
Thyroid studies CBC CMP CXR – if it were to become cancer (arrhythmias) EKG – if it were to become cancer (mets to lung common) Type and screen
39
What is the tx for a molar pregnancy?
Suction dilation and curettage Pitocin should be given as evacuation is begun – because these patients bleed a lot
40
**What is the monitoring requirement after a pt has had a molar pregnancy evacuation?
β-hCG levels Check 48h postevacuation then check every 1-2 weeks until undetectable **Then check monthly for at least 6 months** If remains undetectable thru the 6 month period, it is ok to allow pregnancy again Should have reliable contraception for this time period
41
Define antepartum bleeding
Bleeding that occurs with a viable mature fetus (typically considered >24 weeks)
42
What is a placental abruption? What are the different variations? What are the s/s?
Separation of the placenta either partially or totally from its implantation site before delivery complete or partial concealed or revealed active vaginal bleeding, sudden onset abdominal pain, uterine tenderness
43
What is the difference between a concealed and revealed placental abruption?
44
What are the risk factors for placental abruption? Which one is the most common?
Trauma Increasing maternal age **Hypertension/Preeclampsia** MC Preterm premature ruptured membranes Cigarette smoking Cocaine Lupus anticoagulant and thrombophilias Uterine fibroids Recurrent abrutpion
45
placental abruption is a _________. What will it present like on US?
**Diagnosis of Exclusion** Limited use because negative findings do NOT exclude abruption. aka very hard to find on US and a normal US does not rule out placental abruption
46
What are 5 complications of placental abruption?
hypovolemic shock Consumptive coagulopathy (or DIC) Acute kidney injury Couvelaire Uterus Intrauterine fetal demise
47
What is the tx for hypovolemic shock?
baby needs to be delivered ASAP due to maternal blood loss Requires prompt treatment with crystalloid and blood infusion
48
______ is the MC obstetric cause of DIC. What is it?
Abruption Consumptive coagulopathy: Intravascular activation of clotting
49
acute kidney injury as a result of placental abruption is caused by ______
hypovolemia
50
What is couvelair uterus? What is it associated with?
Wide spread extravasation of blood into the uterine musculature and beneath the serosa placental abruption
51
What is this?
Couvelaire Uterus due to placenta abruption
52
When considered delivery options for a placental abruption, what should you be thinking? If the baby is deceased, ____ delivery is preferred.
Cesarean delivery is quicker but risk of consumptive coagulopathy causing increased bleeding should be considered vaginal delivery
53
What is placenta previa? What is a low-lying placenta?
Internal os is covered partially or completely by placenta Implantation in the lower uterine segment is such that the placental edge does not reach the internal os and remains outside a 2cm wide perimeter around the os
54
How common is placental previa? What are the 5 risk factors?
0.3% Increasing maternal age Increasing parity Prior cesarean delivery Cigarette smoking Elevated MSAFP
55
How does a placental previa present? When?
Uterine body is remodeling to form the lower uterine segment Internal os dilates and some of the placenta inevitably separates Bleeding occurs and myometrium is unable to contract to stop usually seen after the second trimester
56
How do you dx placenta previa? When does it need to be excluded?
using transvaginal US Previa should be excluded in any patient who presents with vaginal bleeding after 2nd trimester
57
**What should you NOT perform until placenta previa is ruled out? Why?
**DIGITAL EXAM SHOULD NOT BE PERFORMED UNTIL PREVIA IS RULED OUT** can cause severe hemorrhage
58
Under what conditions is a low lying placenta more likely to persist? Until 23 weeks, likelihood of previa persistence is (low/high). If previa present after 23 weeks, ____ chance will persist
patient has history of prior cesarean or hysterotomy scar LOW >50%
59
What is placenta migration? What does greater upper uterine blood flow lead to?
Used to describe the apparent movement of the placenta AWAY from the internal os to placental growth towards the fundus
60
placenta previa, preterm fetus, no persistent active vaginal bleeding, What do you do? placenta previa, preterm fetus, persistent active vaginal bleeding, what do you do? placenta previa, term fetus, what do you do? what are you risking in each scenario?
observe and consider outpt vs inpt management deliver deliver by c- section risking maternal and fetal demise with increased bleeding
61
What are placenta accrete syndromes? what are the 3 different options?
Abnormally implanted, invasive or adhered placenta Placenta Accreta Placenta Increta Placenta Percreta
62
What is Placenta Accreta?
Villi attached to myometrium
63
What is Placenta Increta?
Villi invade myometrium
64
What is placenta percreta?
Villi penetrate through the myometrium and to or through the serosa
65
What does each box color represent?
red: percreta blue: increta green: accreta
66
Why is the rate of placenta accrete syndrome increasing? What are the risk factors?
Increasing incidence due to increasing number of cesarean deliveries performed, the more c-sections the greater the risk risk factors: Anything that cause a defect or disruption of the endometrial-myometrial interface
67
What is Asherman's syndrome? What does it increase your risk for?
scarring of the uterus placenta accrete syndromes
68
How do you dx placenta accrete syndromes? Confirm?
US pathology: confirms dx and extent of invasion
69
What is the management for placenta accrete syndromes? What should be discussed with pt prior? _____ could be considered to reduce bleeding
Planned delivery at tertiary center around 34-36 weeks to avoid emergency C-section Risk of hysterectomy preop uterine artery embolization
70
What is cervical insufficiency? What usually happens next?
PAIN-LESS cervical dilatation in the second trimester Followed by prolapsing and ballooning of membranes into the vagina and ultimately expulsion of an immature fetus
71
What are risk factors for cervical insufficiency?
Prior cervical trauma Dilation and curettage Conization Cauterization of the cervix
72
What is the tx for cervical insufficiency?
Trendelenburg position Pelvic rest Delivery Cerclage
73
What is a cerclage?
A stitch in the uterus that holds it closed that you keep in until week 36
74
What are the indications for a cerclage?
History of recurrent midtrimester losses and diagnosis of cervical insufficiency Women identified by ultrasound to have a short cervix (<25mm)
75
What is the difference between a rescue and elective cerclage?
rescue: Performed emergently after the cervix is found to be dilated, effaced or both elective: Performed 12-14 weeks gestation with next pregnancy
76
What am I?
McDonald's cerclage
77
What am I?
Shirodkar Cerclage uses tissue and anchoring suture
78
When is vaginal progesterone considered a tx option for cervical insufficiency?
Consider treatment for patients with a history of preterm birth, singleton gestation and a **shortened cervix** **only helpful if the pt has. shorten cervix**
79
What is considered a preterm birth?
delivery of infant before 37 weeks
80
What are 4 reasons for preterm birth?
Spontaneous unexplained preterm labor with intact membranes Idiopathic preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM Delivery for maternal or fetal indication Twins and higher order multifetal births
81
What are 9 reasons for preterm labor? **What is the highest risk factor?
Threatened Abortion during this pregnancy Cigarette Smoking Inadequate weight gain during pregnancy Illicit drug use Depression, anxiety, chronic stress Short interval between pregnancies **Prior preterm birth**-> highest risk factor Periodontal disease Infection
82
______ is a glycoprotein that is detected vaginally in labor that reflects stromal remodeling of the cervix before labor. But is NOT used frequently anymore
fetal fibronection
83
By looking at the cervical length, how can you determine if the pt is in preterm labor?
Check transvaginally from 18-22 weeks If >3cm, indicates patient not in labor
84
When would you check a nitrazine in preterm labor? What are the normal vaginal pH ranges? amniotic fluid?
if you suspect rupture of membranes Normal vaginal pH 4.5-5.5 Amniotic fluid pH 7.0-7.5
85
What steps need to be included in the work-up of a pt in pre-term labor?
check cervical length sterile vaginal exam sterile speculum exam check nitrazine check UA and culture
86
What is the tx for preterm labor?
tocolysis -magnesium sulfate -nifedipine -Indomethacin -terbutaline -betamethasone if between 24-34 weeks
87
What is the MOA of tocolysis? What is the associated timing?
stopping the contractions May delay delivery 48hours to allow time for transfer/meds
88
Why is Indomethacin NOT used past the 2nd trimester?
because it can close the ductus arteriosis
89
What is the prevention for preterm labor?
Cervical Cerclage: For women identified to have a cervical length <25mm who are at high risk for Preterm Birth IM progesterone therapy: Weekly injections beginning at 16 weeks till 36 weeks
90
______ is used as neuroprotection to prevent neonatal intracranial hemorrhage. What week gestation range?
Magnesium sulfate given from 24-32 weeks gestation for at least 12 hours
91
What does PPROM stand for? What is it?
Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes Membrane rupture before the onset of contractions and before 37 weeks gestation
92
What are the risk factors for PPROM?
Genital tract infection History of PPROM Antepartum bleeding Cigarette smoking Short cervical length Low BMI Low socioeconomic status Illicit drug use
93
How do you dx PPROM?
speculum exam that will show: pooling of amniotic fluid within the vagina nitrazine swab will detect alkaline pH of amniotic fluid ferning when fluid from posterior fornix is swabbed and placed on microscope slide US: will show low amniotic fluid
94
What are 4 things that can cause a false positive on a nitrazine swab?
Blood Semen Antiseptics Bacterial vaginosis
95
When fluid allowed to dry, amniotic fluid causes a ______
ferning pattern
96
a pt presents with PPROM, 50% of pt will delivery within _______. Can it be managed outpt? Why?
delivery within 1 weeks NO! pt is hospitalized the remainder of her pregnancy due to risk of cord prolapse
97
What is the tx for PPROM? When would you like to wait to deliver the baby until?
hospitalized corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity tocolysis abx: Amipicillin IV then Amoxicillin PO or Erythromycin IV then Erythromycin PO (could also used Azithromycin) prefer 34 weeks!!
98
PPROM pt and she develops ______ proceed with delivery. What are some s/s?
clinical chorioamnionitis Fever, Uterine tenderness, Malodorous vaginal discharge, Fetal or maternal tachycardia
99
What are some complications that can arise with PPROM?
premature delivery including: Respiratory distress, Sepsis, Intraventricular hemorrhage, Necrotizing enterocolitis Placental Abruption Chorioamnionitis (15-35%) Sepsis Cord Prolapse
100
Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) increases fetal morbidity and mortality due to ______, ______ and ______
stilbirth neonatal encephalopathy cerebral palsy
101
How do you dx IUGR? What 2 things can limit accuracy?
Fundal height measurement with discrepancy of >3cm Maternal obesity and fibroids can limit accuracy
102
______ and ______ are the 2 most accurate ultrasound biometrical parameters for IUGR. _______ or _________ indicates IUGR.
Abdominal circumference and estimated fetal weight <10th percentile overall growth OR < 10th percentile Abdominal circumference
103
What 3 things are monitored closely once dx with IUGR? When should you plan for delivery?
Amniotic Fluid Volume measurement: weekly after 34 weeks Umbilical Artery Doppler velocimetry: Begin around 28 weeks and repeat every 1-2weeks Growth Ultrasound: Repeat growth measurements every 3-4 weeks after 18 weeks gestation 37-38 weeks unless s/s of fetal compromise
104
_______ counts for 29% of fetals death and _______ and _____ are at 24% each
Obstetrical complications – 29% Undetermined and placental abnormalities are at 24% each
105
What is the tx for fetal death? How is it found?
need to make a plan for delivery usually incidental and found during fetal assessment
106
What options should you offer parents after fetal death?
Neonatal autopsy Karyotyping Examination of placenta, cord and membranes Cultures to test for infection parents can choose to do nothing
107
What is the management for future pregnancies once the mom has had one previous fetal death?
Preconception counseling with Maternal Fetal Medicine Control modifiable risk factors (ie Hypertension, etc) Offer routine genetic testing Obtain anatomy scan at 18 weeks and then serial growth ultrasounds beginning at 28 weeks Begin antepartum surveillance at 32 weeks or 1-2 weeks prior to stillbirth Elective induction or cesarean at 37 weeks
108
What is considered hypertension in pregnancy?
Elevation of BP ≥140 mmHg systolic and/or ≥90 mmHg diastolic, on two occasions at least 4 hours apart AFTER 20 weeks OR present after 12 weeks postpartum
109
What does a natural BP do over the course of the pregnancy?
BP falls early in pregnancy then rises again in the 3rd trimester
110
**What HTN medications are CI in pregnancy?
ACE inhibitors and ARBs
111
______ and ______ should be obtained in women with long- standing HTN
EKG and echo
112
**_____ or ______ are preferred in pregnancy for HTN. **______ may reduce the risk of superimposed preeclampsia
Labetalol CCB ASA 81-162mg
113
May taper or discontinue meds for women with blood pressures less than _____ in 1st trimester. Reinstitute or initiate therapy for persistent diastolic pressures ______, systolic pressures >150 mmHg, or signs of hypertensive end-organ damage.
120/80 >95 mmHg >150 mmHg
114
A preg pt with chronic HTN should deliver without complications between ____ and ____ weeks
37-39 weeks
115
What is considered gestational HTN? When does it resolve?
BP > 140/90 after 20 weeks in previously normotensive women AFTER 20 weeks gestation resolves by 12 weeks postpartum
116
**What is considered pre-eclampsia?
New onset of hypertension AND proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation
117
What is the HTN cutoff for pre-eclampsia? What is the protein level?
Systolic blood pressure ≥140 mmHg OR diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg Proteinuria of 0.3 g (300 miligrams) or greater in a 24-hour urine specimen OR Or protein/creatinine ratio of 0.3 or more
118
What is the pathophys behind preeclampsia? What else is usually present?
Abnormal trophoblastic invasion Endothelial cell activation Genetic factors aka the cause is still unknown, why it happens Thrombocytopenia Renal insufficiency Liver involvement Cerebral symptoms Pulmonary edema aka lots of other things can present with it
119
What are the risk factors for preeclampsia?
First pregnancy Young women Multifetal gestations Presence of certain vascular disorders: DM, SLE, renal disease, etc Obesity African American race Chronic hypertension
120
What is preeclampsia with severe features?
160/110 on more than 2 occasions at least 4 hours apart thrombocytopenia: platelet less than 100K impaired liver function renal insufficiency: serum creatinine concentration more than 1.1mg/dl or double of serum creatinine concentration pulmonary edema new onset HA visual disturbances
121
What are the maternal complications of preeclampsia with severe features? When is delivery recommended?
Pulmonary edema MI Stroke Renal failure Retinal injury preeclampsia with severe features: deliver at 34 weeks
122
What is eclampsia? When can it occur?
Occurrence of generalized convulsion and/or coma in the setting of preeclampsia, with no other neurological condition May occur before, during or after labor (up to 48 hours postpartum)
123
123
How often do you see Preeclampsia superimposed on Chronic Hypertension? What qualifies as the diagnosis?
Affects 20% of patients with chronic HTN Preexisting Hypertension with the following additional signs/symptoms: New onset proteinuria A sudden increase in blood pressure. Development of any component of HELLP Syndrome or symptoms of Severe Preeclampsia
124
What is HELLP syndrome? Where will the pt complain of pain? What does it indicate?
Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes and Low Platelet Count Patients have RUQ pain because the liver bleeds and it distends the capsule Indicator of severe preeclampsia and associated with WORSE outcomes
125
What is the definitive tx of preeclampsia? What are you trying to prevent? What are the ACUTE drugs of choice?
DELIVERY!! prevent cerebrovascular hemorrhage and hypertensive encephalopathy especially when BP is greater to or equal to 160/100 IV labetalol, IV hydralazine, PO nifedipine AND Magnesium sulfate: aiming at controlling anticonvulsant as to not have any central nervous system depression +/- corticosteroids if needed for fetal lung maturation (between 24-34 weeks)
126
Is gestational diabetes type I or type II?
Diagnosis of Diabetes during pregnancy that is not clearly Type or Type 2 Diabetes
127
What are the diagnostic criteria for pregestational diabetes?
High plasma glucose levels, glucosuria, ketoacidosis Random plasma glucose >200 mg/dL plus classic symptoms such as polydipsia, polyuria and unexplained weight loss Fasting glucose >125 mg/dL HgbA1c ≥ 6.5%
128
Hemoglobin A1c ____ or preprandial glucose ______ are at increased risk and often have worsened _______ or ______
>12 >120 mg/dL cardiovascular or renal disease
129
What are complications of pregestational diabetes on the fetus?
spontaneous abortion preterm delivery malformations altered fetal growth (either small or large) unexplained fetal demise hydramnios
130
pregestational type I diabetes has a _____ and is present in approx. 5% of pts
higher incidence of MAJOR malformations including 4X higher risk of cardiac defects
131
infants born to DM mothers are more likely to be _____ at birth because insulin (does/does not)
hypoglycemic at birth insulin DOES cross placenta so the infant is overproducing insulin and there is no longer overproduction of glucose from the mother
132
What are some neonatal effects that can happen as a result of pregestational DM?
respiratory distress syndrome hypoglycemia hypocalcemia Hyperbilirubinemia and Polycythemia Cardiomyopathy Long term cognitive defects
133
When DKA does effect pregnancies, more likely to be ______ and are associated with what 4 things?
more likely to be T1DM and vomiting! Associated with Hyperemesis gravidarum, β-mimetic drugs for tocolysis, infection and corticosteroids
134
Before getting pregnant is it recommended to keep BS at what levels?
Preprandial 70-100mg/dL Peak Postprandial 100-129mg/dL Mean daily glucose concentrations <110mg/dL Hemoglobin A1c <7
135
What is important to note about DM and pregnancy? What should the levels be?
first trimester glucose monitoring is CRUCIAL? Fasting <95 1h postprandial <140 or 2h postprandial <120 Hemoglobin A1c <6 -> Associated with lowest risk for LGA
136
______ is the preferred BS management in pregnancy. Do their need increase or decrease throughout pregnancy?
insulin Insulin needs increase throughout pregnancy
137
______ is high risk factor for development of preeclampsia and may require ______ throughout pregnancy.
Pregestational diabetes more frequent visits throughout pregnancy should also refer for high risk consultation
138
______ and ______ are needed during the second trimester for a mother who has pregestational DM.
Targeted Ultrasound between 18-20 weeks Fetal Echocardiogram between 20-24 weeks
139
for pregestational DM, _____ may be needed during delivery and delivery should be planned for ______. If greater than ____ should consider c-section
insulin drip 36-40 weeks If >4500g, consider cesarean delivery due to increased risk of shoulder dystocia
140
What is important to note about the insulin requirements POSTPARTUM? the risk of _____ is increased
Insulin may need to be DECREASED by half and monitored closely in the subsequent weeks Risk of infection is increased
141
What are 4 risk factors for gestational diabetes?
ethnicity: Hispanic, African American, Native American, Asian or Pacific Islander women obesity increasing age sedentary lifestyle
142
what is the screening for gestational DM? When should moms be screened?
50g 1hour oral glucose challenge test between 24-28 weeks Not affected by fasting ACOG recommends cut-off of 130-140mg/dL
143
If the first screening test for DM is positive, what is the next step?
proceed to 100g 3 hour glucose tolerance test Must be fasting for this test
143
For the 3 hour glucose tolerance test, how do you make the dx of gestational DM?
Must have 2 abnormal results to receive diagnosis of gestational diabetes Fasting  95mg/dL 1h  180 mg/dL 2h  155 mg/dL 3h  140mg/dL
144
_____ is considered preferred standard therapy for DM medical management. _____ is also a viable option but does NOT have lots of evidence and long term follow up
insulin metformin
145
______ is rarely used in preg DM management due to increased risks of macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia
glyburide
146
What is the required screening for gestational DM after delivery? What is the associated timeframe?
All women should receive 75g 2 hour glucose tolerance test at 6-12 weeks postpartum
147
What are the 4 maternal and fetal effects of gestational DM?
increased rate of stillbirth fetal macrosomia neonatal hypoglycemia maternal obesity
148
What lifelong effect does gestational DM have on the baby?
childhood and adult onset obesity
149
What type of twins are the most common?
Usually result from fertilization of two ova dizygotic twins are much more common
150
______ are twins that arose from a single fertilized ovum. What are vanishing twins? incidence is higher in the ______ trimester
monozygotic Usually result from fertilization of two ova higher in first trimester
151
What does dichorionic mean? **What sign is associated with it?
they have 2 separate placentas **Twin peak sign
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_______ -> triangular projection of placental tissue extending a short distance between the layers of the dividing membrane
twin peak sign dichorionic placenta
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What is another name for a twin peak sign?
Lambda or Delta sign
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______ is a thin dividing membrane. What sign is associated with it?
monochorionic placenta t sign
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______ is a right angle relationship between the membranes and placenta and no apparent extension of placenta between the dividing membranes
T sign monochorionic placenta
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Name that sign? What does it tell you?
T sign monochorionic shared placenta
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Name that sign. What does it suggest?
Twin peak sign fused dichorionic placenta
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What is size discordance? Under what scenario do you see it?
Weight discordance >20% most accurately predicts adverse outcomes More likely to fail a vaginal delivery if baby A (the first twin that comes out) is smaller than baby B in multifetal gestations
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What complications are monochorionic monoamnionic twins at increased risk for? What should you do?
Cord entanglement Congenital anomalies Preterm birth Twin twin transfusion syndrome LOTS more testing and have increased risk of congenital cardiac disease including fetal echo, giving corticosteroids and are delivered via c section
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What is twin twin transfusion syndrome? What is the tx?
Occurs in monochorionic diamniotic twins Blood transfused from a donor twin to its recipient sibling Donor becomes anemic and growth restricted aka bigger twins starts stealing nutrients and oxygen from the smaller twin tx: Laser ablation of anastomosis is preferred Selective reduction can be considered
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What is the recommended weight gain for a multifetal gestation?
Recommend 37-54lb weight gain for women with normal BMI
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What is proven to help multifetal gestations NOT have a preterm birth?
no evidence that anything helps (best rest, tocolysis, progesterone, cervical cerclage) but pessary are showing good promising signs they might be helpful
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What are pessarys? When are they used?
These are little donuts that can be put into the vagina behind the pubic symphysis in order to help support the area and keep the babies in for longer multifetal gestations
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What is the ideal presentation for mulitfetal gestation? When should di di twins be delivered? mono di? mono mono?
Cephalic-cephalic presentation ideal di di: 38 weeks mono di: 34-37 weeks mono mono: 32-34 weeks
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When does the fetus start making thyroid hormone? During this time thyroid hormone is vital for _____
after 12 weeks gestation anything before is provided by mom brain development
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What effect does pregnancy have on the thyroid?
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What is the MC cause of hypothyroidism? How do you dx it? What is the tx of choice?
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis Painless inflammation with progressive enlargement of the thyroid gland labs: Elevated TSH/ Low Free T4 Levothyroxine is treatment of choice
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preg pt with hypothyroidism will need to (decrease/increase) their levothyroxine during pregnancy
INCREASE Should follow thyroid levels about every 6 weeks – because they may need more Levo during pregnancy
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What is the recommendation for subclinical hypothyroidism? What will their labs show?
Studies suggest treating with Levothyroxine decreases risk of neurodevelopmental complications in offspring Elevated TSH/ Normal Free T4
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______ is one of the most common treatable causes of mental retardation in preg
Congenital Hypothyroidism
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___ of women have MDD during pregnancy
10-14% and 25% will have an increase in symptoms
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What are risk factors for MDD in pregnancy? When do preg pts need to be screened?
History of depressive disorders Low social support Financial disadvantage Adolescence Unmarried Recent adverse life events History of abuse initial visit and at risk then every visit after
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____ is first line tx for MDD. If mother is stable on her MDD meds and gets pregnant, what is the recommendation?
SSRIs and SNRIs If mother is stable on her current medication and there is so no contraindication, then should continue treatment
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______ is the first medication approved for postpartum depression. Should you use it in combo with SSRI/SNRI? What is the tx length?
Zuranolone YES, good to use in adjunct daily for 14 days
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What opioid substitutions cross the placenta?
Methadone crosses the placenta Subutex does not cross as readily
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_______ is a positive urine culture in an asymptomatic patient. ____ should occur at initial prenatal visit
Asymptomatic Bacteruria urine culture screening
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What is the tx for Asymptomatic Bacteruria? _____ should be repeated a week after completion of treatment to ensure resolution.
Treatment -> Macrobid, Keflex Urine Culture
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______ should be considered for women with a persistent UIT after 2 courses of treatment. What is the tx?
suppressive therapy Macrobid 100 PO daily
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What should you do if a preg pt develops pyelonephritis?
hospitalization with IV antibiotics suppression therapy for duration of pregnancy to prevent recurrence
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