Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CompTia 901 Exam Prep > CompTia 901 Exam Prep > Flashcards

CompTia 901 Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the information running on your computer stored when it is in use?

A

RAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How big is the data width of DIMM?

A

64 bit data width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of RAM has 184 pins?

A

DDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What types of RAM have 240 pins? (2)

A

DDR2 and DDR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is SO-DIMM used for?

A

Laptops and Mobile Devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of RAM does a laptop use?

A

SO-DIMM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which type of RAM has 172 pins?

A

DDR Mirco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What types of RAM have 214 pins? (2)

A

DDR2 and DDR3 Mirco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does a jumper on a motherboard do?

A

Enables or disables certain features of a motherboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which CPU layout puts pins onto the CPU?

A

Pin Grid Array (PGA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which CPU layout puts pins on the motherboard?

A

Land Grid Array (LGA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Northbridge also called?

A

Memory Controller Hub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Memory Controller Hub also called?

A

Northbridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Southbridge also called?

A

I/O Controller Hub (ICH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the I/O Controller Hub (ICH) also called?

A

Southbridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which bus deals with high bandwidth communications?

A

Northbridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the Northbridge deal with?

A

High bandwidth communications (GPU, CPU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the Southbridge deal with?

A

Low bandwidth communications, (PCI, USB, HDD,BIOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the Super I/O deal with?

A

Legacy Ports (Serial, Parallel, Floppy Drive, Keyboard, Mouse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What many times faster can a DDR3 SDRAM transfer than the memory clock speed?

A

64 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How much bus width does PCI have? (2)

A

32 bit and 64 bit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A PCI that is running at 133 MB/S is running at what bit and Mhz?

A

32 bit at 33 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A PCI that is running at 266 MB/S is running at what bit and Mhz? (2)

A

32 bit at 66 Mhz or 64 bit at 33 Mhz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A PCI that is running at 533 MB/S is running at what bit and Mhz?

A

64 bit at 66 Mhz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A PCI that is running 32 bit at 33 Mhz is running how fast?

A

133 MB/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A PCI that is running 32 bit at 66 Mhz or 64 bit at 33 Mhz is running how fast?

A

266 MB/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A PCI that is running 64 bit at 66 Mhz is running how fast?

A

533 MB/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of communication does a PCI have?

A

Parallel communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does parallel communication mean?

A

All the information is transferred at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If all information is transferred at the same time what type of communication is that?

A

Parallel communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the PCI-X designed for?

A

Servers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which PCI is designed for servers?

A

PCI-X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many times faster than the clock speed is PCI-X?

A

4 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How much thoughput does a PCI-X have?

A

1064 MB/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Does PCI-X have parallel communication?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does the PCIe communicate?

A

Serially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does serial communication mean?

A

It sends a single bit one at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the different types of PCIe? (6)

A

x1, x2, x4, x8, x16, x32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is faster Parallel or Serial communication?

A

Serial communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the throughput for PCIe V1.x?

A

250 MB/s per lane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the throughput for PCIe V2.x?

A

500 MB/s Per lane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the throughput for PCIe V3.x?

A

~ 1 GB/s Per lane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the throughput for PCIe V4.x?

A

~ 2 GB/s per lane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which version of PCIe has 250 MB/S throughput?

A

PCIe V1.x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which version of PCIe has 500 MB/S throughput?

A

PCIe V2.x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which version of PCIe has ~ 1 GB/S throughput?

A

PCIe V3.x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which version of PCIe has ~ 2 GB/S throughput?

A

PCIe V4.x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is mini PCIe used for?

A

Mobile devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many pin connectors are on ATX motherboards? (2)

A

20 pin or 24 pin with additional 4/8 pin connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Is the Mini-ITX screw-compatible with ATX?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the form factor for the Mini-ITX?

A

170mm x 170mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the form factor for the Nano-ITX?

A

120mm x 120mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the form factor for the Pico-ITX?

A

72 mm x 100 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the form factor for the Moblie-ITX?

A

45mm x 75mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which motherboard is 45mm x 75mm?

A

Moblie-ITX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which motherboard is 72 mm x 100 mm?

A

Pico-ITX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which motherboard is 120mm x 120mm?

A

Nano-ITX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which motherboard is 170mm x 170mm?

A

Mini-ITX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many pins does a DDR SDRAM have?

A

184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How many pins does a DDR2 and DDR3 have?

A

204

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many pins does a DDR and DDR2 SO-DIMM have?

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many pins does a DDR3 so-dimm have?

A

204

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How many pins does a DDR Mirco-DIMM have?

A

172

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How many pins does a DDR2 and DDR3 Mirco-DIMM have?

A

214

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What enables and disables features on a motherboard?

A

Jumpers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which type of memory adds a bit but can’t correct an error?

A

Parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does Parity memory do?

A

Adds a parity bit to check for errors but it can only inform you of errors, not correct them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which type of memory can correct an error on the fly?

A

Error Correcting Code (EEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What can Error Correcting Code (EEC) memory do?

A

Correct an error in the memory on the fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Does parity make even or odd numbers?

A

Even

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is another name for Registered Memory?

A

Buffered Memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does Registered Memory do?

A

Includes an additional register between the RAM module and the memory controller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is Registered memory mostly used?

A

Servers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How is Multi-Channel memory used?

A

Installed in pairs or trios for maximum throughput

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is installed in pairs or trios for maximum throughput?

A

Multi-Channel memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is Read Only Memory (ROM)?

A

It’s memory that can’t be changed or erased. It’s a good place to store BIOS settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a type of memory that can’t be changed or erased?

A

Read Only Memory (ROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is Programmable ROM (PROM)?

A

Memory that can be written to only once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the type of memory that can only be written to once?

A

Programmable ROM (PROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is Erasable PROM (EPROM)?

A

It’s memory that can be written, erased and written again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What type of memory can be written to, erased, and written to again?

A

Erasable PROM (EPROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What type of ROM is in most computers?

A

Electrically Erasable PROM (EEPROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is Electrically Erasable PROM (EEPROM)?

A

It can be rewritten again and again electronically (Flash Drives, SSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of memory can be rewritten again and again electronically?

A

Electrically Erasable PROM (EEPROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What type of memory is often used in processor caches?

A

Static RAM (SRAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where is SRAM often used?

A

In processor caches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does Dynamic RAM (DRAM) need to do constantly?

A

It needs to be constantly refreshed or the data disappears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Why is Dynamic RAM (DRAM) randomly accesed?

A

Information can be pulled quicker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM)?

A

A type of memory that is synchronous with the common system clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which type of memory is synced with a common system clock?

A

Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is what is difference between DDR and SDR?

A

DDR can send data twice as fast as SDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How many pins does DDR have?

A

184 pins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which is faster SDR or DDR?

A

DDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which type of memory has 184 pins?

A

DDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How do you get the naming convention for RAM (ie.PC1600)?

A

Take the transfer speed (200) and multiply that by 8 to get the name (PC1600)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the name (Pcxxxx) for DDR-200?

A

PC1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the name (DDR-xxx) for PC1600?

A

DDR-200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the name (Pcxxxx) for DDR-266?

A

PC2100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the name (Pcxxxx) for DDR-333?

A

PC2700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the name (Pcxxxx) for DDR-400?

A

PC3200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the name (DDR-xxx) for PC2100?

A

DDR-266

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the name (DDR-xxx) for PC2700?

A

DDR-333

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the name (DDR-xxx) for PC3200?

A

DDR-400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How much faster DDR2 than DDR?

A

Twice as fast DDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which is faster DDR2 or DDR?

A

DDR2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How many pins does DDR2 have?

A

240 pins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Which type of memory has 240 pins? (2)

A

DDR2 and DDR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Is DDR2 backwards compatible with DDR?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the naming convention for DDR2 memory?

A

DDR2-xxx PC2-xxxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

If a memory clock speed is 100 MHz what does the I/O bus speed need to be for DDR?

A

100 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

If a memory clock speed is 100 MHz what does the I/O bus speed need to be for DDR2?

A

200 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

If a memory clock speed is 100 MHz what does the I/O bus speed need to be for DDR3?

A

400 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

If the memory clock speed is 100 Mhz and the I/O bus speed is 200 MHz what is the DDR speed?

A

DDR-200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

If the memory clock speed is 100 Mhz and the I/O bus speed is 400 MHz what is the DDR speed?

A

DDR3-800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What should you do if you a expansion cards isn’t going into a slot?

A

Don’t try to jam it in there. Check to see if you have the right kind of card for that slot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Where is a WWAN cards found?

A

Usually found in laptops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What type of PCI is a WWAN card? (2)

A

Mini PCI or Mini PCI Express

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is a WWAN card used for?

A

Used to connect to the Internet without a Wifi or Ethernet present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What connection is TV tuners mostly used with?

A

Standard F connecter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What uses a standard F connector?

A

TV tuners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

If a expansion card is too tall for a case what can we use to make it fit?

A

Riser Card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How much can a CD-ROM hold?

A

Up to 700 MB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How much can a DVD-ROM hold?

A

Up to 4.7 GB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How much can a Dual Layer DVD-ROM hold?

A

Up to 8.5 GB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How much can a Blu-Ray hold?

A

Up to 25 GB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

How much can a Dual Layer Blu-Ray hold?

A

Up to 50 GB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Which optical format can hold up to 700 MB?

A

CD-ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Which optical format can hold up to 4.7 GB?

A

DVD-ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Which optical format can hold up to 8.5 GB?

A

Dual Layer DVD-ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Which optical format can hold up to 25 GB?

A

Blu-Ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which optical format can hold up to 50 GB?

A

Dual Layer Blu-Ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How does commercial devices write to optical media?

A

They create tiny bumps on the disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

How does retail devices write optical media?

A

They burn the photosensitive dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Which types of optical media can be rewriteable?

A

RW and for Blu-Ray (BD-RE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Which types of optical media can only be recorded once?

A

R (ie DVD-R, BD-R)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How does a Hard Disk Drive (HHD) operate?

A

By spinning platters inside of the HHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is the Average Latency on a 10,000 RPM HHD?

A

3 ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the Average Latency on a 7,200 RPM HHD?

A

4.16 ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the Average Latency on a 5,400 RPM HHD?

A

5.55 ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What does RW mean on optical media?

A

Rewritable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What does R mean on optical media?

A

Recordable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the RPM of a HDD if it has a average latency of 3 ms?

A

10,000 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the RPM of a HDD if it has a average latency of 4.16 ms?

A

7,200 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the RPM of a HDD if it has a average latency of 5.55 ms?

A

5,400 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the common RPMs of HDD? (3)

A

10,000 / 7,200 / 5,400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What does the platters on a HDD spin around?

A

Spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is a spindle?

A

It is what the platters inside of a HDD spin around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What moves the arm back and forth on a HDD?

A

Actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What does an actuator do?

A

Moves the arm back and forth on an HDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What read and writes information onto the platter of a HDD?

A

Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What does the head on a HDD do?

A

It reads and writes information onto the platter of a HDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which is faster SSD or HDD?

A

Solid State Drive (SSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What does an SSD use as memory?

A

Flash Memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is a Solid State Hybrid Drive (SSHD)?

A

It combines a spinning drive and a SSD into a single device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What combines a spinning drive and a SSD?

A

Solid State Hybrid Drive (SSHD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What does a SSHD do different?

A

It caches the slower spinning hard drive data onto the flash memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is a hot swappable drive?

A

You can add and remove drives while the system is running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What type of devices can be hot swappable? (4)

A

USB, Firewire, SATA, eSATA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Is a USB device hot swappable?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Is a Firewire device hot swappable?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Is a SATA device hot swappable?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Is a eSata device hot swappable?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What does USB flash drives use as memory?

A

EEPROM flash memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is a plus for USB flash drives?

A

Non-volatile memory and it needs no power to retain data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is a negative for USB flash drives?

A

It has a limited number of writes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is the different types of flash memory (7)

A

USB flash drive, CompactFlash(CF), Secure Digital(SD), miniSD, mircoSD, xD-Picture Card, eMMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is the common flash memory type in mobile devices?

A

eMMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is tape drive commonly used for?

A

Archival purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

How does tape drives store data?

A

With a magnetic tape with sequential storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What type of format does tape drives use?

A

Linear Tape-Open (LTO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which type of storage device uses the Linear Tape-Open format?

A

Tape Drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which types of flash drive uses EEPROM flash memory?

A

USB flash drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What type of flash drive has nonvolatile memory and it needs no power to retain data?

A

USB flash drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Which provides a higher performance? Software or hardware based RAID?

A

Hardware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Which RAID does just striping?

A

RAID 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What does striping do in RAID systems?

A

It splits the file blocks between two or more drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is a negative for RAID 0?

A

It has no redundancy. If one drive fails everything is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is a positive for RAID 0?

A

High performance so the data can be written quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What does RAID 0 do?

A

Striping only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What does RAID 1 do?

A

Mirroring only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Which RAID does just mirroring?

A

RAID 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is RAID mirroring?

A

File blocks are duplicated between multiple physical drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is a positive for RAID 1?

A

High redundancy. If one drive fails you have a backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is a negative for RAID 1?

A

Requires double the disk space you would normally need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What does RAID 5 do?

A

Striping with parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Which type of RAID does striping with parity?

A

RAID 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

How many disks does RAID 5 need?

A

Atleast 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What does RAID 1+0 do?

A

A Stripe of mirrors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How many drives does RAID 1+0 need?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Which RAID does a stripe of mirrors?

A

RAID 1+0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What dissipates heat through thermal conduction?

A

Heat sink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What does a heat sink do?

A

Dissipates heath through thermal conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is a heat sink commonly made of? (2)

A

Copper or aluminum alloy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is the adhesive that is between the CPU and the heat sink?

A

Thermal paste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What does thermal paste do?

A

It is the adhesive between the CPU and the heat sink that creates a good contact between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

How much thermal paste should you apply?

A

A small dab. Too much and it can become counter intuitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What is the standard size for case fans? (3)

A

80 mm / 120 mm / 200 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What does liquid cooling do?

A

Cools the computer by circulating coolant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What type of cooling system cools the computer by circulating coolant?

A

Liquid Cooling

200
Q

What is passive cooling?

A

No fans are used only heat sinks

201
Q

What type of cooling system that cools a computer by only heat sinks?

A

Fanless / Passive cooling

202
Q

How many pins does a Intel LGA 775?

A

775 pins

203
Q

What CPU has 775 pins?

A

Intel LGA 775

204
Q

What is another name for a Intel LGA 775?

A

Socket T

205
Q

What is the official name for the Socket T?

A

Intel LGA 775

206
Q

How many pins does a Intel LGA 1366?

A

1366 pins

207
Q

What CPU has 1366 pins?

A

Intel LGA 1366

208
Q

What is another name for a Intel LGA 1366?

A

Socket B

209
Q

What is the official name for the Socket B?

A

Intel LGA 1366

210
Q

How many pins does a Intel LGA 1156?

A

1156 pins

211
Q

What CPU has 1156 pins?

A

Intel LGA 1156

212
Q

What is another name for a Intel LGA 1156?

A

Socket H or Socket H1

213
Q

What is the official name for the Socket H or Socket H1?

A

Intel LGA 1156

214
Q

What is special about the Intel LGA 1156?

A

It integrates the Northbridge onto the chip

215
Q

How many pins does a Intel LGA 1155?

A

1155 pins

216
Q

What CPU has 1155 pins?

A

Intel LGA 1155

217
Q

What is another name for a Intel LGA 1155?

A

Socket H2 (h21155)

218
Q

What is the official name for the Socket H2?

A

Intel LGA 1155

219
Q

How many pins does a Intel LGA 1150?

A

1150 pins

220
Q

What is another name for a Intel LGA 1150?

A

Socket H3 (h31150)

221
Q

What is the official name for the Socket H3?

A

Intel LGA 1150

222
Q

How many pins does a Intel LGA 2011?

A

2011 pins

223
Q

What CPU has 2011 pins?

A

Intel LGA 2011

224
Q

What is another name for a Intel LGA 2011?

A

Socket R

225
Q

What is the official name for the Socket R?

A

Intel LGA 2011

226
Q

What type of CPU is supported by Intel LGA 775? (2)

A

Pentium 4, Core 2

227
Q

What type of CPU is supported by Intel LGA 1366?

A

Core i7 (Nehalem)

228
Q

What type of CPU is supported by Intel LGA 1156? (3)

A

Core i3/5/7 (Nehalem)

229
Q

What type of CPU is supported by Intel LGA 1155? (2)

A

Sandy/Ivy Bridge

230
Q

What type of CPU is supported by Intel LGA 1150? (2)

A

Haswell, Broadwell

231
Q

What type of CPU is supported by Intel LGA 2011? (6)

A

Sandy Bridge-E/EP, Ivy Bridge-E/EP, Haswell-E/EP

232
Q

How many pins does a AMD Socket AM3?

A

941 pins (am3941)

233
Q

What CPU has 941 pins?

A

AMD Socket AM3

234
Q

Can an AM3 be used in a AM2 socket?

A

Yes with a BIOS upgrade

235
Q

How many pins does a AMD Socket AM3+?

A

942 pins (am3+942)

236
Q

What CPU has 942 pins?

A

AMD Socket AM3+

237
Q

Is the AM3 compatible with AM3+ CPU sockets?

A

Yes

238
Q

How many pins does a AMD Socket FM1?

A

905 pins (fm1905)

239
Q

What CPU has 905 pins?

A

AMD Socket FM1

240
Q

How many pins does a AMD Socket FM2?

A

904 pins

241
Q

What CPU has 904 pins?

A

AMD Socket FM2

242
Q

How many pins does a AMD Socket FM2+?

A

906 pins (fm2+906)

243
Q

What CPU has 906 pins?

A

AMD Socket FM2+ (2b906)

244
Q

Which CPU is in a Micro PGA package?

A

AMD Socket FM2+

245
Q

What is the AMD Socket FM2+ also called?

A

Socket FM2b

246
Q

Which CPU has the nickname of Socket FM2b?

A

AMD Socket FM2+

247
Q

Which type of CPU is supported by AMD Socket AM3? (2)

A

Athlon II / Phenom II

248
Q

Which type of CPU is supported by AMD Socket AM3+? (2)

A

Athlon II / Phenom II

249
Q

Which type of CPU is supported by AMD Socket FM1?

A

AMD 10h

250
Q

Which type of CPU is supported by AMD Socket FM2?

A

Piledriver

251
Q

Which type of CPU is supported by AMD Socket FM2+?

A

Steamroller

252
Q

Why is a CPU cache used?

A

It’s faster than holding it in RAM

253
Q

What is Hyper-Threading?

A

Takes a single CPU and makes it act like two

254
Q

What was the first Windows OS that supported Hyper-Threading?

A

Windows XP

255
Q

What is visualization?

A

Running multiple Oss on the same hardware

256
Q

What is the technology called for visualization for Intel called?

A

Intel Virtualization Technology (VT)

257
Q

What is the technology called for visualization for AMD called?

A

AMD Virtualization (AMD-V)

258
Q

How much faster can a 64 bit CPU run than a 32 bit CPU?

A

Twice as fast

259
Q

Does software have to be optimized to take advantages of x64 architecture?

A

Yes

260
Q

What does Intel called the NX bit?

A

XD bit

261
Q

What does AMD called the NX bit?

A

Enhanced Virus Protection

262
Q

What is an NX bit?

A

Designate sections of memory where the CPU can and can not execute code

263
Q

What does Windows call the feature for the NX bit?

A

Data Execution Prevention (DEP)

264
Q

What is the speed of Infrared Wireless?

A

4 Mbit/sec

265
Q

What is the max distance for Infrared Wireless? (same as SATA)

A

1 meter

266
Q

Which wireless has a max speed of 4 Mbit/sec?

A

Infrared

267
Q

Which wireless has a max distance of 1 meter (3 feet)?

A

Infrared

268
Q

What is the speeds for Near Field Communication? (3)

A

106 kbits/sec 212 kbit/sec 424 kbit/sec

269
Q

What is the max distance for Near Field Communication?

A

10 cm

270
Q

What is Class 1 Bluetooth used for?

A

Industrial use

271
Q

What is Class 2 Bluetooth used for?

A

Mobile Devices

272
Q

What is Class 3 Bluetooth used for?

A

Short-range use

273
Q

Which class of Bluetooth is used for Industrial use?

A

Class 1 Bluetooth

274
Q

Which class of Bluetooth is used for Mobile device use?

A

Class 2 Bluetooth

275
Q

Which class of Bluetooth is used for short-range use?

A

Class 3 Bluetooth

276
Q

What is the max power for Class 1 Bluetooth?

A

100 mW

277
Q

What is the max power for Class 2 Bluetooth?

A

2.5 mW

278
Q

What is the max power for Class 3 Bluetooth?

A

1 mW

279
Q

Which class of Bluetooth has a max power of 100 mW?

A

Class 1 Bluetooth

280
Q

Which class of Bluetooth has a max power of 2.5 mW?

A

Class 2 Bluetooth

281
Q

Which class of Bluetooth has a max power of 1 mW?

A

Class 3 Bluetooth

282
Q

What is the max distance for Class 1 Bluetooth?

A

100 meters

283
Q

What is the max distance for Class 2 Bluetooth?

A

10 meters

284
Q

What is the max distance for Class 3 Bluetooth?

A

1 meter

285
Q

Which class of Bluetooth has a max distance of 100 meters?

A

Class 1 Bluetooth

286
Q

Which class of Bluetooth has a max distance of 10 meters?

A

Class 2 Bluetooth

287
Q

Which class of Bluetooth has a max distance of 1 meter?

A

Class 3 Bluetooth

288
Q

Which version of Bluetooth has a data rate of 1 Mbit/sec?

A

Version 1

289
Q

Which version of Bluetooth has a data rate of 3 Mbit/sec?

A

Version 2

290
Q

Which version of Bluetooth has a data rate of 24 Mbit/sec? (2)

A

Version 3 & 4

291
Q

Version 1 Bluetooth as a data rate of how much?

A

1 Mbit/sec

292
Q

Version 2 Bluetooth as a data rate of how much?

A

3 Mbit/sec

293
Q

Version 3 Bluetooth as a data rate of how much?

A

24 Mbit/sec

294
Q

Version 4 Bluetooth as a data rate of how much?

A

24 Mbit/sec

295
Q

What is used for the actual data transfer in Bluetooth version 3?

A

802.11

296
Q

Which version of Bluetooth uses 802.11 for its data transfer?

A

Version 3

297
Q

What did version 4 of Bluetooth add to it’s specification?

A

low power specification

298
Q

What is the frequency used in 802.11a?

A

5 Ghz

299
Q

What is the frequency used in 802.11b?

A

2.4 Ghz

300
Q

What is the frequency used in 802.11g?

A

2.4 Ghz

301
Q

What is the frequency used in 802.11n? (2)

A

5 Ghz and/or 2.4 Ghz

302
Q

What is the frequency used in 802.11ac?

A

5 Ghz

303
Q

Which 802.11 uses 2.4 Ghz? (3)

A

802.11 b/g/n

304
Q

Which 802.11 uses 5 Ghz? (3)

A

802.11 a/n/ac

305
Q

What is the max allowable stream in 802.11a?

A

1

306
Q

What is the max allowable stream in 802.11b?

A

1

307
Q

What is the max allowable stream in 802.11g?

A

1

308
Q

What is the max allowable stream in 802.11n?

A

4

309
Q

What is the max allowable stream in 802.11ac?

A

8

310
Q

Which 802.11 has a max allowable stream of 8?

A

802.11ac

311
Q

Which 802.11 has a max allowable stream of 4?

A

802.11n

312
Q

Which 802.11 has a max allowable stream of 1? (3)

A

802.11a/b/g

313
Q

What is the max throughput for 802.11a?

A

54 Mbit/sec

314
Q

What is the max throughput for 802.11b?

A

11 Mbit/sec

315
Q

What is the max throughput for 802.11g?

A

54 Mbit/sec

316
Q

What is the max throughput for 802.11n?

A

600 Mbit/sec

317
Q

What is the max throughput for 802.11ac?

A

6,934 Mbit/sec

318
Q

Which 802.11 has a max throughput for 11 Mbit/sec?

A

802.11b

319
Q

Which 802.11 has a max throughput for 54 Mbit/sec? (2)

A

802.11a/g

320
Q

Which 802.11 has a max throughput for 600 Mbit/sec?

A

802.11n

321
Q

Which 802.11 has a max throughput for 6,934 Mbit/sec?

A

802.11ac

322
Q

What is the max outdoor range of 802.11a?

A

120 meters

323
Q

What is the max outdoor range of 802.11b?

A

140 meters

324
Q

What is the max outdoor range of 802.11g?

A

140 meters

325
Q

What is the max outdoor range of 802.11n?

A

250 meters

326
Q

What is the max outdoor range of 802.11ac?

A

250 meters

327
Q

Which 802.11 has a max outdoor range of 120 meters?

A

802.11a

328
Q

Which 802.11 has a max outdoor range of 140 meters? (2)

A

802.11b/g

329
Q

Which 802.11 has a max outdoor range of 250 meters? (2)

A

802.11n/ac

330
Q

What is Analog modulation?

A

Sends an analog signal over a analog channel

331
Q

Which type of modulation sends a analog signal over an analog signal?

A

Analog modulation

332
Q

What is digital modulation?

A

Sends a digital bitstream over an analog channel

333
Q

Which type of modulation send a digital bitstream over an analog channel?

A

Digital modulation

334
Q

Which type of modulation degrades?

A

Analog modulation

335
Q

Which type of modulation doesn’t degrade but just stops?

A

Digital modulation

336
Q

What is the max speed for USB 1.1 Low Speed?

A

1.5 Mb/sec

337
Q

What is the max speed for USB 1.1 Full Speed?

A

12 Mb/sec

338
Q

What is the max speed for USB 2.0?

A

480 Mb/sec

339
Q

What is the max speed for USB 3.0?

A

5 Gb/sec

340
Q

Which USB version can run at a max speed of 1.5 Mb/sec?

A

USB 1.1 Low Speed

341
Q

Which USB version can run at a max speed of 12 Mb/sec?

A

USB 1.1 Full Speed

342
Q

Which USB version can run at a max speed of 480 Mb/sec?

A

USB 2.0

343
Q

Which USB version can run at a max speed of 5 Gb/sec?

A

USB 3.0

344
Q

What is the max distance for USB 3.0?

A

3 meters

345
Q

What is the max distance for USB 2.0?

A

5 meters

346
Q

What is the max distance for USB 1.1 Low Speed?

A

3 meters

347
Q

What is the max distance for USB 1.1 Full Speed?

A

5 meters

348
Q

Which USB version can have a max distance of 3 meters? (2)

A

USB 3.0, USB 1.1 Low Speed

349
Q

Which USB version can have a max distance of 5 meters? (2)

A

USB 2.0, USB 1.1 Full Speed

350
Q

How many devices can you daisy chain for FireWire?

A

Up to 63 devices

351
Q

Which connector can you daisy chain up to 63 devices?

A

FireWire

352
Q

What is the speeds for FireWire 400/IEEE 1394a? (3)

A

100,200 or 400 Mb/s half-duplex

353
Q

Which FireWire version can have speeds of 100,200, or 400 Mb/s half-duplex?

A

FireWire 400/IEEE 1394a

354
Q

What is the speeds for FireWire 800/IEEE 1394b?

A

800 Mb/s full-duplex

355
Q

Which FireWire version can have a speed of 800 Mb/sec full-duplex?

A

FireWire 800/IEEE 1394b

356
Q

With FireWire 800 what is the max optical connection distance?

A

100 meters

357
Q

What is the max distance limitation per link with FireWire?

A

4.5 meters

358
Q

What is the max speed for SATA revision 1.0?

A

1.5 Gb/sec

359
Q

Which SATA version has a max speed of 1.5 Gb/sec?

A

SATA Revision 1.0

360
Q

Which SATA version has a max speed of 3.0 Gb/sec?

A

SATA Revision 2.0

361
Q

Which SATA version has a max speed of 6.0 Gb/sec?

A

SATA Revision 3.0

362
Q

What is the max distance for SATA Revision 1.0?

A

1 meter

363
Q

What is the max distance for SATA Revision 2.0?

A

1 meter

364
Q

What is the max distance for SATA Revision 3.0?

A

1 meter

365
Q

What is the max distance for eSATA?

A

2 meters

366
Q

What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?

A

eSATA is a connection on the outside of the computer. SATA is the connection on the inside of the computer.

367
Q

What is another name for a Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector? (2)

A

DB-15,HD-15

368
Q

What is the common name for a DB-15 connector?

A

Video Graphics Array (VGA)

369
Q

What is the color of a VGA connector?

A

Blue

370
Q

Which connector is colored blue?

A

VGA connector

371
Q

What type of signal is a VGA connector?

A

Analog

372
Q

How far do you have to go before the image degrades on a VGA connector?

A

5 to 10 meters

373
Q

How many pins does a SATA data connector have?

A

7 pins

374
Q

What type of signal does HDMI have?

A

Digital

375
Q

How many pins does a HDMI Type A have?

A

19 pins

376
Q

What type of a connector does a miniHDMI use?

A

Type C

377
Q

What type of HDMI cable is used for smaller devices?

A

miniHDMI

378
Q

A dual link DVI connector can run how fast?

A

7.4 Gb/sec

379
Q

A single link DVI connector can run how fast?

A

3.7 Gb/sec

380
Q

Which type of DVI connector can run at 7.4 Gb/sec?

A

Dual Link DVI

381
Q

Which type of DVI connector can run at 3.7 Gb/sec?

A

Single Link DVI

382
Q

What type of signal does a DVI-A have?

A

Analog

383
Q

What type of signal does a DVI-D have?

A

Digital

384
Q

What type of signal does a DVI-I have?

A

Both Analog and digital

385
Q

Which type of DVI connector has only an analog signal?

A

DVI-A

386
Q

Which type of DVI connector has only an digital signal?

A

DVI-D

387
Q

Which type of DVI connector has both analog and digital signal?

A

DVI-I

388
Q

Which two common types of connectors are there for analog audio?

A

¼’’ TRS plug and 1/8’’ TRS plug

389
Q

Is a ¼’’ and a 1/8’’ TRS connector analog or digital?

A

Analog

390
Q

What is a digital audio connector called?

A

TOSLINK

391
Q

What is a digital audio connector made out of?

A

Optical Fiber

392
Q

What is the max length for a TOSLINK connector?

A

10 meters

393
Q

What connector does a analog modem use?

A

RJ-11

394
Q

What connector does a DSL line use?

A

RJ-11

395
Q

What is RJ-11 used for? (3)

A

Analog modem, DSL lines, telephone lines

396
Q

What xPxC type does a RJ-11 use?

A

6P2C

397
Q

Which type of connector uses a 6P2C type?

A

RJ-11

398
Q

What is an RJ-45 usually used for?

A

Ethernet

399
Q

What type of connector is used for Ethernet?

A

RJ-45

400
Q

What xPxC type does a RJ-45 use?

A

8P8C

401
Q

What type of data communication does a Thunderbolt use?

A

Serial

402
Q

What is the throughput for Thunderbolt V1?

A

10 Gb/sec per Channel, 20 Gb/sec total throughput

403
Q

What is the throughput for Thunderbolt V2?

A

20 Gb/sec

404
Q

What is the throughput for Thunderbolt V3?

A

40 Gb/sec

405
Q

Which Thunderbolt version has a max through put of 20 Gb/sec?

A

Thunderbolt V1

406
Q

Which Thunderbolt version has a max through put of 20 Gb/sec with aggregated channels?

A

Thunderbolt V2

407
Q

Which Thunderbolt version has a max through put of 40 Gb/sec?

A

Thunderbolt V3

408
Q

How many devices can you daisy chain for Thunderbolt?

A

Up to 6 devices

409
Q

What is the max distance for copper Thunderbolt connections?

A

3 meters

410
Q

What is the max distance for optical Thunderbolt connections?

A

60 meters

411
Q

Which type of Thunderbolt (design) has a max distance of 3 meters?

A

Copper

412
Q

Which type of Thunderbolt (design) has a max distance of 60 meters?

A

Optical

413
Q

How many pins does a SATA power connector have?

A

15 pins

414
Q

Which type of SATA connector has 15 pins?

A

SATA power connector

415
Q

What type of voltages does a SATA power connector have? (3)

A

3.3v, 5v, 12v

416
Q

Which type of SATA connector has 3.3v, 5v, 12v wires?

A

SATA power connector

417
Q

How many pins does molex connector have?

A

4 pins

418
Q

What type of voltages does a molex connector have? (2)

A

5v, 12v

419
Q

What is the ATX +12v connector mostly used for?

A

CPU connection

420
Q

How many pins does a ATX +12v connector have?

A

4 pins

421
Q

How many pins does a EPS +12v connector have?

A

8 pins

422
Q

Where is the EPS +12v connector mostly used in?

A

Servers

423
Q

What does an EPS +12v connector include?

A

A ATX +12v connector

424
Q

How many pins does a PCIe connector have? (2)

A

6 and 8 pins

425
Q

What voltage does a PCIe connector have?

A

12 V

426
Q

Where is the PCIe connector usually seen on?

A

Video adapters

427
Q

How many pins does a motherboard power connector have? (2)

A

20 or 24 pins. Some have 20 + 4 pins

428
Q

How much voltage does a motherboard power connector have? (3)

A

3.3v, 5v, 12v

429
Q

What is an amp?

A

The rate of electron flow past a point in one second

430
Q

What is the rate of electron flow past a point in one second?

A

Amp

431
Q

What is a volt?

A

Electrical pressure pushing the electrons

432
Q

What is an electrical pressure pushing electrons?

A

Volt

433
Q

How do you get watts?

A

Volts * Amp = Watts

434
Q

What is a watt?

A

Measurement of real power use

435
Q

What is the measurement of real power use?

A

Watt

436
Q

What is Alternating Current(AC)?

A

A electric current that constantly reverses

437
Q

What is a type of electronic current that constantly reverses?

A

Alternating Current (AC)

438
Q

What is the is Alternating Current (AC) that is used in the US/Canada?

A

110 to 120 volts of AC, 60 Hz

439
Q

What is the is Alternating Current (AC) that is used in the Europe?

A

220-240 VAC, 50 Hz

440
Q

Where is the AC used that is 110-120 VAC?

A

US/Canada

441
Q

Where is the AC used that is 220-240 VAC?

A

Europe

442
Q

Which type of current distributes electricity efficiently over long distances?

A

Alternating Current (AC)

443
Q

What is Direct Current (DC)?

A

An electrical current that moves in one direction with a constant voltage

444
Q

What is a type of electronic current that moves in one direction with a constant voltage?

A

Direct Current (DC)

445
Q

What is a single rail Power Supply?

A

It has one 12v output circuit

446
Q

Which type of power supply has one 12v circuit?

A

Single Rail Power Supply

447
Q

What is a multiple rail power supply?

A

Each rail has it’s own 12v output circuit

448
Q

What is an advantage of a multiple rail power supply?

A

It has additional protection. It can shut down a power supply if it is overloaded instead of burning up the power supply

449
Q

What is a thick client?

A

A usual desktop is called. Where everything is running on the desktop

450
Q

What is a thin client?

A

A desktop that the applications run on a remote server.

451
Q

What is needed most in a CAD/CAM workstation?

A

Processor, Video, RAM

452
Q

What is needed most in a Audio/Video Editing workstation?

A

Video, Storage

453
Q

What is needed most in a Virtualization workstation?

A

Processor, RAM

454
Q

What is needed most in a Home Theather workstation?

A

Video, Audio

455
Q

What is needed most in a Gaming workstation?

A

Processor, Video, Audio

456
Q

What is a LCD display?

A

Light shine through liquid crystals

457
Q

Does LCD require a backlight?

A

Yes

458
Q

What is a positive for Twisted Nematic (TN) LCD? (2)

A

Fast response times, low power draw

459
Q

What is a negative for Twisted Nematic (TN) LCD?

A

Poor viewing angles

460
Q

What is the most common type of LCD display?

A

Twisted Nematic (TN)

461
Q

What is the two types of LCD displays?

A

Twisted Nematic (TN), In Plane Switching (IPS)

462
Q

What is a positive for In Plane Switching (IPS) LCD? (2)

A

Excellent color representation, No tailing when touched

463
Q

What is a negative for In Plane Switching (IPS) LCD?

A

More expensive than the TN LCD

464
Q

What is the two different types of LCD backlights?

A

Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp (CCFL) and LED

465
Q

What is a Plasma display?

A

A display of tiny noble gas and mercury where voltage is powered to them to form a plasma

466
Q

What is a positive for a plasma display?(2)

A

Very fast response times, Great color representation

467
Q

What is common in digital projectors?

A

LCD

468
Q

What is a OLED display?

A

Organic compounds emit light when receiving an electric current

469
Q

Does an OLED display need a backlight?

A

No

470
Q

What is a negative for OLED displays?

A

The organic compounds degrade overtime so it has a short life span

471
Q

What is a refresh rate measured in?

A

Hz

472
Q

What is the common refresh rates for LCD? (3)

A

60, 120, 144 hz

473
Q

What is the display resolution?

A

Width X Height in pixels

474
Q

What is an aspect ratio?

A

The ratio of width to height

475
Q

What is a the standard monitor aspect ratio?

A

4:3

476
Q

What is the aspect ratio of a wide screen monitor?

A

16:10

477
Q

What is a HD aspect ratio?

A

16:9

478
Q

What could cause distortion on a monitor?

A

The monitor isn’t set to it’s native resolution

479
Q

What is native resolution?

A

It is the resolution the monitor was designed to be at (1920 x 1200)

480
Q

How is the display brightness of a monitor measured?

A

Lumens

481
Q

How is analog signals transmitted?

A

As a continuous signal

482
Q

How are digital signals transmitted?

A

As discrete values (1 or 0)

483
Q

What is a privacy filter for a monitor?

A

A film that you put on a monitor that will fade the screen if it is viewed from an angle

484
Q

What is it called when you have two monitors that display two different things?

A

Extending the desktop

485
Q

What is it called when you have two monitors that display the same thing?

A

Mirroring the desktop

486
Q

What does extending the desktop to two monitors do?

A

Two monitors with different things on them

487
Q

What does mirror the desktop to two monitors do?

A

Mirrors what is on one monitor to another

488
Q

What is 16:9 aspect ratio called?

A

HD

489
Q

What is 16:10 aspect ratio called?

A

Wide Screen

490
Q

What is 4:3 aspect ratio called?

A

Standard

491
Q

What is lumens?

A

How the brightness on a display is measured

492
Q

Which type of signal send it as discrete values?

A

Digtial

493
Q

Which type of signal send it as a continuous signal?

A

Analog

494
Q

What is the resolution called that monitor is designed to be at?

A

Native resolution

495
Q

What is it called that is width x height in pixels?

A

Aspect ratio

496
Q

Is HDMI backwards compatible with DVI?

A

Yes

497
Q

Is there a loss of video quality between HDMI and DVI?

A

No

CompTia 901 Exam Prep (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions