Composition and features of blood Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
How much blood does the average person have?
A
5L
2
Q
How much blood circulates through your heart every 24hrs?
A
14,000L
3
Q
What is the relative blood volume and flow rate of large and small vessels?
A
Large = high volume, low flow Small = low volume high flow
4
Q
What is the relative pressure of blood in capillaries?
A
Quite high
5
Q
What is the major pump of the body?
A
The heart
6
Q
What is the heart doing when the systolic blood pressure is being measured?
A
It is contracting its hardest
7
Q
What are arteries made of? What does this allow them to do?
A
Smooth muscle Allows them to contract and expand
8
Q
What does blood pressure ensure? What are the properties of the blood pressure flowing through the capillaries?
A
Even and efficient flow through the small capillaries Low enough to prevent capillary leakage (e.g. spilling content out of cell) but high enough to prevent coagulation (e.g. turning into a thick semi-solid substance)
9
Q
What strutures in arteries controls blood flow direction?
A
Valves
10
Q
Which chamber of the heart is the largest? What does this chamber do?
A
Left ventricle Pumps oxygenated blood through the aorta
11
Q
What are the relative pressures of the arteries and veins? What is the purpose of this?
A
Arteries have a much higher blood pressure This ensures that the blood is always moving in one direction
12
Q
What makes up the blood?
A
Cells, proteins, lipids, electrolytes, vitamins/hormones and glucose
13
Q
What kind of cells are part of the blood?
A
erythroid, myeloid and lymphoid
14
Q
What are the three major proteins of the blood?
A
Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen
15
Q
What are erythroid cells? What do they do?
A
Red blood cells pick up and transport O2 to blood cells
16
Q
What are myeloid cells?
A
White blood cells provide innate immunity
17
Q
What is the function of the lymphoid cells?
A
Provide the adaptable aspects of the immune system
18
Q
What is the most common type of protein in blood? What percent?
A
Albumin 40-50%
19
Q
Where is haemoglobin found?
A
In erythroid cells
20
Q
What is the function of fibrinogen?
A
Coagulation by forming a fibrin clot
21
Q
What do immunoglobulins do? What kind of major protein is this?
A
Make up your adaptive humoral (body fluids) immune response
22
Q
How are lipids found in the blood?
A
They are bound to lipoproteins
23
Q
What are the types of lipoproteins?
A
High density lipoprotein (HDL), low density lipoprotein (LDL) and very low density lipoprotein (VLDL)
24
Q
What are the functions of electrolytes in the blood?
A
Provide pH buffering and maintain osmolarity
25
What are the important electrolytes in the blood?
HCO3-, Na+, Cl-, Ca2+, Mg2+, K+, creatine and creatinine
26
What are the functions of HCO3-, creatine and creatinine in the blood?
Provide buffers to prevent large changes in pH of the blood
27
What are the functions of Na+, Cl-, Ca2+, Mg2+ and K+ in the blood?
Maintain osmolarity in the blood
28
What are the two major components of whole blood? What are their relative percentages of whole blood?
Plasma = 55%, formed elements = 45%
29
Where is albumin made? What is its function in the blood?
Liver Maintains osmotic pressure to prevent too much water moving in and out of vessels, binds and transports many small molecules/hormones
30
How much does fibrinogen make up the blood? What is its structures? What is its function and how does it do it?
7% three chain of fibre nodules When the three chains are cleaved they form the fibre clot
31
What is serum?
Plasma that has fibrinogen removed
32
What is the colour of serum? What happens to the colour once you've eaten a fatty meal? What causes this change?
Straw coloured/yellow liquid Goes murkier and whiter There are more lipoproteins that have picked up lipids form the gut and solubilised them
33
What is electrophoresis?
A method used to measure the percentages of serum proteins
34
How does electrophoresis work?
Exposes serum proteins to an electric field which causes each protein to move differently due to their unique charges on them
35
What are the different types of globulin?
α1, α2, ß and γ
36
What important protein is found in the γ globulins?
Immunoglobulins
37
What is multiple myeloma?
A form of leukaemia where a malignant lymphocyte produce monoclonal (e.g.cloning itself) immunoglobulins
38
What is a major difference in the electrophoresis graph of a normal patient and someone with multiple myeloma? What does this indicate?
Multiple myeloma will have a very large spike of γ globulins Shows there is excess production of immunoglobulins
39
What are the 6 key (includes major FYI) blood components that are in the blood?
Albumin, fibrinogen, immunoglobulins, complements, coagulation factors and electrolytes
40
What produces immunoglobulins? What are they?
B lymphocytes Antigen binding proteins
41
What is you innate immune response?
The immediate immune response signifying that infections need to be tracked and removed
42
What do complements do?
Coat bacteria targeting them for phagocytosis
43
How many types of complements are there?
9 protein types
44
What are coagulation factors? How many types are there?
from fibre from fibrinogen resulting in coagulation of the blood 13
45
What condition arises from a lack of coagulation? What if deficient in a person suffering from this?
Haemophilia Factor VIII deficient is most common
46
What is the function of electrolytes?
Maintain isotonicity and pH
47
What pH is the blood maintained at?
pH = 7.4
48
What is the most tightly regulated ion in the body? What percent does it vary by the most?
Potassium, 2-3%
49
What are and what is the concentration and what are the functions of the three main cells in the blood?
Erthyocytes = 5-6 million cells per ml, oxygen transport Leukocytes = 10,000/ml, immune defence Platelets = 400,000/ml, coagulation and tissue repair
50
Label the tree diagram stating the origins of the blood cells and also the location of them if there is a red box next to them. Which of these cells are involved in innate immunity? Which are involved in the adaptive immunity?
Hematopoiesis diagram
51
What produces platelets?
Megakaryocyte
52
What is the condition called when the number of leukocytes drops? What is this usually caused by?
Leukopenic Infection
53
If you are severely Leukopenic what does that make a patient prone to?
Infections
54
What is the origin for all blood cells?
Multipotential hematopoietic stem cell
55
How are multipotential hematopoietic stem cell's characterised?
By CD34, (cd = cluster differentiation FYI)
56
What are cluster differentiation markers used for? How many are there?
Used to identify all the various markers on the blood cells At least 250
57
Where do multipotential hematopoietic stem cells reside mostly?
In the bone marrow
58
When and where are the concentration of multipotential hematopoietic stem cells highest?
During embryo development in the placental cord blood
59
What is the main function of the megakaryocyte?
Produces the platelets of the body (Thrombocytes)
60
What are mast cells apart of?
Part of your innate adaptive immune system
61
What kind of myeloblasts are white blood cells in the blood most commonly?
Neutrophil and monocytes
62
What are the identify characteristic of the cells produced by myeloblasts?
Neutrophil = multiple lobed nucleus Eosinophil = bilabial nucleus with bright red nucleus Basophil = dark stained nucleus Monocytes = single large nucleus (~60% of cell volume)
63
What do monocytes differentiate into when there is infection? What does this cell do?
Macrophages Phagocytic response + presentation of antigen to adaptive immune response
64
What do plasma cells do?
Produce antibodies
65
What kind of treatment is used on patients with leukaemia that have not been successful with other chemotherapies?
Autologous Human stem cell transplant
66
What does Autologous human stem cell transplant do?
Anti-CD34 antibodies are used to select, concentrate and extract Hematopoietic stem cells are then extracted from the bone marrow and stored. Tissue is radio-ablated destroying malignant cells and the stem cells are then reinserted back into the bone marrow
67
What is a risk while the patient is receiving autologous human stem cell transplant? Why is this so?
The patient will develop an infection Removing the CD34 from the bone marrow means no new white blood cells are produced removing patients immune defence
68
How many hematopoietic stem cells are there per 10,000 white blood cells?
1 per 10,000
69
What is haematopoiesis?
The formation of blood cell components
70
What are three important factors that drive haematopoiesis
Granulocytes macrophage colony-stimulation factor (GM-CSF), Erythropoietin (EPO) and granulocyte colony-stimulation factor (G-CSF)
71
What are GM-CSF produced by?
Macrophages, T cells, endothelial cells and fibroblasts
72
What does GM-CSF stimulate the production of? What are all these cells produced apart of?
Stimulates the produces of neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and monocytes (collectively known as granulocytes FYI) Apart of the innate immune response
73
What cells are G-CSF produced by?
Produced by lots of different cells, no one main cell
74
What does G-CSF do?
Stimulates the production of granulocytes and also matures neutrophils
75
How are GM-CSF and G-CSF used during Autologous Human stem cell transplant?
Used to rapidly re-populate white blood cell count following radio-abalation
76
What does EPO do?
Boosts red blood cell count
77
What is a natural way to increase EPO?
Live in high altitude where there is lower pressure of O2
78
How can EPO be dangerous?
Too many red blood cells can thicken the blood too much resulting in co-agulation
79
What is the first condition experienced by someone with a lung infection?
Tiredness
80
What molecule regulates oxygen transport?
Heme
81
How many heme molecules are there in a single haemoglobin molecule?
4
82
What is the primary atom/ion is used to bind oxygen?
Ferris, Fe2+
83
What regulates the disassociation of O2 from the Fe2+ in heme?
The partial pressure of oxygen
84
What is the partial pressure of oxygen and CO2 in air, lung alveoli, arterial blood and venous blood?
Air: pO2 = 160mmHg, pCO2 = 0.3 Lung: 100, 35 Arterial blood: 80-100, 40 Venous blood: 20-40, 50
85
Under what conditions of the partial pressure of O2 does O2 associate and disassociate from heme? Where are these locations of dis/association
Associates in high pO2, e.g. lungs Disassociates in low pO2, e.g. tissue
86
What is the function of O2 in respiration?
It is the main source of electrons in the electron transfer chain
87
What are two molecules that inhibit the ability for heme to bind O2? What does it do to impact association with O2?
carbon monoxide (CO) and cyanide (CN) Bind to iron displacing O2
88
What heme contain proteins are affected by CO and CN?
CO binds to the Fe2+ in heme in: haemoglobin CN bind to the Fe2+ in heme in: Cytochrome-C oxidase (an enzyme in ECM cascade in mitochondria FYI)
89
What are the immediate impacts of CN if ingested/inhaled?
Stops the heart muscles from contracting (no O2 = no ATP)
90
What are the ways which white blood cells are activated?
Classical, lectin and alternative activation
91
What is classical activation mediated by? What does it activate?
By antibodies Macrophages and neutrophils
92
How does classical activation work? What receptors on the neutrophil bind activatd C3 onto \_\_\_\_\_\_?
1 - Antibody binds to an antigen on the surface of the microbe recruiting the first component of complement, C1, binding to back end of the antibody
2 - C1 activates C4 and C2 which are cleaved (small part removed FYI), forming convertase, this binds covalently to surface of bacteria recruiting C3
3 - C3 then generates more of itself so more covalent bonds accumulates on surface of bacteria called convertases
4 - From here two things happen:
4i: anaphylatoxins are released attracting neutrophils (neutrophils have receptors which detect anaphylatoxins and move along the chemical gradient pathway to the bacteria)
4ii: C3 forms opsonin making them more susceptive to phagocytosis
5 - C3 then activate the end stage protein C5, which generates C5b which coalesces with C6, 7, 8, 9 forming a pore in the surface of the bacteria membrane allowing lysis, this is called a membrane attack complex
CR1, CR2, CR3 bind activated C3 onto the surface of the bacteria \<-- essentail for phagocytosis
93
What are C# in the classical activation pathway?
complement proteins
94
What are anaphylatoxins? What are the types that are used?
Small fragments that are cleaved off the C3, C4 and C5 during activation of the complement system
95
When is the complement system activated?
To respond to an immune response
96
What is the term used to describe the opsonin binding to the surface of the bacteria? What does this do?
buttering of microbe, essential for attracting phagocytic cells for phagocytosis
97
The numbering of the complement proteins is not in cascade order, what is the method or numbering?
Numbered based on order of discovery
98
What is lysis?
The rupturing of the cell membrane
99
Are the bonds which are formed between the complements and microbe membrane permanent or reversible? Why is this? What is this bonding called?
Permanent because they are covalent Microbes become opsonised
100
What part of the complements is protected? What happens when it is not protected?
The thioester Binds to hydroxyl nucleophiles groups on the membrane of the microbe
101
How does the thioester become unprotected? Which complements is this protected on?
It is cleaved C3 and C4
102
What on the thioester gives it its reactive properties?
A reactive carbonyl group
103
What are the two ways which the coagulation pathway is activated?
Intrinsic and extrinsic pathway
104
How is the intrinsic pathway activated?
When blood comes into contact with something
105
How is the extrinsic pathway activated?
When tissued becomes inflamed (e.g. damaged)
106
What are the protein factors involved in the intrinsic pathway?
Factors: VIII, IX, XI and XII
107
What are the protein factors involved in the extrinsic pathway?
Factors: Tissue factor, V and VII
108
What factor do both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway activate?
Factor X
109
What does factor X do?
It become activated into Xa and Xa then cleaves prothrombin into thrombin
110
What does thrombin do?
It cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin
111
What does fibrin do once formed?
Forms covalent bonds and cross links between each other clotting blood
112
What are the two types of clots?
Soft clots and hard clots
113
What is a soft clot?
A clot that is destabilised and becomes a hard clot over time
114
What does an anti-coagulator do? Give an example of an anti-coagulator and where it comes from
Inhibits the thrombin enzyme Hirudin from leech or Heparin from mosquito
115
What enzyme can be used to dissolve a clot? What is it converted from?
Plasmin Plasminogen (is a zymogen FYI [inactive unit activated by an enzyme FYI])
