COMPREHENSIVE Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
What component of a freezing point osmometer measures the sample temperature?
a. thermistor
b. thermocouple
c. capacitor
d. electrode
A
a. thermistor
2
Q
Which of the following isolates light within a narrow region of the spectrum?
a. photomultiplier tube
b. monochromator
c. photovoltaic cell
d. detector
A
b. monochromator
3
Q
Which of the following serum protein electrophoresis results suggests an acute inflammatory process?
a. decrease albumin, increase a1, decrease a2, normal β & γ
b. normal albumin, increase a1, normal a2, increase β & γ
c. decrease albumin, increase a1 & a2, normal β & γ
d. increase albumin, a1, a2, β, & γ
A
c. decrease albumin, increase a1 & a2, normal β & γ
4
Q
Which product is measured in the coupling step of the urease-UV method for BUN?
a. CO2
b. dinitrophenylhydrazine
c. diphenylcarbazone
d. NAD+
A
d. NAD+
5
Q
A patient with hemolytic anemia will:
a. show a decrease in glycated hemoglobin value
b. show an increase in glycated hemoglobin value
c. show little or no change in glycated hemoglobin value
d. demonstrate and elevated HbA1c value
A
a. show a decrease in glycated hemoglobin value
6
Q
A 45-year old male of average height and weight was admitted to the hospital for renal function studies. He had the following lab results:
Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL
Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Total urine volume in 24 hours: 1800 mL
Calculate the creatinine clearance for this patient in ml/min.
a. 100
b. 144
c. 156
d. 225
A
a. 100
7
Q
In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with:
a. alkaline sulfasalazine solution to produce an orange yellow complex
b. potassium iodide to form a reddish-purple complex
c. sodium nitroferricyanide to yield an reddish-brown color
d. alkaline picrate solution to yield an orange-red complex
A
d. alkaline picrate solution to yield an orange-red complex
8
Q
In bilirubin determination, the purpose of adding a concentrated caffeine solution or methyl alcohol is to:
a. allow indirect bilirubin to react with color reagent
b. dissolve conjugated bilirubin
c. precipitate protein
d. prevent any change in pH
A
a. allow indirect bilirubin to react with color reagent
9
Q
In which of the following disease states is conjugated bilirubin a major serum component?
a. biliary obstruction
b. hemolysis
c. neonatal jaundice
d. erythroblastosis fetalis
A
a. biliary obstruction
10
Q
Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of:
a. cholesterol
b. total protein
c. chylomicrons
d. albumin
A
c. chylomicrons
11
Q
Earliest marker of acute myocardial infarction
a. creatine kinase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. myoglobin
d. troponin
A
c. myoglobin
12
Q
Up to 10% of cases of acute pancreatitis are associated with normal levels of amylase; this finding is not common in people with:
a. hypernatremia
b. hyperkalemia
c. hyperbilirubinemia
d. hypertriglyceridemia
A
d. hypertriglyceridemia
13
Q
Highest level of ALP
a. hepatitis
b. hepatobiliary disease
c. obstructive disease
d. paget’s disease
A
d. paget’s disease
14
Q
The best to confirm that an elevated ALP is from the biliary tree:
a. ALT
b. AST
c. GGT
d. LDH
A
c. GGT
15
Q
Sodium determination by indirect ion selective electrode is false decreased by:
a. elevated chloride levels
b. elevated lipid levels
c. decreased protein levels
d. decreased albumin levels
A
b. elevated lipid levels
16
Q
A patient has the following test results:
Increased serum calcium levels
Decreased serum phosphate levels
Increased levels of parathyroid hormone
a. hyperparathyroidism
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. nephrosis
d. steatorrhea
A
a. hyperparathyroidism
17
Q
A condition characterized by hypercalcemia in the presence of normal PTH
a. primary hyperparathyroidism
b. secondary hyperparathyroidism
c. tertiary hyperparathyroidism
d. malignancy
A
d. malignancy
18
Q
If a blood gas specimen is left exposed to air, which of the following changes will occur?
a. pO2 and pH increase; pCO2 decreases
b. pO2 and pH decrease; pCO2 increases
c. pO2 increases; pH and pCO2 decrease
d. pO2 decreases; pH and pCO2 increase
A
a. pO2 and pH increase; pCO2 decreases
19
Q
Respiratory acidosis is described as a/an:
a. increase in CO2 content and pCO2 with a decreased pH
b. decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
c. increase in CO2 content with an increased pH
d. decrease in CO2 content and pCO2 with a decreased pH
A
a. increase in CO2 content and pCO2 with a decreased pH
20
Q
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis?
a. hyperventilation
b. release of epinephrine
c. aldosterone release
d. bicarbonate excretion
A
a. hyperventilation
21
Q
Which test is used to distinguish Cushing’s disease (pituitary cushing’s) from Cushing’s syndrome caused by adrenal tumors?
a. low-dose overnight dexamethasone supression
b. petrosal sinus sampling
c. serum ACTH
d. 24hr urinary free cortisol
A
c. serum ACTH
22
Q
A salicylate level is performed to detect toxicity caused by ingestion of excess:
a. acetaminophen
b. aspirin
c. ibuprofen
d. pseudoephedrine
A
b. aspirin
23
Q
The drug procainamide is prescribed to treat cardiac arrythmia. What biologically active liver metabolite of procainamide is often measured simultaneously?
a. phenobarbital
b. quinidine
c. N-acetyl- procainamide (NAPA)
d. lidocaine
A
c. N-acetyl- procainamide (NAPA)
24
Q
Phenobarbital is a metabolite of:
a. primidone
b. phenytoin
c. amobarbital
d. secobarbital
A
a. primidone
25
Cocaine is metabolized to
a. carbamazepine
b. codeine
c. hydrocodone
d. benzoylecgonine
d. benzoylecgonine
26
In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to determine fetal lung maturity is:
a. lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
b. creatinine
c. measurement of absorbance at 450 nm
d. alpha-fetoprotein
a. lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
27
Specificity:
a. (TP + TN) / TP X 100
b. TP / (TP + FN) X 100
c. (TP + TN) / TN X 100
d. TN / (TN + FP) X 100
d. TN / (TN + FP) X 100
28
Which of the following statistical tests is used to compare the means of two methods:
a. student's t-test
b. F distribution
c. correlation coefficient
d. linear regression analysis
a. student's t-test
29
Megaloblastic asynchronous development in the bone marrow indicates which one of the following?
a. proliferation of erythrocyte precursor
b. impaired synthesis of DNA
c. inadequate production of erythropoietin
d. deficiency of G6PD
b. impaired synthesis of DNA
30
The most characteristic peripheral blood smear finding in multiple myeloma is:
a. plasmacytic satellitosis in the bone marrow
b. many plasma cells in the peripheral blood
c. many mott cells in the peripheral blood
d. rouleaux formation of the red cells
d. rouleaux formation of the red cells
31
False negative solubility test (HbS)
a. heavily inoculated test solution
b. hyperlipidemia
c. low RBC and low hematocrit
d. rare hemoglobinopathies
c. low RBC and low hematocrit
32
Which electrophoresis pattern is consistent with sickle cell trait? insert pic
a. pattern A
b. pattern B
c. pattern C
d. pattern D
a. pattern A
33
Which of the following is associated with pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly?
a. aplastic anemia
b. iron deficiency anemia
c. myelogenous leukemia
d. chediak-higashi syndrome
c. myelogenous leukemia
34
Which of the following cells is most likely identified in the lesions of mycoses fungoides?
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Mast cells
a. T lymphocytes
35
1:200 dilution of a patient's sample was made and 336 red cells were counted in an area of 0.02 mm2. What is the RBC count?
a. 1.68 x 10^12/L
b. 3.36 x 10^12/L
c. 4.46 x 10^12/L
d. 6.66 x 10^12/L
b. 3.36 x 10^12/L
36
A blood smear shows 80 nucleated red cells per 100 leukocytes. The total leukocyte count is 18 x 10^9/L. The true white cell count expressed in SI units is:
a. 17.32 x 10^9/L
b. 9.0 x 10^9/L
c. 10.0 x 10^9/L
d. 13.4 x 10^9/L
c. 10.0 x 10^9/L
37
In an electronic or laser particle cell counter, clumped platelets may interfere with which of the following parameters?
a. white blood cell count
b. red blood cell count
c. hemoglobin
d. hematocrit
a. white blood cell count
38
Using an electronic cell counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with:
a. spherocytosis
b. anisocytosis
c. leukocytosis
d. presence of NRBCs
b. anisocytosis
39
What effect would using a buffer of pH 6.0 have on a Wright's-stained smear?
a. red cells would be stained too pink
b. white cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue
c. red cells would be stained too blue
d. red cells would lyse on the slide
a. red cells would be stained too pink
40
If a blood smear is dried too slowly, the red blood cells are often:
a. clumped
b. crenated
c. lysed
d. destroyed
b. crenated
41
A blood sample from a patient with a high-titer cold agglutinin, analyzed at room temp, with an electronic particle counter would cause an error in the:
a. hemoglobin and MCV
b. MCHC and WBC
c. WBC and RBC
d. MCV and MCHC
d. MCV and MCHC
42
In essential thrombocythemia, the platelets are:
a. increased in number and functionally abnormal
b. normal in number and functionally abnormal
c. decreased in number and functionally normal
d. decreased in number and functionally abnormal
a. increased in number and functionally abnormal
43
In storage pool disease, platelets are primarily deficient in:
a. ADP
b. platelet factor 3
c. throbosthenin
d. thromboxane A2
a. ADP
44
A citrated blood specimen for coagulation studies is to be collected from a polycythemic patient. The anticoagulant should be:
a. the standard volume
b. reduced in volume
c. changed to EDTA
d. changed to oxalate
b. reduced in volume
45
Refer to the following results:
PT= prolonged
APTT= prolonged
Platelet count= decreased
Which disorder may be indicated?
a. factor VII deficiency
b. von Willebrand's disease
c. DIC
d. factor IX deficiency
c. DIC
46
Which of the following abnormalities is consistent with the presence of lupus anticoagulant?
a. decreased APTT/bleeding complications
b. prolonged APTT/thrombosis
c. prolonged APTT/thrombocytosis
d. thrombocytosis/thrombosis
b. prolonged APTT/thrombosis
47
Ecarin clotting time may be used to monitor:
a. heparin therapy
b. warfarin therapy
c. fibrinolytic therapy
d. hirudin therapy
d. hirudin therapy
48
Which of the following is the preferred method to monitor heparin therapy at the point-of-care during cardiac surgery?
a. APTT
b. activated clotting time test (ACT)
c. PT
d. TT
b. activated clotting time test (ACT)
*
Normal ACT: 98-100 s
Heparin therapy in deep vein thrombosis: 80-240 s ACT
Cardiopulmonary bypass: 400 s ACT
49
A patient is taking 10 mg per day of coumadin (warfarin). The results of which of the following laboratory tests will be most impacted?
a. protein C level
b. antithrombin III level
c. factor V leiden mutation
d. factor VIII level
a. protein C level
*
oral anticoagulants like coumadin are vitamin K antagonists, they inhibit II, VII, IX, and X, PROTEIN C and S are also vitamin K dependent
50
Which blood type is not possible for an offspring of an AO and BO mating?
A O
B AB BO
O AO OO
a. AB
b. A or B
c. O
d. all are possible
d. all are possible
51
compre p3 18:20
Which of the following is most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup?
a. adsorption and elution
b. neutralization
c. testing with A1 lectin
d. use of antiglobulin reagent
a. adsorption and elution
52
3 20:04
What is the most likely cause of the following ABO discrepancy?
Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
0 0 0 0
a. recent transfusion with group O blood
b. antigen depression due to leukemia
c. false-negative cell typing due to rouleaux
d. obtained from a heel stick of a 2 month old baby
d. obtained from a heel stick of a 2 month old baby
53
3 21:07
A stem cell transplant patient was retyped when she was transferred from another hospital. What is the most likely cause of the following results?
Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
0 4+ 0 0
a. viral infection
b. alloantibodies
c. immunodeficiency
d. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c. immunodeficiency
54
3 25:19
Which ABO discrepancy is the best explanation for the results shown in the following chart?
Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
4+ 0 2+ 4+
a. an elderly patient
b. subgroup of A
c. deterioration of reagents
d. hypogammaglobulinemia
b. subgroup of A
55
3 27:14
The following reactions were obtained:
Anti-A Anti-B Anti-AB A1 cells B cells
4+ 3+ 4+ 2+ 4+
The technologist washed the patient's cells with saline, and repeated the forward typing. A saline replacement technique was used with the reverse typing. The following results were obtained:
Anti-A Anti-B Anti-AB A1 cells B cells
4+ 0 4+ 0 4+
The results are consistent with:
a. acquired immunodeficiency disaease
b. bruton's agammaglobulinemia
c. multiple myeloma
d. acquired B antigen
c. multiple myeloma
56
4 4:25
While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is performed and the reaction remains. What is the best interpretation?
a. original reaction of rouleaux is confirmed
b. replacement test is invalid and should be replaced
c. original reaction was due to true agglutination
d. antibody screen is negative
c. original reaction was due to true agglutination
57
4 5:20
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are positive?
a. wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4 degrees celsius to enhance weak expression
b. retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents
c. use polyclonal typing reagents
d. report the same as group AB
a. wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4 degrees celsius to enhance weak expression
58
4 7:16
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?
a. perform additional testing such as typing with anti-A1 lectin and anti-A, B
b. incubate at 22 degrees Celsius or 4 degrees Celsius
c. repeat the test with new reagents
d. run an antibody identification panel
b. incubate at 22 degrees Celsius or 4 degrees Celsius
59
4 10:22
Which of the following is the most probably explanation for these results? The following results were obtained:
Anti-A Anti-B Anti-D Weak D DAT Ab scrn
Infant 0 0 0 NT 4+ NT
Mother 4+ 0 0 0 NT Anti-D
a. ABo hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
b. Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn; infant has received intrauterine transfusions
c. Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn; infant has a false negative Rh typing
d. larger fetomaternal hemorrhage
c. Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn; infant has a false negative Rh typing
60
4 17:00
A 56-year old female with cold agglutinin disease has a positive DAT. When the DAT is repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. C3d
d. C4a
c. C3d
61
4 26:07
Antigens are not synthesized by the RBCs. These antigens are adsorbed from plasma onto the RBC membrane.
a. duffy
b. kell
c. kidd
d. lewis
d. lewis
61
4 24:38
A patient is readmitted to the hospital with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL (70 g/L) 3 weeks after receiving 2 units of red cells. The initial serological tests are:
ABO, Rh A+
Antibody screen NEGATIVE
DAT 1+ mixed field
Which test should be performed next?
a. antibody identification panel on the patient's serum
b. repeat the ABO type on the donor units
c. perform an elution and identify the antibody in the eluate
d. crossmatch the post reaction serum with 3 donor units
c. perform an elution and identify the antibody in the eluate
62
4 29:40
In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists between the clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens?
a. Rh
b. P
c. Kell
d. Duffy
c. Kell
*
Lack of Kx expression on WBCs, it is associated with CGD.
If absent on RBCs, it is associated with McLeod phenotype
62
4 31:40
Crossmatch results at the antiglobulin phase were negative. When 1 drop of check cells was added, no agglutination was seen. The most likely explanation is that the:
a. red cells were overwashed
b. centrifuge speed was too high
c. residual patient serum inactivated the AHG reagent
d. laboratorian did not add enough check cells
c. residual patient serum inactivated the AHG reagent
63
5 0:19
Which immunization has the longest deferral period?
a. HBIg
b. rubella vaccine
c. influenza vaccine
d. yellow fever vaccine
a. HBIg
64
5 1:16
A unit of red blood cells is issued at 9:00 am. At 9:10 am, the unit is returned to the blood bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:
a. culture the unit for bacterial contamination
b. discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
c. store the unit at room temp
d. record the return and place the unit back into the inventory
d. record the return and place the unit back into the inventory
65
5 1:51
For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least:
a. 150 x 10^9/L
b. 200 x 10^9/L
c. 250 x 10^9/L
d. 300 x 10^9/L
a. 150 x 10^9/L
66
5 2:24
Platelets prepared by apheresis should contain at least:
a. 1 x 10^10 platelets
b. 3 x 10^10 platelets
c. 3 x 10^11 platelets
d. 5 x 10^11 platelets
c. 3 x 10^11 platelets
67
5 3:00
The primary indication for granulocyte transfusion is:
a. prophylactic treatment for infection
b. additional supportive therapy in those patients who are responsive to antibiotic therapy
c. clinical situations where bone marrow recovery is not anticipated
d. severe neutropenia with an infection that is nonresponsive to antibiotic therapy
d. severe neutropenia with an infection that is nonresponsive to antibiotic therapy
68
5 4:02
According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?
a. 24 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
a. 24 hours
69
5 9:10
Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
a. 4 hours
*
Cyroprecipitate: After thawing 6 hours, after pool 4 hours
70
5 12:29
A sickle cell patient who has been multiply transfused, experiences fever and chills after receiving a unit of red blood cell. Transfusion investigation studies show:
DAT: Negative
Plasma hemolysis: No hemolysis observed
The patient is most likely reacting to:
a. IgA
b. Plasma protein
c. Red cells
d. White cells or cytokines
d. White cells or cytokines
71
5 17:57
Diagnostic reagents useful for detecting antigen by coagglutination reaction may be prepared by binding antibody to killed staphylococcal cells via the Fc receptor of staphylococcal protein A. The class of antibody bound by this protein is:
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgM
c. IgG
72
5 18:39
What immune elements are involved in a positive skin test for tuberculosis?
a. IgE antibodies
b. T cells and macrophages
c. NK cells and IgG antibody
d. B cells and IgM antibody
b. T cells and macrophages
72
5 20:21
Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection?
a. HBsAg
b. HBeAg
d. Anti-HBc
d. Anti-HBs
a. HBsAg
73
5 22:10
What marker indicates immunity to hepatitis B infection?
a. Anti-HBc (IgM)
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HBs
d. Anti-HBc (IgG)
c. Anti-HBs
74
5 22:35
The lifelong marker of HBV infection:
a. HBsAg
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBc
d. Anti-HBs
c. Anti-HBc
75
5 23:41
Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
a. 2:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:3
d. 1:2
d. 1:2
76
5 24:49
Which of the following positive antibody tests may be an indication of recent vaccination or early primary infection for rubella in a patient with no clinical symptoms?
a. only IgG antibodies positive
b. only IgM antibodies positive
c. both IgG and IgM antibodies positive
d. fourfold rise in titer for IgG antibodies
b. only IgM antibodies positive
77
5 25:15
In the anti-double stranded DNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is:
a. rat stomach tissue
b. crithidia lucilale
c. mouse kidney tissue
d. toxoplasma gondii
b. crithidia lucilale
78
5 26:28
Which selective medium is used for the isolation of gram positive microorganisms?
a. columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood
b. trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood
c. eosin methylene blue
d. modified thayer-medium
a. columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood
79
5 29:07
Which of the following is the most appropriate organism and media combination?
a. Legionella species - Regan Lowe
b. Clostridium difficile - Phenylethyl alcohol agar
c. Campylobacter species - Charcoal yeast extract agar
d. Yersinia enterocolitica - Cefsulodin-Irgasan Novobiocin
d. Yersinia enterocolitica - Cefsulodin-Irgasan Novobiocin
80
5 29:39
A yellow colony from a wound culture tested catalase-positive and coagulase negative. The organism stained as gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following tests would differentiate between a coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and Micrococcus?
a. novobiocin susceptibility
b. leucine aminopeptidase production
c. furazolidone susceptibility
d. bile esculin
c. furazolidone susceptibility
81
5 30:38
Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic Streptococci can develop:
a. acute pyelonephritis
b. acute glomerulonephritis
c. chronic glomerulonephritis
d. nephrosis
b. acute glomerulonephritis
82
5 31:13
Reptiles kept as pets are sometimes associated with the transmission of:
a. Campylobacter
b. Helicobacter
c. Salmonella
d. Vibrio
c. Salmonella
83
6 0:45
A gram-negative bacillus was isolated from a wound infection caused by a bile from a pet cat. The following characteristic reactions were seen:
Oxidase: positive
MacConkey: no growth
Motility: negative
Catalase: positive
Glucose OF: fermentative
Which of the following is the most likely organism?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Aeromonas hydrophila
c. Pasteurella multocida
d. Vibrio cholerae
c. Pasteurella multocida
84
6 2:56
Characteristics necessary for the definitive identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are:
a. buff color, slow growth at 37 °C, niacin production positive, nitrate reduction-negative
b. rough colony, slow growth at 37°C, nonpigmented
c. rough, nonpigmented colony, cording positive, niacin production negative, catalase negative at pH 7, 68°C
d. rough, nonpigmented colony, slow growth at 37°C, niacin production-positive, nitrate reduction-positive
d. rough, nonpigmented colony, slow growth at 37°C, niacin production-positive nitrate reduction-positive
85
6 5:21
When grown in the dark, yellow to orange pigmentation of the colonies is usually demonstrated by:
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium kansasii
c. Mycobacterium fortuitum
d. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
d. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
86
6 7:01
A jaundiced 7-year old boy with a history of playing in a pond in a rat-infested area, has a urine specimen submitted for a direct dark-field examination. No organisms are seen in the specimen. Which medium should be inoculated in an attempt to isolate the suspected organism?
a. blood cysteine dextrose
b. PPLO agar (pleuropneumonia-like organisms)
c. Fletcher semisolid
d. Chopped meat glucose
c. Fletcher semisolid
87
6 7:19
No rhizoids:
a. absidia
b. mucor
c. rhizopus
d. all of these
b. mucor
88
6 7:41
The term "internal autoinfection" is generally used in referring to infections with:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Necator americanus
c. Trichuris trichuria
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
88
Gravid segment of: insert pic
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
b. Taenia solium
89
Gravid segment of: insert pic
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
a. Taenia saginata
90
6 9:04
Which species of malaria parasite usually has amoeboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm?
a. Plasmodium knowlesi
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium vivax
d. Plasmodium vivax
91
6 15:59
A patient's urinalysis revealed a positive bilirubin and a decreased urobilinogen level. These results are associated with:
a. hemolytic disease
b. biliary obstruction
c. hepatic disease
d. urinary tract infection
b. biliary obstruction
92
6 17:05
Oval fat bodies are:
a. squamous epithelial cells that contain lipids
b. renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
c. free-floating fat droplets
d. white blood cells with phagocytized lipid
b. renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
93
6 17:26
The final phase of degeneration that granular casts undergo is represented by which of the following casts?
a. fine
b. coarse
c. cellular
d. waxy
d. waxy
94
6 17:42
The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an indication of:
a. acute interstitial nephritis
b. chronic glomerulonephritis
c. minimal change disease
d. acute tubular necrosis
d. acute tubular necrosis
95
6 18:36
a 35-year old patient being treated for a sinus infection with methicillin develops fever, a skin rash, and edema. Urinalysis results are as follows:
Color: dark yellow Ketones: negative
Clarity: cloudy Blood: moderate
Sp gravity: 1.012 Bilirubin: negative
pH: 6.0 Urobilinogen: normal
Protein: 3+ Nitrite: negative
Glucose: negative Leukocyte: 2+
Microscopic:
20-30 RBCs/hpf 1-2 WBC casts/lpf
>100 WBCs/hpf 1-2 granular casts/lpf
After receiving the urinalysis report, the physician orders a test for urinary eosinophils. The urinary eosinophils result is 10%. What is probable diagnosis for this patient?
a. acute glomerulonephritis
b. acute interstitial nephritis
c. acute pyelonephritis
d. acute tubular necrosis
b. acute interstitial nephritis
96
6 18:45
Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate?
a. cystine
b. tyrosine
c. leucine
d. cholesterol
a. cysteine
97
6 19:49
Normal CSF has a relative abundance of which of the following proteins when compared to serum?
a. transferrin
b. prealbumin
c. albumin
d. fibrinogen
b. prealbumin
*
NORMALLY PRESENT IN CSF:
- ALBUMIN: predominant
- PREALBUMIN: (TRANSTHYRETIN): 2nd most prevalent
- BETA-GLOBULINS: transferrin, TAU
- GAMMA-GLOBULINS: primarily IgG, some IgA
NOT PRESENT
- IgM
- Fibrinogen
- Beta-lipoproteins
98
6 21:48
A clear colorless CSF was obtained by lumbar puncture from a 2-year old child who is lethargic and has fever. A cell count on the undiluted specimen revealed 860 WBCs and 60 RBCs in 9 square millimeters of the hemacytometer.
a. WBCs: 956/mm3
b. RBCs: 67/mm3
c. both of these
d. none of these
c. both of these
99
6 22:24
Refer to Panel 1. Which antibody is most likely implicated? insert pic
a. Anti-Fyb
b. Anti-Jkb
c. Anti-e
d. Anti-c and Anti-K
b. Anti-Jkb
100
6 24:32
Refer to Panel 2. Which antibody specificity is most likely present? insert pic
a. Anti-S and Anti-E
b. Anti-E and Anti-K
c. Anti-Lea and Anti-Fyb
d. Anti-C and Anti-K
d. Anti-C and Anti-K
101
6 26:05
On panel 2, which cells are homozygous for C? insert pic
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 9
c. 3, 4, 7
d. 7, 8, 10
b. 1, 2, 9
*
homozygous in double dose: C+c- = CC
102
6 26:57
Which of the following is most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup?
a. adsorption and elution
b. testing with A1 lectin
c. neutralization
d. use of anti-A, B
a. adsorption and elution
103
6 27:33
A patient is readmitted to the hospital with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL (70 g/L) 3 weeks after receiving 2 units of red cells. The initial serological tests are:
ABO/Rh: A+
Antibody Screen: negative
DAT: 1+ mixed field
Which test should be performed next?
a. antibody identification panel on the patient's serum
b. repeat the ABO type on the donor units
c. perform an elution and identify the antibody in the eluate
d. crossmatch the post reaction serum with 3 donor units
c. perform an elution and identify the antibody in the eluate
104
6 28:31
Serological results on an untransfused patient were:
Antibody Screen: negative at AHG
DAT: 3+ with anti-C3d
Eluate: negative
a. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b. cold agglutinin syndrome
c. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
d. drug-induced hemolytic anemia
b. cold agglutinin syndrome
105
6 28:59
Based on the following phenotypes, which pair of cells would make the best screening cells (SC)?
A. Cell 1: Group A, D+C+c-E-e+, K+, Fy(a+b-), Jk(a+b-), M+N-S+s-
Cell 2: Group O, D+C-c+E+e-, K-, Fy(a-b+), Jk(a-b+), M-N+S-s+
B. Cell 1: Group O, D-C-c+E-e+, K-, Fy(a-b+), Jk(a+b+), M+N-S+s+
Cell 2: Group O, D+C+c-E-e+, K-, Fy(a+b-), Jk(a+b-), M-N+S-s+
C. Cell 1: Group O, D+C+c+E+e+, K+, Fy(a+b+), Jk(a+b+), M+N-S+s+
Cell 2: Group O, D-C-c+E-e+, K-, Fy(a+b-), Jk(a-b+), M+N+S-s+
D. Cell 1: Group O, D+C+c-E-e+, K+, Fy(a-b+), Jk(a-b+), M-N+S-s+
Cell 2: Group O, D-C-c+E+e-, K-, Fy(a+b-), Jk(a+b-), M+N-S+s-
D. Cell 1: Group O, D+C+c-E-e+, K+, Fy(a-b+), Jk(a-b+), M-N+S-s+
Cell 2: Group O, D-C-c+E+e-, K-, Fy(a+b-), Jk(a+b-), M+N-S+s-
106
6 29:57
Rouleaux does not interfere with:
a. ABO grouping
b. saline technique
c. room temp phase
d. AHG phase
d. AHG phase
107
6 30:32
Septic shock
a. gram-positive bacteria
b. gram-negative bacteria
c. fungi
d. viruses
b. gram-negative bacteria
108
6 31:29
A vancomycin-resistant gram-positive coccobacillus resembling the Streptococcus viridans group was isolated from the blood of a 42-year old female patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant. The PYR and LAP tests were negative. The following results were noted:
Catalase: negative
CAMP: negative
Esculin Hydrolysis: negative
Gas from glucose: positive
Hippurate hydrolysis: negative
6.5% Salt broth: negative
What is the correct identification?
a. Leuconostoc spp.
b. Enterococcus spp.
c. Staphylococcus spp.
d. Micrococcus spp.
a. Leuconostoc spp.
109
6 32:22
Pink colonies on MacConkey agar
Citrate: positive
Lysine decarboxylase (LDC): negative
Ornithine decarboxylase (ODC): positive
Arginine dihydrolase (ADH): positive
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Klebsiella oxytoca
c. Enterobacter aerogenes
d. Enterobacter cloacae
d. Enterobacter cloacae
110
6 33:07
Reptiles kept as pets are sometimes associated with the transmission of:
a. Campylobacter
b. Helicobacter
c. Salmonella
d. Vibrio
c. Salmonella
111
6 33:27
Spurious increase in the WBC count:
a. clotting
b. smudge cells
c. uremia
d. platelet clumping
d. platelet clumping
