Comprehensive 1 Flashcards by Ray Carlo Omadto

Which of the following is incorrect?

A) The stoichiometric of the reaction defines the elemental balance and therefore relates the number of molecules of reactants and products participating in the reactions.

B) When the network is broken down into elementary or single-event steps, the network represents the true mechanism of the chemical transformation leading from initial reactants to final products through intermediates.

C) The Arrhenius equation can be derived from theoretical considerations using either of the two competing theories: collision theory and transfission state theory.

D) A limiting reactant is a reactant whose concentration at the start of the reaction is the least of all reactants relative to the required stoichiometric amount needed for complete conversion.

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Which of the following is incorrect?

A) Selectivity of a product is the ratio of the rate of production of that product to the rate of production of all products combined.

B) For gas-phase reactions, volumetric concentration or partial pressure are equally useful, and these can be related by the thermodynamic equation of state.

C) The complex parallel matrix is the matrix that confines the network of products that interpole on the positive maximum reactants and products.

D) A catalyst is a material that increases the rate of both the forward and the reverse reactions of a reaction step, with no net consumption or generation of catalyst by the reaction.

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Which of the following does not belong to the Chain Reaction?

A) Phosgene Synthesis

B) Ozone Conversion to CO2 Presence in Chlorine

C) Hydrogen Bromide Synthesis

D) Chain Polymerization

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Which is not a part of a generic mechanism of Chain Polymerization?

A) Initiation

B) Propagation

C) Termination by coupling

D) Termination by proportionation

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Biochemical reactions such as aerobic and anaerobic fermentations occur in the presence of living organisms or cells, such as bacteria, algae, and yeast. These reactions can be considered as ___________ by the organism.

A) biocatalyzed

B) biohomogenized

C) biosynthesis

D) bioaccumulation

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This mechanism of adsorption and reaction relates the gas concentrations and partial pressures in the vicinity of the catalyst surface to the absorbed species concentration at the active sites, which in turn determined the surface reaction rates.

A) Langmuir-Hinshelwood

B) Eadie-Hosfstee

C) Lineweaver-Burk

D) Hanes-Woolf

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Which is not a part of a generic mechanism of Polymerization Reactions?

A) Bulk Polymerization

B) Suspension Polymerization

C) Emulsion Polymerization

D) Nonhomogenized Polymerization

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The biomass that bioreactor converts into more cells or biomass (cell growth), proteins, and metabolic products. Any of these can be the desired product in a commercial fermentation.

A) substrate

B) inhibitor

C) enzymes

D) inducers

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This mechanism occurs when the poisoning of a pore surface begins at the mouth of the pore and moves gradually inward.

A) Shell Progressive Poisoning

B) Uniform Deactivation

C) Catalyst Deactivation

D) Metabolisis Poisoninga

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This is primarily due to rearrangement of the active sites at high temperature due to sintering. Sintering results in agglomeration of active ingredients (lower dispersion).

A) Thermal deactivation

B) Thermal activation

C) Thermal progression

D) Thermal degradation

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For the fast reaction regime, instead of the effectiveness factor adjustment for the intrinsic reaction rate, it is customary to define an ___________ to describe the observed mass transfer enhancement by the reactions.

A) enhancement factor

B) proportional factor

C) suspension factor

D) activation factor

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This is became important when the particles are larger that the powders used in slurry reactors, such as for catalytic packed beds operating in trickle flow mode, in packed bubble column mode, or countercurrent mode.

A) Intraparticle diffusion resistance

B) Interparticle diffusion resistance

C) Intraparticle passivation resistance

D) Interparticle passivation resistance

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This equation works well for elementary reactions, and it also works reasonably well for global reactions over a relatively narrow range of temperature in the absence of mass transfer limitations.

A) Arrhenius equation

B) Van’t Hoff relation

C) Plank’s equation

D) Stefan-Boltzmann relation

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This is a reactant whose concentration at the start of the reaction is the least of all reactants relative to the requirement stoichiometric amount needed to complete conversion.

A) limiting reactant

B) excess reactant

C) active reactant

D) deactive reactant

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Which of the following is incorrect?

A) Conversion of a reactant is the number of moles converted per initial of feed moles of a reactant.

B) At equilibrium, according to the principles of microscopic reversibility or detailed balancing, each reaction in the network is at equilibrium.

C) Once the limiting reactant is depleted, the respective reaction stops even through other (nonlimiting) reactants may still be abundant.

D) Change in the number of moles by the reaction and change in temperature, pressure, and density parallel to extended the opposite of stoichiometric balances from the number of moles to volumetric concentrations.

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It is the matrix of the stoichiometric coefficients of the reaction network with negative signs for reactants and positive signs for products.

A) stoichiometric matrix

B) proportional matrix

C) parallel matrix

D) reaction matrix

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For the network of reactions, the catalyst is often used to speed up desired reactions and/or to slow down undesired reactions for improved selectivity. On the basis of catalysis, reactions can be further classified into, except:

A) Noncatalystic reactions

B) Homogeneous catalytic reactions

C) Heterogeneous catalytic reactions

D) Modified heterogenous catalytic reactions

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An ideal batch reactor can be operated under, except:

A) isothermal conditions

B) temperature-programmed mode

C) adiabatic mode

D) isobaric conditions

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___________ is a type of reactor that can be operated under transient conditions (due to variation in feed composition, temperature, cooling rate, etc. with time), or it can be operated under steady-state conditions.

A) CSTR

B) Plug flow

C) Batch reactor

D) Semi-batch reactor

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In the case of a network reactions, knowing the reaction rates as a function of volumetric concentrations solution of the set of often nonlinear algebraic material balance equations using an implicit solver such as the ___________________________ to determine the CSTR effluent concentration as a function of the residence time.

A) multivariable Newton-Raphson method

B) multiparameter Newton-Burk method

C) multivariable Carson-Raphson method

D) multivariable Ediee-Burk method

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In a ________________ reactor all portions are feed stream move with the same radially uniform velocity along parallel streamlines and therefore have the same residence time; that is, there is no mixing in the axial direction but complete mixing radially.

A) plug flow

B) CSTR

C) batch

D) semi-batch

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_________________ reactions are not usually well represented by mass action kinetics because the rate results from the combined effect of several simultaneous elementary reactions that underline the global reactions.

A) complex reaction

B) Phosgene

C) plug flow

D) immediate

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Which is not included in the assumption of global reaction?

A) Pseudo-steady-state approximation for the intermediates, i.e. the concentration of these does not change during reaction.

B) Equilibrium for certain fast reversible reactions and completion of very fast irreversible steps.

C) Allow non-elimination of some reaction steps, and representation of free radical and short-lived intermediates concentrations in terms of the concentration of the stable measurable components, resulting in complex non-mass action rate expressions.

D) Rate-determining step, the global reaction rate is determined by the rate of the slowest step in the reaction network composing the overall or global reaction.

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In a ______________ reaction, the unstable intermediate, such as an activated complex or transition state complex, reacts further to produce the products, and it is not regenerated through propagation but it is continually made from reactants in stoichiometric quantities.

A) nonchain

B) chain

C) complex

D) globala

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During the batch fermentation, specific growth rate of the death phase (μ ) may well increase in which case the net growth rate of cells eventually becomes ________________, and the concentration of cells will start to _______________. d A) negative, decrease B) positive, increase C) positive, stable D) positive, decrease

Which of the following is incorrect? A) Substrate are catalytic proteins, many of which have been engineered to improved performance and stability to produce a given product. B) Cyanobacteria enereductases can be used to produce enantiomerically pure pharmaceuticals and fine chemicals. C) Wild type recombinant viruses or viruslike particles (VLPs) for therapeutic applications can be produced in mammalian, plant, fungal, and bacterial cell cultures. D) Biopharmaceuticals are classified here as a biologically derived treatment for diseases and biologically based in vivo and in vitro diagnostics.

Type of enzymes which catalyze oxidation reduction reactions, have been used for the intermediates, fine and specialty chemicals, and materials. A) Oxidative enzymes B) Reductive enzymes C) Inhibiting enzymes D) Inducing enzymes

Producing the right product using living cells outside of whole plants or animals requires systems to provide strict control of environmental conditions, including, except: A) optimal temperature B) pH C) oxygen D) enzyme inhibitor

Which is incorrect about eukaryotic cells? A) Eukaryotic organisms are the first major class of cellular organism and are characterized by having a nucleus containing their genetic material (DNA). B) Multicellular anchorage-dependent cells, but can be adapted to single-cell, anchorage-dependent suspension cultures. C) Naturally limited cellular life span; can be genetically modified as immortalized cells. D) Mammalian cells have flexible cellular membrane, a few have cell wall.

Which of the following is incorrect? A) Eukaryotes have the cellular machinery to make post-translational modifications to the recombinant protein being produced, whereas prokaryotic cells lack this capability. B) Inhibitor are a very simple host cell class that does not contain nucleus, they are classified as prokaryotes. C) Archaea is a second type of prokaryote that is generally found in anaerobic conditions. D) There are a wide range of eukaryotic cell types, including mammalian, plant, fungal, and others.

_____________________ may contain storage granules consisting of carbohydrates, lipids, or other excess proteins and are commonly called inclusion bodies. A) Bacterial cytoplasm B) Organelles C) Mitochondria D) Granular membrane

Which of the following strain of bacteria produces acetone and butanol? A) Corynebacterium glutamicum B) Clostridium acetobutylicum C) Penicillium acetovisiae D) Pichia vulgaris

Which of the following strain of bacteria produces organic acids, alcohols, diamines, polyhydroxyalkanoates, and protiens? A) Corynebacterium glutamicum B) Clostridium acetobutylicum C) Penicillium acetovisiae D) Pichia vulgaris

Screening cells propagated from the original cell clone and subsequently used to create a "cell blank" are required to prevent _________________ contamination and propagation throughout development and production facilities. A) mycoplasma B) polyhydroxyalkanoates C) cytoalkanes D) pseudoplasma

This type of cells are characterized by their large number of chromosomes, leading to more complex genetic modification strategies. A) Mammalian cells B) Protozoa cells C) Fungal cells D) chromosomal cells

These processes are unique in that actual protein production is the result of infecting host cells with a genetically engineered virus, called: A) baculovirus B) pseudovirus C) host virus D) ochratoxin

Which strain of mold that is responsible to produce penicillin? A) Penicillium chrysogenum B) Penicillium camemberti C) Penicillium candidum D) Penicillium digitatum

Which of the following is not in the group? A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae B) Pichia pastoris C) Lactobacillus D) Penicillium chrysogenum

The trade-off is that a series of smaller-scale upstream cell culture process step, called a ___________, is required to generate enough cell mass to inoculate the production bioreactor. A) seed train B) cell train C) inoculate train D) upstream train

Which of the following is incorrect? A) The primary structure, is linear sequence of amino acid building blocks. B) The secondary structure results from the interaction of the amino acids in close proximity to one another. C) Tertiary structure refers to the two-dimensional conformation of the protein. D) Quaternary structures refer to how multiple protein subunits interact with one

Which of the following is not a positively charged amino acid? A) Arginine B) Histidine C) Lysine D) Cysteine

Facilities designed to convert biomass into a number of products have been referred to as ____________. A) biorefineries B) biosytems C) biotreatments D) biofacilities

This is used as human diagnostics or in pharmaceutical production to perform biotransformation require higher purity and quality control standards, requiring better-defined, more complex medium and purification schemes. A) Enzyme B) Inhibitor C) cell strain D) biosystem

What is the common drug is used from this bacteria E. coli bacteria, as well as yeast S. cerevisiae and P. pastoris? A) Insulin B) Lovastatin C) Nicotiana D) Losartan

Which of the following is incorrect? A) The cytoplasm also can contain plasmids that are pieces of genetic material existing outside the primary genome. B) The mitochondria is bounded by a semiplastic, selectively permeable cell membrane that controls that transport of molecules into and out of the cell. C) Endospores are a very stable form of bacteria that may survive in dry, nutrient-starved conditions. D) Yeast are probably the most important, and the longest used, organism for commercial

This refers to a significantly smaller than the other microorganism and typically they range in size from as small as 10 nm up to 200 nm. A) Viruses B) Pathogen C) Bacteria D) Mold

Which of the following algae produces ectoine? A) Halomonas elongata B) Dunaliella salina C) Chlorella vulgaris D) Haematococcus pluvialis

Lovastatin is a pharmaceutical product as a cholesterol reducing statin produces from? A) Aspergillus terreus B) Penicillium roqueforti C) Tolypocladium nivenum D) Sterigmatomyces elviae

This pharmaceutical product is from fungi, that is used for the treatment of breast, ovarian, and other cancers. A) Paclitaxel B) 1,3-Diaminopropane C) Cerulenin D) Parafungin

Which is the following is incorrect? A) Methylotropic yeast can be use methanol as growth media. B) P. pastoris can be use methanol as inducer and substrate, but may trigger hazardous location design requirements. C) Limited capability may result in suboptimal serum half-life, potency, and/or immunogenic response. D) Physically defined media used to eliminate animal derived component-related contamination risk

___________ are enzymes exhibit sigmoidal curves when the activity is plotted against a substrate concentration. A) Endoenzymes B) Exoenzymes C) Isoenzymes D) Allosteric enzymes

___________ are organisms that use CO2 to grow. A) Autotrophs B) Heterotrophs C) Chemotrophs D) Organotrophs

Tempe is a cuisine common to Southeast and East Asian countries. It is made by fermenting soybean and a species of mold called __________. A) Aspergillus sojae B) Blakaslea trispora C) Rhizopus oligosporus D) Neurospora sitophilia

If the Damköhler number is by far greater than 1.0, which of the following statements is true? A) The residence time of batch fermenter should be based on the rate of mass transfer B) The space time of a chemostat should be based on the rate of mass transfer C) The space velocity of a PFR should be based on the rate of reaction D) No conclusion can be made

What do you call the fermentation liquor wherein fermentation process had just terminated? A) Broth B) Beer C) Inoculum D) Wine

A Bacillus sp. Produces an antibiotic only during the stationary phase when grown in a batch culture. If grown in a 5-liter continuous culture, the steady-state productivity of the antibiotic: A) Will increase until the culture washes out B) Will decrease during lag phase but then increase indefinitely C) Will be zero D) Will decrease before the half-life then increase

During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments run in the _________ direction. A) 5’ to 3’ B) 3’ to 5’ C) α-1-6 to α-1-4 D) α-1-4 to α-1-6

The active site of an enzyme remains: A) At the center of globular proteins B) Rigid and does not change shape C) Complementary to the rest of the molecule D) None of these

An allosteric inhibitor of an enzyme usually: A) Participates in feedback regulation B) Is a hydrophobic compound C) Denatures the enzyme D) Causes the enzyme to work faster

The Briggs-Haldane approach assumes that: A) The rate of intermediate consumption is rate determining B) The rate of intermediate formation is equal to the rate of intermediate consumption C) The rate of intermediate formation is rate determining D) None of these

The Monod Constant is also known as: A) Substrate limit Constant B) Biomass Constant C) Saturation Constant D) Exponential Constant

Which of the following system can show substrate inhibition? A) Too high C source during bioremediation B) Ethanol accumulation during fermentation C) CO2 production during respiration D) Algal bloom

When mutation occurs in a bioreactor such that the subsequent generations of a species, particularly genetically engineered ones, are becoming less productive is called ___________. A) Runaway phenomenon B) Run-off phenomenon C) Fermentation shutdown D) Biochemical decay

The mass transfer of dissolved substrates in bioreactors to immobilized cell is guided by: A) Knudsen Number B) Lewis Number C) Sherwood Number D) Peclet Number

What is the order of the Michaelis-Menten equation? A) Zero Order B) Pseudo-First Order C) First Order D) Shifting Order

Chemical kinetics can predict the ______________. A) feasibility of reaction B) rate of reaction C) both A & B D) residence time

If the rate of a chemical reaction becomes slower at a given temperature, then the _______________. A) initial concentration of the reactants remains constant B) free energy of activation is lower C) entropy changes D) free energy of activation is higher

The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called A) parallel reaction B) elementary reaction C) non-elementary reaction D) series reaction

With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius equation ______ A) increases B) decreases C) decreases exponentially with temperature D) can either increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor

A plug flow reactor is characterized by A) high capacity B) presence of axial mixing C) presence of lateral mixing D) constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture

The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction A) increases in the presence of catalyst B) decreases in the presence of catalyst C) remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst D) can either increase or decrease; depends on the type of catalyst

A space time of 3 hours for flow reactor means that _____ A) the time required to process one reactor volume of feed (measured at specific conditions) in 3 hours B) three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour C) it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction with feed D) conversion is 100% per cent after three hours

For an ideal gas the slope of the pressure-volume curve, at a given point will be, A) Steeper for an adiabatic than for an isothermal process. B) Steeper for an isothermal than for an adiabatic process C) of opposite signs. D) Identical for both the processes.

Identify the intensive quantity from the following A) temperature and refractive index B) volume and temperature C) enthalpy and volume D) enthalpy and temperature

Lime Klin is a A) Open system B) Closed system C) Isolated system D) Non-thermodynamics system

Select the wrong statement: A) Both heat and work are state functions B) Both heat and work are path functions C) When system and surroundings are not in equilibrium heat can transfer either at low temperature to high temperature level or at high temperature to low temperature level depending upon the conditions of the system. D) All of the above

Which of the following acts as a homogenous system? A) Water plus steam B) Ice plus water C) Water plus nitric acid D) None of these

Point out the wrong statement: A) For a given system, internal energy (E) is directly proportional to its absolute temperature B) At constant volume the quantity of heat supply to a system is equal to decrease in internal energy C) In adiabatic expansion of a gas, it gets cooled because of decrease of internal energy D) Internal energy is state of function

For endothermic reactions, the change in internal energy (ΔE) is A) Negative B) Positive C) Zero D) None of these

For ideal gas the relation between the enthalpy change (ΔH) at constant temperature is given by (Α) ΔH=E+PV (Β) ΔH=ΔE+Δn RT (C) ΔG=ΔH+TΔS (D) ΔH=ΔE+PΔT

Conversion of nitrogen and hydrogen represented by the equation N2+ 3H2-2NH3 is an exothermic reaction. Enthalpy change (ΔH) accompanying the reaction A) Is negative B) Is positive C) Is zero D) None of these

The fusion of a crystalline solid at its melting point to form a liquid at the same temperature is accompanied by A) A) Increase in entropy B) Increase in enthalpy corresponding to absorption of heat C) Either A or B D) Both A and B

Throttling (Joule-Thomson effects) process is a constant A) Enthalpy process B) Internal energy process C) Isothermal process D) Entropy process

During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its A) Internal energy increases B) Enthalpy decreases C) Enthalpy remains unaffected D) Enthalpy reduces to zero

Point out which is true for recycling steam A) During drying operation, the humidity in the air is controlled by recirculating of the wet air that leaves the dryer. B) In a chemical reaction, in let catalyst is returned to the reactor for reuse C) In a stage wise column, where part of distilled is returned back into the column to maintain the quality of the liquid within the column D) All of the above

For the case of fuel gas undergoing combustion with air, if the air fuel ratio is increased, the adiabatic flame temperature will? A) Increase B) decrease C) not change D) none

The number of degrees of freedom for a azeotropic mixture of ethanol and water in vapor liquid equilibrium is A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 0

If pH value of an acidic solution is decrease from 5 to 2, then the increase in it hydrogen ion concentration is ____ times. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 0

Which is true for colligative properties of a dilute solution. A) It depend on the nature pf non-volatile solute dissolved B) It does not change depend on solute concentration C) It depends on the number of particles of solute DU in the solution D) all of the above

The mole fraction of liquid CO2 at 15 and 7600 mm Hg is A) 9.15×10 −5 (B) 7.32×10 −3 C) 1.3×10 −2 D) 2.5×10 −1

The colligative properties of a dilute solutions of a non-volatile solute in a solvent obeying Raoult's law is due to the A) temperature B) volume of solution C) moles of non-volatile solution D) none of the above

The combustible component in the reuse is solid fuel is ____ A) cooked coal B) uncooked coal C) mixture of cooked and uncooked coal D) partially cooked coal

A solution contains 25lb salt in water. What will be the composition wt% of the salt if 40% of water is evaporated A) 19.7 B) 35.7 C) 60.02 D) 23.4

The entropy will usually increase when I. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules. II. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas. III. a solid change to a liquid. IV. a liquid change to a gas. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) IV only E) I, II, III, and IV

Which statement is incorrect? A) At constant pressure, H = E + PV B) The thermodynamics symbol for entropy is S C) Gibbs free energy is a state function D) For an endothermic process, H is negative

For a binary picture forming an azeotrope, the bubble point and dew point are identical. A) True B) False

If the enthalpy of a system decreases upon mixing, heat is generated from the system. A) True B) False

For a binary mixture at equilibrium, the fugacity of species 1 must equal the fugacity of species 2. A) Maybe True B) Always True C) False D) Insufficient Data

For a given chemical at saturation, the fugacity of the liquid is always equal to the fugacity of vapor even for non-ideal gas. A) True B) False

For a pure chemical species, liquid and vapor phases are in equilibrium. Assuming the vapor phase is ideal gas, increasing the pressure of the system at constant temperature will result in: A) Fugacity increase in both vapor and liquid phases B) The activity coefficient in both phases will decrease C) The composition of the liquid and vapor will decrease D) Fugacity coefficient increase in both vapor and liquid phases

Within a single phase, a region with higher concentration has higher chemical potential. A) True B) False C) Insufficient Data D) None of the above

In vapor liquid equilibrium, the fugacity of the liquid must equal the fugacity of the vapor. A) False: only the components must equal each other B) True: the composition of the component must be equal

Gibbs-Duhem equation can be used for the calculation of the following except: A) a partial molar quantity of a binary mixture from measurements of the composition dependence of the corresponding total molar quantity, B) the partial molar quantity of a component, say 1, of a binary mixture from measurements of the composition dependence of the corresponding partial molar quantity of component 2, and C) the partial vapor pressures from measurements of the liquid-phase composition dependence of the total vapor pressure D) excess a d residual properties of both components in an identified system

Which of the following are the characteristics of an ideal solution? (I) There is no volume change when the components are mixed together to form an ideal solution. (II) If a mixture of two liquids is to behave ideally, theoretical considerations reveal that the two types of molecules must be similar. (III) Their conditions deviate from ideality A) I and II B) II and III C) III and IV D) All of the above

Lewis’ fugacity rule is valid in the following conditions except: A) At low pressures when the gas phase behaves ideally B) At any pressure if the component is present in residual C) If the physical properties of the components are nearly the same D) At moderate and high pressures, the Lewis-Randall rule will give incorrect results if the molecular properties of the components are widely different and the component under consideration is not present in excess.

An azeotrope is a mixture of two or more liquids whose proportions cannot be altered by simple distillation. This happens because, when an azeotrope is boiled, the vapor has the same proportions of constituents as the unboiled mixture. Because their composition is unchanged by distillation, azeotropes are also called constant boiling mixtures. A) True B) False

Name all the different types of consistency tests for VLE data. (I) Using slope of lnγ curves (II) Using data at the Mid-point (II) Redlich-kister method (or) zero order method (IV) Using the coexistence equation (V) Using the partial pressure data. A) I and III B) I and II C) IV only D) All of the above

Identify if the statement about immiscibility occurring in liquid solutions is true: The equilibrium state of the system is two phases of a fixed composition corresponding to a temperature. The compositions of two such phases, however, change with temperature. A) True B) False

Which of the following are/is commonly used equation for equations of state. (I) Van der waals equation (II) Redlich –Kwong equation (III) Redlich-Kwong-Soave equation (IV) Peng-Robinson equation (V) Benedict –Webb-Rubin equation (VI) Virial equation A) I and III B) I and II C) IV only D) All of the above

Does the partial molar volume of a substance vary with concentration of the substance in the solution? A) True B) False

What is the correct definition of fugacity coefficient? A) The ratio of fugacity to pressure is referred to as fugacity coefficient. It is dimensionless and depends on nature of the gas, the pressure, and the temperature. B) It is the relationship between the saturation pressure with respect to the Poynting correction. C) The ratio of pressures in ideal state and non-ideal state D) The proportionality relationship between the pressure and temperature relating the compositions of each species

The statement below pertains to the concept of Inversion Point: At any given pressure, the joule-Thomson coefficient is positive only within a temperature range that is between the upper and lower inversion temperatures. Only within these temperatures a gas cools on throttling. A) True B) False

A solution in which the partial molar volumes of the components are the same as their molar volumes in the pure state A) Non-ideal solution B) Ideal solution C) Regular solution D) Mixture

Which statement in INCORRECT? A) Entropy is a thermodynamic function B) Entropy is dependent on thermodynamic variables P,V,T C) Entropy is dependent of the historical data. D) The magnitude of entropy depends on the parameters that define its state.

Which statement is incorrect? A) Gibbs free energy is a state function. B) If the work done by the system is greater than the heat absorbed by the system, E is negative. C) For an endothermic process, H is negative. D) If the work done by the system is greater than the heat absorbed by the system, E is zero.

The entropy will usually increase when I. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules. II. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas. III. a solid changes to a liquid. IV. a liquid changes to a gas. A I only B I, II, III, and IV C II only D III only E IV only

For the reaction, A + B C, H = +30 kJ; S = +50 J/K. Therefore the reaction is: A spontaneous at all temperatures. B nonspontaneous at all temperatures. C spontaneous only at 25 oC. D spontaneous at temperatures greater than 600 K. E spontaneous at temperatures less than 600 K.

All of the following have a standard heat of formation value of zero at 25 oC and 1.0 atm except: A (N2(g) B Fe(s) C Ne(g) D H(g) E Hg(l)

These values are necessary in designing extraction columns for liquid-liquid separation because they determine the liquid rate necessary for complete or economic solute recovery. A Solubility B Density C Viscosity D Hardness

Solubility values are equipped with equilibrium data generally will be found in one of three forms, except: A solubility data expressed either as weight or mole percent or as Henry’s law coefficients B pure-component vapor pressures C equilibrium distribution coefficients (K values) D stoichiometric number of components

A liquid-liquid extraction may be preferred when the relative volatility of key components is less than _____ or so, such that an unusually tall distillation tower is required or the design involves high reflux ratios and high energy consumption. A 1.3 B 1.1 C 1.2 D 2.1

____________ is a process for separating components dissolved in a liquid feed by contact with a second liquid phase. A Liquid-liquid extraction B Solid-liquid extraction C Vapor-liquid extraction D Solid-solid extraction

It is a broader term that describes a process for separating the components of any matrix by contact with a liquid, and it includes liquid-solid extraction (leaching) as well as liquid-liquid extraction. A Solvent extraction B Chromatography extraction C Solute extraction D Leaching extraction

The type of solvent that is immiscible or partially miscible liquid added to the process to create a second liquid phase for the purpose of extracting one or more solutes from the feed. A Extraction solvent B Modified Solvent C Extraction solute D Feed solvent

It may be added to the diluent to increase the solubility of the extractant or otherwise enhance the effectiveness of the extractant. A Modifier B Extender C Diluent D Dispersant

This term generally refers to a liquid-liquid dispersion with a dispersed-phase mean drop diameter on the order of 1 µm or less. A Emulsion B Extender C Diluent D Dispersant

This is a device or combination of devices that accomplishes the effect of intimately mixing two liquid phases until equilibrium concentrations are reached, then physically separating the two phases into clear layers. A theoretical stage B partition stage C separation stage D extraction stage

This system of this type, the partition ratio transitions from a value less than unity to a value greater than unity as a function of solute concentration. A solutrope B militrope C polutrope D vitrotrope

This refers to a process variable that characterizes the capacity of the extract phase to carry solute relative to the feed phase. A extraction factor B separation factor C solute factor D stripping factor

This measures the relative enrichment of solute in the extract phase, compared to solute, after one theoretical stage of extraction. A extraction factor B separation factor C solute factor D stripping factor

A standard extraction process is one in which the primary purpose is to transfer solute from the feed phase into the extract phase in a manner analogous to stripping in distillation. Which of the following is the standard extraction, except: A Fractional extraction B Crossflow extraction C Countercurrent extraction D Reversible extraction

This refers to a process in which two or more solutes present in the feed are sharply separated from each other, one fraction leaving the extractor in the extract and the other in the raffinate. A Fractional extraction B Crossflow extraction C Countercurrent extraction D Reversible extraction

This refers to a series of discrete stages in which the raffinate from one extraction stage is contacted with additional fresh solvent in a subsequent stage. A Fractional extraction B Crosscurrent extraction C Countercurrent extraction D Reversible extraction

This refers to an extraction scheme in which the extraction solvent enters the stage or end of the extraction farthest from where the feed F enters, and the two phases pass each other in countercurrent fashion. A Fractional extraction B Crosscurrent extraction C Countercurrent extraction D Reversible extraction

This refers to a process utilizing multiple staged contactors with countercurrent flow of solvent and feed streams from stage to stage. When a differential contactor is used, one of the phases can remain dispersed as drops throughout the contactor as the phases pass each other in countercurrent fashion. A Countercurrent cascade B Fractional cascade C Co-current cascade D Reversible cascade

This can be caused by excessive flow rates within the equipment, by phase inversion due to accumulation and coalescence of dispersed droplets, or by formation of stable dispersions or emulsions due to the presence of surface-active impurities or excessive agitation. A Flooding B Bubbling C Floating D Foaming

This process scheme normally involves partitioning of weak organic acids or bases between water and an organic solvent. Whether the solute partitions mainly into one phase or the other depends upon whether it is in its neutral state or its charged ionic state and the ability of each phase to solvate that form of the solute. A Dissociative Extraction B Fractional Extraction C Standard Extraction D pH-Swing Extraction

This scheme involves use of microscopic water-in-oil micelles formed by surfactants and suspended within a hydrophobic organic solvent to isolate proteins from an aqueous feed. A Reversed Micellar Extraction B Reaction-Enhanced Extraction C Extractive Reaction D Temperature-Swing Extraction

It is a packing surface phenomenon, that breaks up the liquid film. A Underwetting B Flooding C Foaming D Downcomer

It is the liquid present in the void spaces of the packing. A Liquid snatch B Liquid holdup C Liquid confinement D Liquid catch

Absorbers are normally used with ____ to permit regeneration (or recovery) and recycling of the absorbent. A Strippers B Tray C Capping D Emulsion

It is the gas mixture entering the gas absorption tower/column. A Rich Gas B Lean Gas C Poor Gas D Effluent gas

This term generally refers to excessive breakthrough or entrainment of one liquid phase into the discharge stream of the other. A Underwetting B Flooding C Foaming D Downcomer

These are flat perforated plates with risers (chimneylike pipes) around the holes, and caps in the form of inverted cups over the risers . The caps are usually (but not always) equipped with slots through which some of the gas comes out, and may be round or rectangular . A Bubble-Cap Trays B Dual-Flow Trays C Baffle Trays D Downcomer Trays

This refers to be attained or a must be sufficiently large to transport all the liquid downflow . Excessive friction losses in the downcomer entrance, and/or excessive flow rate of gas venting from the downcomer in counterflow, will impede liquid downflow, initiating liquid accumulation (termed downcomer choke flooding) on the tray above. A Underwetting B Flooding C Foaming D Downcomer

Comprehensive 1 Flashcards

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