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1
Q
  1. Who is considered the “Father of Immunology”?
    A. Louis Pasteur
    B. Edward Jenner
    C. Robert Koch
    D. Emil von Behring
A

B

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2
Q
  1. The process of coating pathogens to enhance phagocytosis is called:
    A. Agglutination
    B. Neutralization
    C. Opsonization
    D. Sensitization
A

C

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3
Q
  1. Which immune cell is most abundant in the peripheral blood?
    A. B cells
    B. T cells
    C. Neutrophils
    D. NK cells
A

C

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4
Q
  1. The main role of Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs) is to:
    A. Destroy antibody
    B. Identify self-antigen
    C. Recognize PAMPs
    D. Present antigen to B cells
A

C

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5
Q
  1. The most potent opsonin in the complement system is:
    A. C3a
    B. C5a
    C. C3b
    D. C1q
A

C

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered the first line of defense?
    A. Phagocytes
    B. Complement proteins
    C. Intact skin
    D. Cytokines
A

C

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7
Q
  1. What is the primary site of T cell maturation?
    A. Spleen
    B. Liver
    C. Thymus
    D. Lymph node
A

C

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8
Q
  1. What is the primary role of neutrophils?
    A. Produce antibodies
    B. Inhibit inflammation
    C. Phagocytosis
    D. Present antigens
A

C

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9
Q
  1. A molecule recognized by the immune system but does not elicit a response is:
    A. Immunogen
    B. Allergen
    C. Antibody
    D. Antigen
A

D

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10
Q
  1. Which immunoglobulin class is most abundant in serum?
    A. IgA
    B. IgG
    C. IgM
    D. IgE
A

B

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11
Q
  1. Which cytokine is most involved in inducing fever and inflammation?
    A. IL-2
    B. IL-4
    C. IL-1β
    D. IFN-γ
A

C

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12
Q
  1. What structure is responsible for antigen recognition on B cells?
    A. CD3
    B. TCR
    C. Immunoglobulin receptor
    D. CD4
A

C

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13
Q
  1. The membrane attack complex (MAC) involves which complement components?
    A. C1–C3
    B. C5b–C9
    C. C3a–C4a
    D. C1q–C1s
A

B

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14
Q
  1. Which TLR detects Gram-negative bacteria via lipopolysaccharides (LPS)?
    A. TLR1
    B. TLR2
    C. TLR4
    D. TLR9
A

C

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages?
    A. Antigen presentation
    B. Phagocytosis
    C. Histamine release
    D. Cytokine production
A

C

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16
Q
  1. Which component of the immune system is capable of memory?
    A. Innate
    B. Adaptive
    C. Complement
    D. Acute phase reactants
A

B

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17
Q
  1. Which antibody class is involved in allergic reactions?
    A. IgM
    B. IgG
    C. IgE
    D. IgA
A

C

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is a negative acute phase reactant?
    A. CRP
    B. Serum amyloid A
    C. Albumin
    D. Fibrinogen
A

C

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19
Q
  1. The complement component most associated with chemotaxis is:
    A. C3a
    B. C5a
    C. C4b
    D. C2a
A

B

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20
Q
  1. What cell type is most associated with the elimination of parasitic worms?
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Eosinophils
    C. Basophils
    D. NK cells
A

B

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21
Q
  1. Which antibody class is the first produced during a primary immune response?
    A. IgA
    B. IgG
    C. IgM
    D. IgD
A

C

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22
Q
  1. Which acute phase reactant helps remove free hemoglobin from circulation?
    A. Ceruloplasmin
    B. Alpha-1-antitrypsin
    C. Haptoglobin
    D. Fibrinogen
A

C

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23
Q
  1. MALT refers to lymphoid tissue associated with the:
    A. Skin
    B. Bone marrow
    C. Mucosal surfaces
    D. Thymus
A

C

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24
Q
  1. CR1 receptors are found on:
    A. T helper cells
    B. Macrophages only
    C. RBCs and WBCs
    D. Dendritic cells only
A

C

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25
25. The T cell marker associated with T helper cells is: A. CD8 B. CD19 C. CD56 D. CD4
D
26
26. Which organ filters old RBCs and mounts immune responses? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Bone marrow D. Thymus
B
27
27. Which complement component forms the C3 convertase in the classical pathway? A. C3bBb B. C4b2a C. C5b9 D. C1qrs
B
28
28. A potent antiviral cytokine produced by leukocytes is: A. IFN-β B. IFN-α C. TNF-α D. IL-2
B
29
29. Which enzyme is responsible for oxidative burst in phagocytes? A. Lysozyme B. NADPH oxidase C. Elastase D. Superoxide dismutase
B
30
30. Which cell is known as a “frustrated phagocyte”? A. Macrophage B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Neutrophil
B
31
31. The thymus secretes which chemokine for T cell maturation? A. IL-2 B. IL-6 C. Thymosin D. Histamine
C
32
32. The most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions is: A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE
C
33
33. Which of the following destroys the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria? A. Lysozyme B. Perforin C. Elastase D. Defensin
A
34
34. The receptor for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is: A. CD4 B. CD16 C. CD21 D. CD19
C
35
35. The most potent phagocytic antigen-presenting cell is the: A. Monocyte B. Neutrophil C. Dendritic cell D. Eosinophil
C
36
36. A C1 inhibitor deficiency causes: A. Septic shock B. Hereditary angioedema C. Atherosclerosis D. Chronic granulomatous disease
B
37
37. Which phase of inflammation involves neutrophil migration? A. Vascular response B. Resolution and repair C. Cellular response D. Initiation
C
38
38. Which immunoglobulin class is responsible for secondary response? A. IgM B. IgE C. IgA D. IgG
D
39
39. Which of the following is a function of CRP? A. Immunosuppression B. Opsonization C. Degranulation D. Lymphocyte proliferation
B
40
40. The enzyme converting hydrogen peroxide to hypochlorite is: A. SOD B. NADPH oxidase C. Myeloperoxidase D. Peroxidase
C
41
41. The MHC Class II molecules are recognized by which T cell marker? A. CD8 B. CD21 C. CD4 D. CD16
C
42
42. The lymphoid organ that involutes with age is: A. Bone marrow B. Lymph node C. Thymus D. Spleen
C
43
43. Which enzyme is used in the respiratory burst to generate superoxide? A. Myeloperoxidase B. Catalase C. NADPH oxidase D. Lysozyme
C
44
44. Which CD marker is expressed by B cells for complement receptor binding? A. CD4 B. CD21 C. CD3 D. CD25
B
45
45. Which cytokine is responsible for class switching to IgE production? A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. IL-6 D. IL-12
B
46
46. Which lymphoid organ contains both red and white pulp? A. Thymus B. Appendix C. Spleen D. Lymph node
C
47
47. Which complement component is deficient in Neisseria infections? A. C1 B. C3 C. C5–C8 D. C9
C
48
48. The acute phase reactant that removes cholesterol from tissues is: A. Albumin B. Serum amyloid A C. Transferrin D. CRP
B
49
49. What CD marker is associated with cytotoxic T lymphocytes? A. CD4 B. CD8 C. CD20 D. CD56
B
50
50. Which phase of phagocytosis involves the ingestion of pathogens? A. Initiation B. Chemotaxis C. Engulfment D. Exocytosis
C
51
51. Which immunoglobulin is first produced during a primary immune response? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE
C
52
52. A “double positive” T cell expresses: A. CD3 and CD20 B. CD4 and CD8 C. CD19 and CD21 D. CD8 and CD28
B
53
53. What term describes the migration of WBCs from blood vessels into tissues? A. Chemotaxis B. Diapedesis C. Phagocytosis D. Engulfment
B
54
54. Which cytokine is most associated with macrophage activation? A. IL-2 B. IFN-γ C. TNF-α D. IL-6
B
55
55. Which complement component forms the membrane attack complex (MAC)? A. C3b B. C1q C. C9 D. C5a
C
56
56. NK cells are identified by the surface markers: A. CD3 and CD19 B. CD16 and CD56 C. CD20 and CD40 D. CD8 and CD28
B
57
57. Which receptor is involved in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)? A. CD4 B. CD19 C. CD16 D. CD28
C
58
58. Which of the following is NOT an acute phase reactant? A. C-reactive protein B. Fibrinogen C. Albumin D. Serum amyloid A
C
59
59. What is the major site of B cell maturation in humans? A. Thymus B. Liver C. Bone marrow D. Lymph node
C
60
60. Which T cell subset helps B cells produce antibodies? A. Th1 B. Th2 C. Treg D. Tc
B
61
61. The side-chain theory of antibody function was proposed by: A. Robert Koch B. Emil von Behring C. Paul Ehrlich D. Karl Landsteiner
C
62
62. The classical complement pathway is activated by: A. LPS B. Antigen-antibody complex C. Mannose-binding lectin D. Cobra venom factor
B
63
63. The best indicator of acute inflammation is: A. WBC count B. ESR C. CRP D. Albumin
C
64
64. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgM D. IgG
D
65
65. Which phagocytic cell is most potent in antigen presentation? A. Neutrophil B. Basophil C. Eosinophil D. Dendritic cell
D
66
66. The process where pathogens are marked for ingestion and destruction is called: A. Agglutination B. Precipitation C. Opsonization D. Sensitization
C
67
67. The immunoglobulin responsible for allergic reactions is: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgE D. IgD
C
68
68. Which interleukin is involved in stimulating B-cell differentiation? A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-4 D. IL-12
C
69
69. A deficiency in C3 leads to: A. SLE-like syndrome B. Recurrent infections C. No symptoms D. Hemolytic anemia
B
70
70. The first line of defense includes all EXCEPT: A. Skin B. Mucous membranes C. NK cells D. Secretions
C
71
71. Which enzyme converts superoxide into hydrogen peroxide? A. NADPH oxidase B. Myeloperoxidase C. Elastase D. Superoxide dismutase
D
72
72. The principal mediator of host response to gram-negative bacteria is: A. IL-1 B. IL-6 C. TNF-α D. IFN-γ
c
73
73. A potent chemotaxin generated during complement activation is: A. C1q B. C3a C. C5a D. C2b
C
74
74. The complement pathway important in infancy is: A. Classical B. Alternative C. MBL pathway D. CRP pathway
C
75
75. What is the major site of antigen-dependent lymphocyte activation? A. Thymus B. Spleen C. Liver D. Bone marrow
B
76
76. Which of the following statements is TRUE about macrophages? A. They are short-lived B. They originate in the thymus C. They are poor antigen presenters D. They have tumoricidal activity
D
77
77. What does "clonal deletion" refer to in T cell development? A. Positive selection B. Expansion of reactive clones C. Elimination of self-reactive T cells D. Migration to peripheral organs
C
78
78. The normal pH of skin that helps deter microbial growth is approximately: A. 3.5 B. 5.6 C. 6.8 D. 7.4
B
79
79. C-reactive protein peaks within how many hours during inflammation? A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
D
80
80. The term for a protein that binds copper and oxidizes iron: A. Ferritin B. Haptoglobin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Hemoglobin
C
81
81. The function of interferon-gamma is to: A. Neutralize toxins B. Activate macrophages C. Inhibit phagocytosis D. Decrease inflammation
B
82
82. Antigen-presenting cells include all EXCEPT: A. Dendritic cells B. B lymphocytes C. Monocytes D. Basophils
D
83
83. The term for a secondary immune response antigen that doesn’t require T cell help: A. T-dependent B. T-independent C. Autoantigen D. Alloantigen
B
84
84. The main function of the red pulp of the spleen is to: A. Produce lymphocytes B. Destroy old RBCs C. Present antigens D. Produce antibodies
B
85
85. Which cytokine is most associated with a cytokine storm? A. IL-2 B. IL-1β C. IFN-β D. IL-10
B
86
86. Lymphocytes express unique surface markers called: A. Interleukins B. Cluster of differentiation (CD) C. Toll-like receptors D. Plasma proteins
B
87
87. The most potent granule of neutrophils is: A. Elastase B. Lysozyme C. Myeloperoxidase D. Lactoferrin
C
88
88. What triggers mast cell degranulation? A. IL-4 binding B. IgE binding C. IFN-γ signaling D. CD4 interaction
B
89
89. The diagnostic test for complement activity that lyses sheep RBCs is: A. RID B. ELISA C. CH50 assay D. Immunofixation
C
90
90. A mitogen that stimulates both T and B cells is: A. PHA B. PWM C. ConA D. LPS
B
91
91. CD4 T cells that suppress immune response are: A. Th1 B. Th2 C. Treg D. Tc
C
92
92. Which protein converts hydrogen peroxide into hypochlorite? A. Catalase B. SOD C. NADPH oxidase D. Myeloperoxidase
D
93
93. Which immunoglobulin is found predominantly in secretions? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgE D. IgD
B
94
94. The major lymphatic vessel that returns lymph to the bloodstream is the: A. Jugular vein B. Thoracic duct C. Aorta D. Lymph capillary
B
95
95. The purpose of high endothelial venules in lymph nodes is to: A. Trap antigens B. Release antibodies C. Allow lymphocyte entry D. Drain lymph
C
96
96. The antigen-binding fragment of an antibody is called: A. Fc B. Fab C. Hinge region D. Constant domain
B
97
97. Which immunoglobulin can be produced in response to re-exposure? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgD
B
98
98. The term for the enzyme activity created when C3b binds to Bb is: A. C3 convertase B. C4 convertase C. C5 convertase D. Lysozyme
A
99
99. Which complement component is deficient in hereditary angioedema? A. C3 B. C1 INH C. C5 D. C2
B
100
100. What does IL-6 primarily promote during inflammation? A. T-cell apoptosis B. Cytotoxicity C. APR synthesis D. MHC I expression
C
101
101. What is the name of the cell that secretes antibodies? A. B cell B. Memory cell C. Plasma cell D. NK cell
C
102
102. Which acute phase reactant is associated with bacterial infections more than viral? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Serum amyloid A C. Albumin D. Alpha-2-macroglobulin
B
103
103. Which type of immunity is passed from mother to baby via placenta? A. Passive artificial B. Active natural C. Passive natural D. Active artificial
C
104
104. Which enzyme cleaves C4 and C2 in the classical pathway? A. C1s B. C3 convertase C. MASP-2 D. Factor D
A
105
105. The T cell population that regulates or suppresses immune response is: A. Th1 B. Th2 C. Treg D. Tc
C
106
106. Which immunoglobulin class is pentameric in structure? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE
B
107
107. What cytokine is known to trigger production of acute phase reactants in the liver? A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. IL-6 D. IFN-γ
C
108
108. A primary characteristic of innate immunity is that it is: A. Highly specific B. Antigen-dependent C. Rapid in response D. Capable of memory
C
109
109. MHC Class I molecules present antigen to: A. B cells B. CD4 T cells C. CD8 T cells D. NK cells
C
110
110. The acute phase reactant that binds copper and oxidizes iron is: A. Ferritin B. Transferrin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Haptoglobin
C
111
111. Which of the following is required to stabilize the alternative pathway C3 convertase? A. C1q B. Factor D C. Properdin D. C5b
C
112
112. Which cytokine is most associated with differentiation of Th1 cells? A. IL-4 B. IL-5 C. IL-12 D. IL-10
C
113
113. The most significant step in complement activation is the cleavage of: A. C1q B. C3 C. C5 D. C9
B
114
114. Which of the following is a key characteristic of T-independent antigens? A. Require T cell help B. Do not activate B cells C. Activate B cells directly D. Processed by macrophages
C
115
115. Lymphoid tissue located in the gastrointestinal tract is called: A. MALT B. LALT C. SALT D. GALT
D
116
116. The surface marker for T helper cells is: A. CD3 B. CD4 C. CD8 D. CD25
B
117
117. What protein protects cells by degrading serine proteases? A. CRP B. Haptoglobin C. Alpha-1-antitrypsin D. Fibrinogen
C
118
118. The largest secondary lymphoid organ is the: A. Thymus B. Bone marrow C. Spleen D. Lymph node
C
119
119. Which enzyme converts superoxide to hydrogen peroxide? A. Myeloperoxidase B. Superoxide dismutase C. NADPH oxidase D. Catalase
B
120
120. Which cell releases histamine and is involved in allergy? A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Basophil D. NK cell
C
121
121. The phenomenon of a B cell responding to an antigen without T cell assistance is seen in: A. Alloantigen response B. T-dependent immunity C. T-independent immunity D. Passive immunity
C
122
122. Which part of an antibody binds to Fc receptors? A. Fab B. Light chain C. Variable region D. Fc region
D
123
123. The central molecule in all complement activation pathways is: A. C2 B. C4 C. C3 D. C9
C
124
124. Which cell is a professional antigen presenting cell (APC)? A. NK cell B. Eosinophil C. Dendritic cell D. Mast cell
C
125
125. Which receptor on NK cells triggers ADCC? A. CD4 B. CD16 C. CD20 D. CD25
B
126
126. The chemotactic complement fragment is: A. C3a B. C5a C. C2a D. C4b
B
127
127. CRP activates which complement pathway? A. Alternative B. MBL C. Classical D. Lectin
C
128
128. The only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta is: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE
B
129
129. What term describes the removal of T cells that recognize self-antigen? A. Positive selection B. Clonal deletion C. Autoimmunity D. Negative feedback
B
130
130. The structure that presents antigens to naive T cells in lymph nodes is the: A. Dendritic cell B. Macrophage C. Neutrophil D. NK cell
A
131
131. Inflammation is primarily a response to: A. Immunoglobulin synthesis B. B cell activation C. Tissue injury or infection D. Antibody binding
C
132
132. The action of defensins is to: A. Bind iron B. Perforate membranes C. Inhibit complement D. Inhibit inflammation
B
133
133. What is the major function of the lymph node outer cortex? A. Housing T cells B. B cell activation C. Plasma cell production D. NK cell migration
B
134
134. The only complement component with reversed “a” and “b” fragment naming is: A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C9
B
135
135. Which cytokine is released by Th1 cells to activate cytotoxic T cells? A. IL-4 B. IL-2 C. IL-10 D. IL-5
B
136
136. CD8+ T cells recognize antigen in the context of: A. MHC I B. MHC II C. CD21 D. Antibody-antigen complex
A
137
137. Which APR is involved in forming fibrin clots? A. CRP B. Fibrinogen C. SAA D. Haptoglobin
B
138
138. Which CD marker is associated with B cells and complement receptor 2? A. CD21 B. CD19 C. CD3 D. CD4
A
139
139. Which MHC class is found on all nucleated cells? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Both I and II
A
140
140. The immunoglobulin receptor on mast cells binds to: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE
D
141
141. The most potent known chemotactic factor in complement is: A. C3a B. C5a C. C2a D. C9
B
142
142. An immunoglobulin monomer is composed of how many polypeptide chains? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
C
143
143. The Thymus produces what chemokine for T-cell development? A. IL-7 B. IL-4 C. IFN-γ D. TNF-α
A
144
144. The antibody class mainly responsible for mucosal immunity is: A. IgM B. IgE C. IgA D. IgD
C
145
145. The earliest immunoglobulin to appear during fetal development is: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
B
146
146. Which cell acts first during innate immune response? A. T cell B. B cell C. Dendritic cell D. Neutrophil
D
147
147. The term "antibody" was first coined by: A. Elie Metchnikoff B. Paul Ehrlich C. Emil von Behring D. Robert Koch
B
148
148. A heat-labile protein that mediates inflammation and cell lysis is called: A. Antibody B. Immunogen C. Complement D. Interferon
C
149
149. A positive APR with the fastest response time is: A. CRP B. Fibrinogen C. Haptoglobin D. Serum amyloid A
A
150
150. The removal of antigen-stimulated B cells that react with self is called: A. Class switching B. Central tolerance C. Antibody editing D. Somatic hypermutation
B

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