Comprehensive Final Exam Flashcards

(152 cards)

1
Q

An injured patient who is pregnant falls under what category for transportation to the hospital?

A) Physiologic criteria

B) Anatomic criteria

C) Significant mechanism of injury criteria

D) Special patient criteria

A

Special Patient Criteria

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2
Q

A patient responds to a question by saying, β€œit hurts when I jump and land.” This question concerns

A) Onset

B) Quality

C) Provocation

D) Region

A

Provocation

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3
Q

If an AT is administering epinephrine 1:1,000 for anaphylaxis, then it would be administered intramuscularly (IM) and not intravenously (IV). A 1:10,000 concentration would be appropriate for the IV administration route. This is known as

A) right medication

B) right patient

C) right dose

D) right time

A

Right Medication

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4
Q

Glucagon is often prescribed to patients with diabetes for use if they become

A) hypoglycemic

B) hyperglycemic

C) anaphylactic

D) asthmatic

A

Hypoglycemic

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5
Q

A patient comes to her health care provider complaining of fresh blood in her vomit after being hit in the stomach. The patient is suffering from why type of hemorrhaging?

A) Ecchymosis

B) Menorrhagia

C) Epistaxis

D) Hematemesis

A

Hematemesis

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6
Q

A patient experiencing vasodilation that may have septic or non septic causes including anaphylaxis and neurogenic etiologies is experiencing what type of shock?

A) Hypovolemic

B) Cardiogenic

C) Distributive

D) Obstructive

A

Distributive

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7
Q

A patient with black foul smelling stool that contains digested blood is said to have the following?

A) Hematochezia

B) Hematemesis

C) Hemoptysis

D) Melena

A

Melena

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8
Q

Which site is the appropriate injection site for an inter muscular injection of a maximum of 2ml?

A) deltoid region

B) lateral quad region

C) gluteal region

D) medial region

A

gluteal region

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9
Q

Reversal of respiratory depression or arrest associated with narcotic overdose is treated with which of the following?

A) glucagon

B) naloxone

C) epinephrine

D) insuline

A

naloxone

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10
Q

Which method of oxygen delivery has a concentration of 95% to 100% and has a flow rate of 10-15 L/min?

A) nasal cannula

B) simple oxygen face mask

C) face mask with oxygen reservoir

D) bag-valve mask

A

face mask with oxygen reservoir

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11
Q

This fracture is an incomplete break of a bone that has not fully ossified

A) transverse

B) greenstick

C) commuted

D) avulsion

A

greenstick

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12
Q

The most common elbow dislocation is

A) anterior

B) lateral

C) posterior

D) medial

A

Posterior

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13
Q

A pelvic fracture can damage which of the following arteries

A) internal iliac

B) gonadal

C) femoral

D) common iliac

A

internal iliac

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14
Q

Which type of femur fracture is often referred to as a hip fracture?

A) proximal femoral

B) femoral shaft

C) distal femur

D) radial femoral

A

proximal femoral

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15
Q

An athlete experiences a virus force on the proximal tibia. What type of fracture is he most likely to experience?

A) lateral

B) bicondylar

C) medial

D) bicondylar with soft tissue injuries

A

medial

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16
Q

On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a verbal response that uses inappropriate words receives which score?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

A

3

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17
Q

An athlete is hit in the head by a baseball. When the helmet is removed, there is an indentation in the side of his skull. What type of fracture has he sustained?

A) linear

B) basilar

C) diastatic

D) depressed

A

depressed

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18
Q

The β€œA” in the FAST acronym for a patient suspected of having a stroke stands for…

A) awareness

B) asymptomatic

C) articulation

D) arm weakness

A

arm weakness

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19
Q

After being hit in the face during a boxing match, your athlete has a maxilla fracture that affects the upper teeth, maxillary sinuses, and nasal bones. What classification if this fracture?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

A

Type III

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20
Q

Chronic headaches continue longer than

A) 1 week

B) 1 month

C) 2 months

D) 3 months

A

3 months

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21
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for returning the cervical spine back to the neutral position?

A) returning the spine to neutral with no resistance

B) patients unwillingness to move

C) airway that is maintained

D) decrease in symptoms and pain

A

patients unwillingness to move

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22
Q

What is the best method for spine boarding a prone patient?

A) multi person lift and slide

B) straddle lift and slide

C) log roll

D) single person life and slide

A

log roll

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23
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly used SMR device?

A) vacuum mattress

B) scoop stretcher

C) Kendrick extraction device

D) long spine board

A

long spine board

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24
Q

What is the first step when managing a patient with a suspected spine injury?

A) retrieving the spine board

B) inline stabilization

C) log rolling

D) application of a collar

A

inline stabilization

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25
Placing padding at the head after the helmet has been removed prevents which motion? A) excess extension B) excess flexion C) excess lateral bending D) excess lateral rotation
excessive extension
26
TRUE/FALSE: Supraglottal airways are a form of airway adjunct that is placed above the larynx
true
27
TRUE/FALSE: A risk factor of PE is traveling longer than 4 hours without walking around
true
28
TRUE/FALSE: >180/110 mmHg is Hypertensive
true
29
TRUE/FALSE: Nitroglycerin is administered under the tongue
true
30
TRUE/FALSE: The gallbladder is located in the URQ
true
31
TRUE/FALSE: McBurney's point is a palpation location for appendicitis
true
32
TRUE/FALSE: Dipstick UA is standard test for kidney injuries
true
33
When a person is a part of the lightning channel as it makes contact with the earth, the strike is said ti be a A) side flash B) ground current C) upward streamer D) contact injury
upward streamer
34
External rhabdomyolysis is characterized by the breakdown of which type of tissue? A) adipose B) muscular C) lymphatic D) neural
muscular
35
Which structure secretes glucagon? A) alpha cells B) beta cells C) islets of langerhans D) delta cells
alpha cells
36
What muscle is the predominant muscle of the abdomen? A) internal oblique B) external oblique C) rectus abdominis D) transverse oblique
rectus abdominis
37
A blood pressure of 140 to 159/90 to 99 mmHg is considered A) hypotension B) prehypertension C) mild hypertension D) severe hypertension
mild hypertension
38
The respiration rate in a typical adult is ____________ breaths per minute. A) 5-10 B) 12-20 C) 20-28 D) 30-36
12-20
39
Exercise-induced deep vein thrombosis is also known as A) Kehr's sign B) Paget-Schroetter syndrome C) Thoracic outlet syndrome D) Tinel's sign
Paget-Schroetter syndrome
40
Rapid Transport should be considered for which of the following? A) shoulder dislocation B) confusion C) chest pain with systolic pressure >100 mmHg D) abnormal breathing
abnormal breathing
41
Which of the following results in severe functional disability, surgery, medical disqualification, and possibly sudden death? A) emergencies B) catastrophic injuries C) critical incidents D) traumatic events
catastrophic injuries
42
The last dose of vaccine for hepatitis B should be given how long after the second dose? A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 4 months D) 5 months
5 months
43
Todays health care system is based on A) working as a loner B) a diverse group of people who collaborate C) a clinician who doesn't have relationships D) not sharing responsibilities
a diverse group of people who collaborate
44
When ___________ minutes have passed without either seeing lightning or hearing thunder, it is safe to resume activities and be outdoors A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 30
30
45
Which of these is a cause of rhabdomyolysis? A) accustomed workouts B) hypothermia C) embolism D) excessive hydration
embolism
46
Type 2 diabetes is a condition whose onset and severity can be greatly decreased with which of the following? A) surgery B) medicine C) exercise D) genetic therapy
exercise
47
Which of these organs is found in the retroperitoneum? A) stomach B) liver C) spleen D) small intestine
liver
48
Which heart rate is greater than >100 bpm? A) normal B) extreme bradycardia C) Sinus bradycardia D) tachycardia
tachycardia
49
What type of respiratory sounds occur when air moves freely though the large passageways of the lungs and are heard over the anterior chest in the trachea and bronchi? A) bronchovesicular sounds B) bronchial sounds C) alveolar sounds D) vesicular sounds
bronchial sounds
50
A complete separation of the physics in relation to the metaphysis with no fracture to the bone is known as what type of fracture? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV
Type I
51
Which of the following is the least common risk factor of DVT? A) obesity B) limb trauma C) smoking D) oral contraceptives
smoking
52
Routes that bypass the GI tract including liquid, gas, or semisolid form are said to be which of the following? A) internal B) enteral C) external D) parenteral
parenteral
53
Which of the following is a core element to an effective EAP? A) knowing multiple jobs B) no communication with emergency personnel C) ensuring access to AED D) waiting until game to review the EAP
ensuring access to AED
54
A healthcare provider contracts an infectious agent after using a pen that a patient used to sign consent forms. What mode of transmission has occurred in this scenario? A) droplet contact B) airborne transmission C) indirect physical transmission D) direct contact
indirect physical transmission
55
Which of the following statements characterizes a bad health care team? A) team members interact dynamically with one another B) individuals know their roles C) individuals work without sharing outcomes D) individuals interact toward a common goal
individuals work without sharing outcomes
56
The health care team agreeing on and implementing reliable and timely feedback on successes and failures in both the functioning of the team and achievement of the teams goals is called A) effective communication B) clear roles C) shared goals D) measurable outcomes
measurable outcomes
57
Using masks and other PPEs according to standard precautions when performing splash generating procedures (e.g., wound irrigation, suctioning, intubation) is an example of what? A) infection control precautions B) education and training of health care personnel C) judicious use of antimicrobial agents D) environmental measures
infection control precautions
58
In an emergent situation, acute care and management of the injury or illness must be provided by the person with the most qualifications or highest credential on the scene. This is the definition of what? A) retrieve equipment B) activate EMS C) provide immediate, on-site acute care D) direct EMS
provide immediate, on-site acute care
59
A patient comes into the ED with injuries that are potentially life-threatening, but can wait. The patient should survive with medical attention. Which triage category should be assigned to this patient? A) red B) yellow C) green D) black
yellow
60
Baby aspirin is given to patients demonstrating symptoms of cardiac arrest. This medication is given by which method? A) sublingual B) oral C) subcutaneous D) intravenous
oral
61
A patient has his shoulder reduced by lying in the prone position while holding a weight in his injured arm. The arm is hanging downward. What type of reduction method is this? A) hippocratic method B) milch technique C) Stimson's technique D) saps method
Stimson's technique
62
After an athlete is suspected to have a concussion, the HCP will ask questions to assess the athletes orientation, memory, and concentration. The HCP will be assessing the athletes A) cognitive screening B) delayed recall C) signs and symptoms D) neurological screening
cognitive screening
63
A patient presents with a pulse oximeter reading of 91% - 94% oxygen saturation. According to the American Red Cross guidelines, the patient would need a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen because the patient has which condition? A) severe hypoxia B) moderate hypoxia C) mild hypoxia D) normal O2
mild hypoxia
64
A patient presents to his HCP with pink frothy sputum. This patient most likely has which of the following? A) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B) acute myocardial infarction C) myocarditis D) marfan syndrome
acute myocardial infarction
65
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of appendix pain. In which quadrant will her pain be located? A) upper right B) upper left C) lower right D) lower left
lower right
66
A person with low blood sugar will experience which of the following? A) bradycardia B) hypoventilation C) arrhythmia D) tachycardia
tachycardia
67
During the clinical presentation of rhabdomyolysis, the reddish-brown color of urine is caused by A) urea B) myoglucose C) uric acid D) myoglobinuria
myoglobinuria
68
Signs of heatstroke include A) rectal temperature at 102Β°F B) clammy skin C) profuse sweating D) headache
clammy skin
69
If hyponatremia is left untreated, it can lead to A) renal failure B) tachycardia C) elevated blood pressure D) extracellular shrinkage
renal failure
70
Levels of creatine kinase greater than __________ U/L may indicate ER A) 250 B) 500 C) 2,000 D) 5,000
5,000
71
Which of these therapies should be avoided after insulin use? A) normtecs B) hot packs C) e-stim D) massage
hot packs
72
What is the final aspect of abdominal evaluation prior to special test or diagnostic exams? A) percussion B) palpation C) auscultation D) observation
percussion
73
The Valsalva maneuver is used to detect which of the following heart conditions? A) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B) acute myocardial infarction C) myocarditis D) marfan syndrome
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
74
Which device allows a patient to inhale oxygen from a bag, which is connected to oxygen, and exhale the carbon dioxide into the atmosphere? A) nasal cannula B) simple oxygen mask C) non-rebreather mask D) bag-valve method
non-rebreather mask
75
Which type of SMR device has the advantage of reducing the discomfort caused by cranial and sacral pressure? A) vacuum mattress B) scoop stretcher C) kendrick extraction device D) long spine board
vacuum mattress
76
A physical examination of the legs, abdomen, and pelvis should be performed in patients with suspected DVT to look for which of the following? A) low-grade fever B) bilateral pitting edema C) bilateral warmth D) calf swelling <3 cm
low-grade fever
77
Which of the following medicines has dizziness, weakness, tachycardia, hypotension, dry mouth, nausea and vomiting as possible side effects after use? A) albuterol sulfate B) nitroglycerin C) medical oxygen D) atrovent
nitroglycerin
78
A patient has an excessive amount of carbon dioxide in his blood. What is he experiencing? A) hypoperfusion B) hypoxia C) hypercapnia D) hypotension
hypercapnia
79
What is an example of an ineffective way to coordinate and integrate the EAP during an emergency? A) contact information for local EMS B) partial description of the location C) instructions to notify parents D) locations and type of emergency equipment
partial description of the location
80
Using masks and other PPEs according to standard precautions when performing splash generating procedures (e.g., wound irrigation, suctioning, intubation) is an example of what? A) infection control precautions B) education and training of health care personnel C) judicious use of antimicrobial agents D) environmental measures
infection control precautions
81
Which of the following is an example of core values of an athletic trainer? A) professional duty B) communication skills C) interpersonal skills D) commitment to learning
professional duty
82
In accordance with states having a regulated practice act, ATs must have completed which of the following in that state? A) graduation from college B) internship C) Licensure or registration D) taking the BOC exam
Licensure or registration
83
An example of unsafe injection practices is A) using safety features when available B) double gloving C) passing sharps quietly D) placing used sharps in puncture-resistant container
passing sharps quietly
84
After information is given to a dispatcher, her role is to A) determine the location for EMS arrival B) anticipate response time C) determine whether the situation is an emergency D) determine the course of treatment
anticipate response time
85
An athletic trainer approaches an unconscious athlete who is covered in blood at the head and neck area. What is the first step to treating the athlete? A) apply inline stabilization B) apply pressure to the wound C) apply gloves D) apply cervical collar
apply gloves
86
Which type of finger dislocation is difficult to relocate because of the extensor tendon? A) volar B) dorsal C) lateral D) medial
volar
87
A patient is experiencing a seizure that affects both the cerebral hemispheres and causes a loss of awareness. She has experienced what type of seizure? A) generalized onset seizure B) focal onset seizure C) unknown onset seizure D) localized onset seizure
generalized onset seizure
88
Which of the following provides very good ventilation rates but does not have a protective bladder to prevent air from entering the stomach, or regurgitation? A) laryngeal mask airway B) I-gel airway C) combitube D) king airway
laryngeal mask airway
89
A heart murmur will be heard the loudest over which section of the heart? A) upper right B) lower right C) upper left D) lower left
lower left
90
Blunt-force trauma, such as a knee, elbow, or helmet to the abdominal region, frequently cause injury to which organ? A) stomach B) liver C) spleen D) intestine
liver
91
Athletes with hyperglycemia but normal ketonuria are allowed to participate as long as serum glucose is assessed every A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes
15 minutes
92
In patients with rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure may occur _____________ after initial muscle damage A) 1-2 hours B) 10-12 hours C) 1-2 days D) 10-12 days
1-2 days
93
When normal sodium levels in the blood lower to a level of 125-129 mEqL, the patients decrease in sodium is said to be A) mild B) moderate C) severe D) acute
moderate
94
The gold standard for treating someone with heatstroke is which of the following? A) cold packs B) cold towels C) cold water immersion D) cold fluids
cold water immersion
95
Sickle cell trait is most prevalent among persons of African or ____________ descent A) asian B) South American C) mediterranean D) samoan
mediterranean
96
Hypoglycemia and Hyperglycemia which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia? A) polyuria B) anxiety C) hypotension D) hypoventilation
anxiety
97
What is the initial complaint of a patient with a suspected abdominal injury? A) dizziness B) nausea C) difficulty digesting food D) wind being knocked out of him
wind being knocked out of him
98
Death from Marfan syndrome can occur from a dissection of which major blood vessel? A) aorta B) pulmonary trunk C) inferior vena cava D) superior vena cava
aorta
99
Which condition is a blockage in a vessel of the lungs commonly caused by a thrombus? A) cardiac embolism B) thoracic thrombosis C) ischemic attack D) pulmonary embolism
pulmonary embolism
100
Which of the following is the most studied mechanism of injury of a person with a suspected spine injury? A) traction B) axial loading C) lateral rotation D) lateral flexion
axial loading
101
Which stage of CTE includes cognitive impairment and executive function shortfalls in planning, organization, multitasking, and judgment? A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III D) Stage IV
Stage III
102
A(n) ___________ fracture may result from a direct blow, shoulder dislocation, or falling on an outstretched hand A) epiphyseal B) proximal C) humeral shaft D) ulnar
proximal
103
Which of the following is a step to controlling bleeding? A) apply high-flow oxygen as necessary B) apply pressure with moist dressing C) apply dressing covering above the wound only D) apply new dressing after removing the old dressing
apply high-flow oxygen as necessary
104
The HCP asked the patient, "Are you OK?" The patient's response was a grunt, moan, or slight movement of a limb when prompted by the rescuer's voice. This is an example of which category of the AVPU scale? A) alert B) voice C) pain D) unresponsive
voice
105
According to the checklist for emergency preparedness, a HCP checks and confirms that communication equipment is charged and in working order. This falls under the category of A) preseason planning B) event/game day preparation C) prevent preparation D) pregame time-out
prevent preparation
106
Which of the following is going to increase the risk of spreading pathogens in a medical facility? A) sneezing into your sleeve if you don't have a tissue B) letting people with respiratory infections walk around escorted by family C) avoiding touching your face after touching contaminated objects D) posting signs at entrances with instructions to patients who have symptoms of respiratory infection
letting people with respiratory infections walk around escorted by family
107
According to the medical model, ATs may A) be prohibited from additional professional development opportunities B) be allowed to cover high-risk practices and events C) work around 60 hours a week D) be allowed to handle all patient care duties individually
be allowed to cover high-risk practices and events
108
Making an incorrect diagnosis while caring for a patient is an example of A) slip B) lapse C) rule-based mistake D) a knowledge-based mistake
rule-based mistake
109
Which of the following is an example of a poor exposure control plan? A) optional hepatitis B vaccination and declination B) record-keeping of exposure C) employee exposure determination D) employee training schedule
optional hepatitis B vaccination and declination
110
Which of the following is part of the critical interval time when practicing the EAP? A) time from calling the parents to their arrival B) time from collapse to initiating CPR C) time from emergency to notifying the administration D) time from the start of calling 911 to end of the call
time from collapse to initiating CPR
111
What considerations should be acknowledged prior to removing equipment from a patient with a suspected spine injury? A) position of the patient B) type of sport the athlete plays C) training of individuals at the scene D) location of the patient
training of individuals at the scene
112
A person who has Marfan syndrome will not display A) joint hypermobility B) ocular lens subluxation C) flat feet D) short stature
short stature
113
According to the AAST grading scale, a liver injury with a sub scapular hematoma of 10% to 50% in surface area is considered to be which grade? A) I B) II C) III D) IV
III
114
Which of the following is a characteristic of exertional collapse associated with sickle cell? A) often with prodrome of muscle twinges B) slumped to the ground with weak muscles C) physically writing and yelling in pain D) prolonged recovery with rest, rehydration
slumped to the ground with weak muscles
115
A(n) __________ thermometer is used as the gold standard for measuring an accurate internal temperature A) oral B) temporal C) axillary D) rectal
rectal
116
Cold, wet towels should be placed on what region of the body? A) head B) feet C) groin D) back
groin
117
In the United States, SCT occurs in __________ African Americans A) 1 in 12 B) 1 in 25 C) 1 in 60 D) 1 in 260
1 in 12
118
A patient with a suspected kidney injury will suffer from which of these symptoms? A) tachycardia B) nausea C) hypertension D) hematuria
hematuria (blood in urine)
119
When performing an ECG, what color lead is usually attached to the left arm? A) white B) green C) black D) red
black
120
What is the name of the condition that has blood in the pleural cavity? A) pneumothorax B) hemothorax C) hemopneumpthorax D) sanguothorax
hemothorax
121
Which tooth injury has marked displacement and misalignment? A) subluxation B) extrusive laceration C) intrusive luxation D) avulsion
extrusive laceration
122
Hypersensitivity reactions can be categorized as ___________ when it involves diaphoresis, chest tightness, or throat tightness A) mild B) moderate C) severe D) life threatening
moderate
123
A patient exhibits reduced peripheral circulation or low oxygen saturation. The patient's skin color will be which of the following? A) ashen B) cyanotic C) yellow D) red
ashen
124
During a medical emergency, which of the following is the responsibility of health care providers? A) contact primary care doctor B) contact custodians C) contact administrators D) contact family members
contact family members
125
Protecting the privacy of student education records and giving parents certain rights to their children's education records until 18 years old is the definition of A) Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health B) Protected Health Information C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D) Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
126
____ include(s) inadequate preparation, staffing, and attention to detail, which lead to increased risk of error A) time shortage B) poor procedures C) novice clinicians D) inadequate checking
poor procedures
127
Taking responsibility for ones own learning and participating equally and collegially in groups demonstrates self-reflection and accurate self-assessment. This is an example of which of the following? A) maturity B) competency C) dependability D) responsibility
competency
128
You forgot to secure your work computer and a non-health care provider reads an athletes health information. What should you do next? A) tell the athlete B) do nothing C) tell the coach D) notify your supervisor
notify your supervisor
129
A HCP says, "We noted point tenderness near C6-C7, distal muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes of the Achilles and wrist extensors." This is an example of what type of oral report? A) opening information B) pertinent findings C) response to treatment D) vital signs
pertinent findings
130
In a stable patient, the pulse should be taken A) every 5 minutes B) every 10 minutes C) every 15 minutes D) every 20 minutes
15 minutes
131
What type of IV is needed to treat heat illnesses and hypovolemia? A) dextrose B) Lactated Ringer's (LR) solution C) saline D) amino acid
saline
132
A patient tells the HCP that she was bitten by a black widow spider. She begins to have muscle spasms and edema. What type of symptoms are these? A) local B) mild C) moderate D) serious
moderate
133
Which health care team member has the greatest number of educational requirements to work in the emergency field
Paramedic
134
What can help patients feel more confident that they will be treated courteously and that the health care provider has genuine concern for patients' well-being
Interpersional
135
The BOC Code of Professional Responsibilites (Code 1.2) requires ATs to protect the patient from ____
Undue harm
136
Waiting until the coach has calmed down or discussing the status of a player with an assistant coach who will communicate the patients status with the head coach at the appropriate time or place is an example of ____
Emotional Intelligence
137
Injury ____ is using large data sets or databases to characterized the occurance of sports injuries by identifying risk factors in order to develope injury prevention strategies and programs
Epidemiology
138
When using a tourniquet, what should you do after you secure the windless rod?
Write time of placement
139
Best practices for verbal communication within the health care team include
Clarifying your role
140
Which of the following provides a clear, user-friendly explanation of peoples' rights with respect to their personal health information and the practices of health care providers?
Notice of privacy
141
MRSA is considered to be which of the following?
Multi drug-resistant organism
142
Cold illness mostly affects which of the following organ systems? A) Respiratory System B) Nervous System C) Digestive System D) Urinary System
Nervous System
143
Signs of high altitude edema include A) bradycardia B) tachycardia C) peripheral cyanosis D) dyspnea
144
In athletes with ECAST, which type of oxygen should be administered?
High-flow
145
Which condition is triggered by a blunt, non penetrating blow to the precordial area without structural injury to the ribs, sternum, or heart?
Commotio Cordis
146
Sickle-shaped red blood cells can cause
vaso-occlusion
147
Which condition is the most life-threatening electrolyte imbalance that results from exertional rhabdomyolysis?
Hyperkalemia
148
Which of the following conditions is defined as the rupture of red blood cells and the release of their contents into nearby fluid?
Hemolysis
149
In a patient with compartment syndrome, what is the range that indicates the need for a fasciotomy?
30-50 mm Hg
150
Which of these symptoms is not typically associated with a SC joint injury? A) hemoptysis B) dyspnea C) dysphagia D) hoarseness
hoarseness
151
A patient with an oxygen saturation of 88% to 92% would need which device to aid in his breathing?
simple oxygen mask
152
Which of the following is an indication for using aspirin? A) angina pectoris B) hemodynamically stable C) myocardial rupture D) extreme bradycardia
hemodynamically stable