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Comptia A+ 1102 Prep > CompTIA A+ 1102 > Flashcards

CompTIA A+ 1102 Flashcards

1
Q

An Administrator uses a method that assigns permissions and rights to a collection of user accounts. What is it called?

  • ACL
  • MFA
  • Least Privileges
  • Security Group
A

Security group, a security group is. a collection of user accounts, as it is more efficient to assign permissions to a group that to assign them individually to each user.

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2
Q

The Instagram app on android phone will not launch. Which of the following options will fix the problem?

  • Force Stop
  • Software Update
  • AirDrop
  • Swiping
A

Force stop, if the app fails to launch, first user force stop to quit it and try launching again. In android, open settings > Apps. Tap an app then select force stop. In IOS, either swipe up of double tap the physical home button, then swipe the app up off the screen

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3
Q

A technician is cleaning off a computer and notices that dust forming over the fan blades and ventilation slots. What can the technician use to perform dust cleanup (select all that apply)

  • PC vacuum cleaner
  • Natural bristle brush
  • Domestic vacuum
  • Compressed air blaster
A

PC vacuum cleaner, natural bristle brush, and compressed air blaster

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4
Q

A client administration sets up a new system for the GUID partition table (GPT) partitioning. What dependency will the administrator need to set?

  • MBR
  • BIOS
  • TPM 2.0
  • UFEI
A

When the disk user GPT partitioning, the system firmware mist be set to use the UEFI boot method

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5
Q

The system restore tool in Windows is used to roll back configuration changes to an earlier date or restore point. One option for creating restore points is to use the task scheduler. What other actions will create a restore point? (Select all that apply)

  • Deleting a file
  • Rebooting
  • Updating an application
  • Installing a program
A

Whenever an app or program is installed, a restore point is created

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6
Q

What type of data breach can be associated with a specific person or use an anonymized of de-identified data set for analysis and research?

  • Open source license
  • PII
  • Healthcare data
  • Personnel government issued information
A

Healthcare data refers to medical and insurance records plus associated hospital and laboratory test results

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7
Q

What is this called when antivirus software scans a file before allowing or preventing it from opening?

  • Smart scanning
  • Quick scanning
  • On access scanning
  • Scheduled scanning
A

On access scanning is when the antivirus software intercepts an OS call to open a file and scans the file before allowing or preventing it from being opened. Most security software is now configured to scan on access

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8
Q

What is also known as a potential unwanted app and should be removed from the computer?

  • Potentially Unwanted Application (PUA)
  • Anti-virus software
  • Productivity Tools
  • Operating system update
A

Potentially Unwanted Application (PUA), an untrusted source is when an installer cannot be verified from a digital signature or has been a security risk and is likely to expose the user to unwanted adverts

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9
Q

A helpdesk operator looks at build number for Windows as they plan upgrade timelines. The operator investigates the significance of the build numbers. Which of the following are the are the build numbers based on? (Select all that apply)

  • Year
  • 32 bit vs 64 bit
  • Time of the year
  • Windows version
A

The number in 16 in build 1607 corresponds to the year 2016 of release

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10
Q

Many mobile apps collect information data. Rogue apps could use the location data for criminal purposes, such as burglary. However many legitimate apps also track a mobile user’s location. Why would a legitimate app have interest in a user’s location?

  • Targeted advertising
  • Redirection
  • Geotagging
  • Clicks
A

Legitimate apps are interested in tracking a user’s location for targeted advertising. For example, FB tracks the location of its user for that very reason

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11
Q

While browsing the internet, a user receives a pop-up that states. “We have detected a trojan virus. Click OK to begin the repairs process. Out of fright, the user clicks OK. Given the following choices, what is most likely the outcome of the user’s response?

  • UAC will need to be reenabled
  • Unwanted notifications start popping up in Windows
  • Nothing happens because Windows BL blocks the trojan virus
  • User starts experiencing drive by downloads
A

Malware targets the browser so clicking on a website pop up is likely to deliver some type of infection, such as adware, which will deliver unwanted notifications

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12
Q

While conducting an online search for cleaning services, a homeowner clicks on the link for one of the results. When the website loads, the page says “Warning: Potential Security Risk Ahead.” What would chase this message to appear? (select all that apply)

  • The cleaning service is out of business
  • The certificate is issued by an untrusted CA
  • The certificate is expired
  • Malware is trying to redirect the browser to a spoofed page
A

The certificate is issued by an untrusted CA, the certificate is expired, and Malware is trying to redirect the browser to a spoofed page

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13
Q

A video game development company is purchasing upgraded laptops to develop cutting edge graphics for a new story they have been marketing. They want to be able to integrate persistent RAM. What type of OS should they use for support?

  • Pro
  • Home
  • Enterprise
  • Pro for workstations
A

Windows pro for workstations has many of the same features as pro bit supports more maximum RAM and advanced hardware technologies, such as persistent system RAM

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14
Q

The IT department determines that the phone belonging to the company’s vice president suffers a compromise and that the personal and corporate data contained on the phone has leaked. Which of the following should the IT team do next?

  • Run an antivirus scan
  • Wipe the phone
  • Quarantine all devices that could be connected to the leak
  • Reboot the phone
A

If any personal or corporate data is leaked from a mobile device, each device that could have been a source for the files must be quarantined and investigated as a possible source of the breach

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15
Q

A company’s IT support specialist is ready to start recommissioning a system as part of the malware removal process. What is the last step before removing the computer from quarantine?

  • Verify DNS configuration
  • Anti virus scan
  • Re enable system restore
  • Create a fresh restore point
A

Before removing a computer system from quarantine, the final step is to run another antivirus scan to make sure the system is clean.

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16
Q

Which of the following extensions combined scripting language with hundreds of prebuilt modules called cmdlets that can access and change most of the components and features of Windows and AD components and features

  • .psl
  • .sh
  • .js
  • .py
A

.psl is the Powershell script file. Microsoft provides the Windows Powershell integrated scripting environment for rapid development

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17
Q

What is a type of employee device that must meet the profiles that the company requires, and the employee will have to agree on the installation of corporate apps and to some level of oversight and auditing?

  • COPE
  • COBO
  • BYOD
  • CYOD
A

BYOD is a mobile device owned by the employee. The mobile is usually the most popular with employees but poses the most difficulties fir security and network managers

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18
Q

A technician using a tool with a secure erase function that performs zero-filling on HDDs and marks all blocks as empty on SSDs. The SSD firmware’s automatic garbage collectors then perform the actual erase of each block over time. What is this tool?

  • Erasing/wiping
  • Shredding
  • Standard formatting
  • Low level formatting
A

A low level formatting tool resets a disk to its factory condition. Most of these tools will incorporate some sanitize function

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19
Q

What uses domain names of components loading on the web page against a vast blacklist?

  • Browser sign-in
  • Private browsing mode
  • Clearing browsing data
  • Adblocker
A

Ad blockers use more sophisticated techniques to prevent displaying anything that does not seem to be part of the sites main content or functionality

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20
Q

A user is attempting to gain confidential information by talking to the receptionist. What kind of attack is this, and what can prevent it?

A

Social engineering, this can be prevented with user education

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21
Q

An SSID similar the the company managed SSID is being broadcast as an open wireless network. What kind of attack is this and how can it be prevented?

A

Evil twin, it can be prevented by implementing 803.1X authentication

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22
Q

An internet faced web application is numbered with requests and is rendered unusable. What kind of attack is this and how can it be prevented?

A

DDOS, it can be prevented by implementing traffic analysis

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23
Q

A malicious email is sent to all employees in an attempt to gain information about their system. What kind of attack is this and how can it be prevented?

A

This is a phishing attack and it can be prevented by implementing message filtering

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24
Q

A Windows security log shows numerous login attempt with passwords containing basketball lingo. What king of attack is this and how can it be prevented?

A

Dictionary attack, this can be prevented by implementing an account lockout tool

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25
Q

Medical Facility: On arriving at work receptionist stated that the computer was already on and logged in despite the door being locked. Someone may have accessed the computer remotely. As a result, patient data records are at risk. What is the regulated data type of standard to comply with? PHI, PII, NIST, or EULA Which data is at risk?
- Anonymized data
- Billing address
- Data of Birth
- Prescribed medicines
- SSN

A

PHI, or protected health information. The patient’s billing address, date of birth, prescribed medications, and social security number are data at risk

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26
Q

Retail company: The systems admin for an online retail business has tasked a tech with performing specific updates on several systems. These updates are unique due to employees who process purchasing transactions. What regulated data type of standard to comply to? PII, PHI, PCI DSS, NIST, or EULA. What data is at risk?
- Account number
- Anonymized data
- CV2 number
- De identified data
- Shipping address

A

PCI DSS, account number, cv2 number, de-identified data, and shipping address

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27
Q

Commercial Bank: A support tech at the bank receives a customer call. The customer reports an unusual email from the bank. The email says the bank locked one of the user’s account. It requests government issued id to unlock the account. What regulated data type of standard is needed to comply to? PHI, EULA, PII or NIST? Which data is effected by this?
- Anonymized data
- Date of birth
- Email address
- Home address
- Last 4 SSN

A

PII, the data that is at risk is date of birth, email address, and last 4 of ssn

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28
Q

Online tutoring service: A support tech receives a call where the customer tried and failed to download a service update from a third party source. The service requires that you download updates only from their approved source list so that it’s genuine. What regulated data type or standard foes this comply with? NIST, PCI DSS, EMMA, EULA, PHI. What data is at risk?
- CA
- Catcha Verification
- De identified data
- SLA
- Software license

A

CA, captcha verification, SLA, & software license

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29
Q

What type of encryption does WPA2 use?

  • WPA3
  • AES
  • TKIP
  • MFA
A

AES & TKIP. AES is the standard encryption used by WPA2 and the strongest encryption standard to use by WiFi. TKIP tries to mitigate the various attacks against WEP developed by producing a new 128 bit encryption key for every packet sent on the network

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30
Q

An administrator in charge of user endpoint images wants to slipstream and use image deployment. Which boot method would best support this?

  • Internal hard drive
  • Network
  • Optical
  • Internet
A

Network boot setup means connecting to a shared folder containing installation files, which could be slipstreamed or use image deployment

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31
Q

A user finds that their iPhone 5 starts to run slowly, and a reboot does not solve the slow performance. Which of the following issues could be causing the problem? (Select all that apply)

  • Low Battery Charge
  • Too many apps open
  • Mesh network
  • OS update
A

Low battery charge and too many apps open

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32
Q

A technician is working with a customer who is being unreasonable. Which of the following skills should the technician use?

  • Do not take complaints personally
  • Hang up
  • Identify early that the customer is angry
  • Be judgmental
A

Do not take complaints personally, hang up, identify early that the customer is angry

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33
Q

A server admin notices a file server starting to run low on space. The admin wants to create extra space before all space is used up and even more issues arise. What should the admin use?

  • cleanmgr.exe
  • devmgmt.msc
  • dfrgui.exe
  • Disk queue length
A

The disk cleanup utility (cleanmgr.exe) regains disk capacity by deleting unwanted files, which can help to free up diskspace when running low.

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34
Q

An admin for Apple endpoints has heard about roaming profiles on Windows where user can sync certain settings from different devices. Which of the following offers a similar functionality?

  • iCloud Keychain
  • Keychain
  • Spotlight
  • Gestures
A

The keychain feature is also available as an iCloud keychain, making the same passwords securely available across all macOS and IOS devices.

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35
Q

A teenager hears from friends about a legitimate website to download games to their Samsung Galaxy phone that is not in the Google Play store. The teenager goes to the site and downloads some games. What best describes the teenager’s behavior?

A

APK Sideloading. APK is the file format for Android apps. APK side loading refers to downloading apps from a source other than Google’s play store.

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36
Q

A user is buying software for their PC. Which of the following would the user be purchasing for individual use?

  • Personal license
  • Corporate use license
  • DRM
  • Data Retention requirements
A

A personal license allows the product to be used by a single person at a time, though it might permit installation on multiple person devices.

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37
Q

A manager for a large corporation os in charge of client machines and is currently undergoing a lifecycle hardware refresh. They want to optimize the machines to be powerful enough to run applications. The manager also wants to be sure that they are not underpowered either. What can the manager use to determine CPU optimization?

  • Privileged time
  • Disk queue length
  • Pages/sec
  • User time
A

If privileged time is much higher than user time, the CPU is likely underpowered making it to where it can barely run Windows core processes efficiently.

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38
Q

Windows Commands

A

? - Allows you to substitute for a single unspecified character in a command.
* - Is a wildcard character that can be used to indicate a string of characters
w/ - When used with the dir command, can be used to list files using a wide format with no details
/o :n - When used with the dir command, can be used to list files in order of name

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39
Q

A curious user looks through their local logs and sees errors in region copy-protection mechanisms. What type of device is generating these logs?

  • External drive
  • SSD
  • Optical Media
  • USB
A

Optical media. Consumer DVDs and Blu-ray feature digital rights management (DRM) and region coding copy-protection mechanisms

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40
Q

Functions of the ADUC/User Properties interface objects.

A

MytestForest.local- specifies the domain/forest
Domain controllers- is an OU
Users- an organizational unit that contains user objects and security groups
Member of- views/modifies group membership
Home Folder: Connect- configures the mapping of a private drive to a network share
Profile- configures the roaming profile within the User profile area
General- the user properties does not display the user’s password settings

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41
Q

Advanced malware infection may require manual removal. Which of the following tools assists in manual malware removal? (Select all that apply)

  • cleanmgr
  • regedit
  • WinPE
  • msconfig
A

The regedit is a tool for marking direct edits to the registry database, such as manually removing registry items. The msconfig can be used to perform a safe boot to prevent any infected code from running at startup. The WinPE can be used to run commands from a clean command environment after booting the computer with a recovery disc.

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41
Q

A user experiences significant system instability on their computer. It frequently shuts down, freezes, reboots, and powers off with no accompanying error messages. Which of the following problems would cause this instability? (Select all that apply)

  • Too many connected devices
  • Misconfigured firewall
  • Overheating
  • Failing CPU
A

Excessive heat can damage computer circuitry and induce shutdowns, freezing and reboots. A common cause of overheating is fans clogged with dust.

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42
Q

Issue: Powering on the workstation results in a message on-screen stating. “No OS found”. What’s the troubleshooting steps to fix it?

A

Enter bootrec /fixboot at the command prompt to repair the boot, then hold START+CTRL+SHIFT+B

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43
Q

Issue: Screen keeps turning black and workstation must be restarted. How would you troubleshoot this issue?

A

Enter bootrec /rebuildbcd to attempt repair of the boot sector. Press key sequence START+CTRL+SHIFT+B, you’ll also need to run chkdsk, run src, update graphics adapter driver, rollback graphics adapter driver

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44
Q

A user is conscientious about security after hearing about breaches in the news. The user wants to see if they are up to date on patches for their Apple computer. Where should the user go to check?

  • Printers and scanners
  • Displays
  • System Preferences
  • App Store
A

App store, it checks daily for new updates/patches and releases of installed apps in macOS. If a new version is available, a notification will be shown against the App Store icon in the dock.

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44
Q

A telltale sign of a malware infection is when changes occur to system files. Which of the following is like the result of malware-induced changes to the system files? (Select all that apply)

  • Known good files with expired certificates
  • Files that are missing or renamed
  • Additional files with names similar to authentic system files, such as scvhose.docx or ta5kmagr.xlxx
  • Files with date stamps and file sizes that are different from known good versions
A
  • Files that are missing or renamed
  • Files with date stamps and file sizes that are different from known good versions
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45
Q

After starting the computer and signing in, a user notices the desktop takes a long time to load. Evaluate the following Windows OS problems to determine the one that best diagnoses what could be causing the slowness.

  • Time drift
  • Corrupted user profile
  • Invalid boot disk
  • Corrupted registry
A

When a computer starts normally, and a user logs in normally, the desktop is slow to load; a corrupted user file is likely the culprit.

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46
Q

A computer administrator sets up a client workstation to join a centrally managed network. What options should the admin configure to do this?

  • Update and security
  • Sign in options
  • Access work or school
  • Apps
A

Access work or school under the account settings app joins the computer to a centrally managed domain network

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47
Q

A technician implements a type of authentication method used on Windows machines that once users are authenticated, they are trusted by the system. What is this method?

  • RADIUS
  • TKIP
  • Kerberos
  • TACACS+
A

Kerberos allows a user account to authenticate to a domain controller over a trusted local cabled segment. Kerberos facilitates a SSO

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48
Q

A Linux server administrator notices a service they not do recognize, although the environment is quite big. They looks at the help file for the ash process, but the documentation seems poor. It does seem to indicate that it provides interactivity, however. What type of program is this?

  • Terminal
  • Antivirus
  • Backup
  • Updates
A

Terminal. The shell provides a command environment by which a user can operate the OS and applications. Many shell programs are available with Linus, notably Bash, zsh, and ksh.

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49
Q

A security admin for Linux systems in their dmz wants to ensure only some admins can perform certain commands. Which of the following is best used to lock down certain commands?

  • chmod
  • sudo
  • rm
  • chown
A

The sudo command allows any account listed in the /etc/sudoers file user to run specified commands with supers privilege level

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50
Q

A forensic investigator is told that a server’s processor that does not normally run high has been over-utilized lately, and they suspect possible malware. The investigator wants to start by investigating processes. Which command can they use to start the investigation? Select all that apply)

  • grep
  • ps
  • man
  • top
A

The ps command invokes the process table, a record that summarizes the currently running processes on a system. The top command lists all processes running on a Linux system like ps. It acts as a process management tool by enabling users to prioritize, sort, or terminate processes interactively.

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51
Q

A user receives an unsolicited call from a microsoft support technician during a normal workday. The technician says the antivirus software on the user’s computer alerted microsoft of a new malware infection. The technician needs to remote into the user’s computer to fix the problem. What is the technician trying to do?

  • Address the problem faster with a call rather than a pop-up notification alert
  • Proactively respond tp a virus alert
  • Address the problem faster with a call rather than an email
  • Circumvent security software
A

Circumvent security software. Microsoft does not directly support user and would never randomly contact a user. This scenario is a scam to try to steal a user’s credentials

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52
Q

A user notices their device has a leaking component and needs to take careful measures to minimize any risk and discard the approved component at the proper waste facility. Which of the following disposal is this?

  • Battery
  • Device
  • Fuse
  • Toner
A

Battery

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53
Q

A user is on a website using an HTTPS URL; the browser displays the information about the certificate in the address bar. What does the certificate validate

  • Secure connection
  • Untrusted source
  • Browser sign in
  • Pop-up blocker
A

A secure connection validates the host’s identity running a site and encrypts communication to protect against snooping

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54
Q

What ensures that old data is destroyed by writing to each location on a hard disk drive?

  • Erasing/wiping
  • Standard formatting
  • Low-level formatting
  • Incinerating
A

Erasing/wiping software ensures that old dara is removed using zeroes or random patterns, leasing the disk in a “clean” state ready to be passed to the new owner. This overwriting method is suitable for all but the most confidential data

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55
Q

An administrator users a method that uses SAE instead of the 4 way handshake. What is this method?

  • WPA3
  • TKIP
  • MFA
  • AES
A

WPA3 uses passphrase based group authenticationn of stations in private mode, it changes the method by which this secret is used to agree with session keys. The SAE protocol replaces the 4 way handshake.

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56
Q

A user disables some of the laptops’ services, thinking it would speed up performance. After restarting the laptop, “one or more services failed to start” appears. When the IT specialist opens the services snap-in, they identify the failed service and restart it, but that does not fix it. Which of the following scenarios best explains why the restart did. to work?

A

The user disabled a dependent service.

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57
Q

A server administrator wants to run the latest technologies. What technology should the admin start using which will replace NTFS?

  • APFS
  • REFS
  • EXT3
  • EXFAT
A

REFS is being developed to replace NTFS. ReFS is only available for Pro for Workstations and Enterprise editions and cannot currently be used for boot volume

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58
Q

A software company hires a new app developer. The corporate network denies access when the developer tries to connect their phone. Why would the network deny access from the developer’s mobile phone?

  • Sluggish response time
  • Developer mode
  • High network traffic
  • App spoofing
A

The developer’s phone is in developer mode.

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59
Q

A helpdesk manager assesses older Windows 7 computers their company owns and tries to determine available upgrade paths. Which of the following can NOT be upgraded?

  • Windows 7 Pro to Windows 10 Home
  • Windows 7 Home to Windows 10 Enterprise
  • Windows Home to Windows 10 Pro
  • Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 10 Pro
A

User s cannot upgrade from a Home to an Enterprise edition. If users considers an in-place upgrade, they must check that the current OS version is supported as an upgrade path to the intended version

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60
Q

A user just installed a new app on their workstation, but the app has issues even starting up. The user has been working on the machine regularly up to this point with any prior issues. Which of the following is most likely the issue?

  • DNS
  • Firewall
  • Personalization
  • Proxy
A

Firewall

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61
Q
  • rw-rw-r– 1 root root Coupon_text.txt

True or False: This text file gives read and write permissions to the “other” users.

A

False

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62
Q

chmod 755 Managed_list.pdf

True or false: After typing in this command, the PDF gives the owner rex permissions.

A

True

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63
Q

sudo chown root:root hr_updates.txt

True or False: After typing in this command, the root account is the new owner of the file.

A

True

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64
Q

What does the swapon command do in Linux?

A

Its used to activate a partition as a swap space.

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65
Q

What does the fdisk command do in Linux?

A

Creates and manages partitions on a hard disk.

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66
Q

What does the dd command do in Linux?

A

Has multiple uses, including the ability to clone a disk.

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67
Q

What does the mkfs command do in Linux?

A

Used to format a partition

68
Q

What does the mount command do in Linux?

A

Used to attach a storage device to a specific directory

69
Q

What does the mkswap command do in Linux?

A

Used to format a swap partition

70
Q

What uses a 4-way handshake to allow a station to associate with an access point, authenticate its credentials and exchange a key to use for data encryption

  • TKIP
  • WPA2
  • WPA3
  • MFA
A

WPA2 was designed to fix critical vulnerabilities in the earlier WEP standard. WPA2 used the AES cipher deployed within the counter mode, blocking the changing message CCMP.

71
Q

A server administrator was called in to help a VIP whose customer accidentally infected with a virus. The administrator wants to revert the computer but still preserve user personalization settings. What should the administrator use?

  • Refresh
  • 3rd Party Drivers
  • Factory Partition
  • Reset
A

Refresh. Windows supports refresh and reset options to try to repair the installation. Using refresh recopies the system files and reverts most system settings to the default but can preserve user personalization settings, data files, and more.

72
Q

A pen tester targeted top-level executives during a test by sending out phishing emails. They received their first shell when the first executive opened the attachment in the phishing email. Once the pen tester connects to the executive’s computer, what command will tell them the location of where their shell landed?

  • cp
  • mv
  • pwd
  • ls
A

pwd “prints” the working directory, though “printing” will typically mean “display on the terminal,” unless stdout is redirected. The working directory is important because commands will default to the working directory without specifying a path.

73
Q

A systems administrator wants to create a scheduled task throughout the environment, which does a basic health check at night when users are not working. Which command should the administrator use in their scheduled task?

  • xcopy
  • format
  • diskpart
  • chkdsk
A

chkdsk scans the file system and disk sectors for faults and attempt to repair any problems detected.

74
Q

An IT professional helps to fix their friend’s computer. The computer is running extremely slow. The IT professional notices the OS system is running Home edition. Which of the only service available for the home edition?

  • RDP is not a workable feature when using Windows Home edition and enables the user to connect to the machine and operate it over the network
  • Group policy editor is available when using the Windows Home edition and is used to create and apply OS and software application settings
  • Windows Home, Pro, and Enterprise can join a domain network, where’s Education does not
  • Bitlocker is not available when using the Windows Home edition and enables the user to decrypt all the information on a disk drive
A

RDP allows users to connect to the machine and operate it over a network. While the home edition has the RDP client software, it does not support an RDP server.

75
Q

The system restore tool in Windows is used to roll back configuration changes to an earlier date or restore point. One option for creating restore points is to use Task Scheduler. What other actions will create a restore point? (Select all that apply)

  • Rebooting
  • Installing a program
  • Updating am application
  • Deleting a file
A

When a program is installed or updated, a restore point is created.

76
Q

A malware infection can manifest in many ways, often making it diifu,t to diagnose. Malware may cause which of the following computer issues? (Select all that apply)

  • Roaming profiles
  • Windows update fails
  • UAC is enabled
  • Redirection
A

Windows update fails and redirection

77
Q

An employee uses an option to ask for help from a technician with an invitation file protected by a passcode. What is this option?

  • RMM
  • VPN
  • MSRA
  • RDP
A

MSRA allows a user to ask for help from a technician or co-worker by an invitation file protected by a passcode. The helper opens the invitation file to connect to the remote system.

78
Q

A server admin receives a report that the company’s external facing web serve is unresponsive. Rebooting the server would take too long, and they are not eve completely certain the sever would come back up. What utility should the administrator use to restart the website?

  • msconfig.exe
  • services.msc
  • certmgr.msc
  • regedit.exe
A

The services console (services.msc) starts, stops, and pauses processes running in the background. In order to make the configuration changes, regedit.exe in this group of options would be used.

79
Q

Which of the following alternatives can a customer select from when an issues cannot be resolved remotely? (Select all that apply)

  • Clarify customer statements
  • Proper documentation
  • Repair
  • Replace
A

Replace and repair

80
Q

A tech configures a method to run some server app from a network and make it accessible to the internet. What is this method?

  • UPnP
  • Disabling unused ports
  • Port forwarding
  • DHCP reservation
A

Port forwarding means that the router requests an internet host for a particular service and sends the request to a designated host on the LAN

81
Q

The IT department has learned that a new employee states on Monday and will need a computer just before the weekend. There is a used PC in the storeroom. A “no operating system found” message appears when the computer is rebooted after a tech installs Windows 10 on the computer with the hard drive partition style set to support UEFI. Determine which of the following scenarios would generate that message.

  • Faulty motherboard
  • Corrupted MBR
  • App crash
  • Damaged hard drive
A

The hard drive stores the files for the OS, so a damaged hard drive will generate the “no OS found” message

82
Q

An employee enters the web address of their local newspaper to check the news on the company, and a site pops up with many click-bait celebrity stories. The company re-enters the address assuming a misspelling but returns to the same page. When the help desk tech arrives, which of the following troubleshooting steps would be appropriate?

  • Check to see if the newspaper website’s certificate is expired
  • Check to see if the DNS browser is configured correctly
  • Check HOSTS files for malicious entries
  • Check the System Configuration Utility
A

It appears adware is driving traffic to another site to increase clicks. Since HOSTS maps domain names to IP addresses, the HOSTS file in the registry would show malicious entries to re-route IP addresses.

83
Q

A user needs to install a desktop all and use an app store that is reputable. What type of vendor is this?

  • Untrusted source
  • Browser sign-in
  • Secure connection
  • Trusted source
A

As the browser is a security critical type of software, it is particularly important to use a trusted source, such as an app store.

84
Q

A customer has open a ticket for a problem to be fixed and when the customer opens the ticket, there will be a record that shows what?

  • Follow up statements
  • Clarify customer statements
  • Proper documentation
  • Distractions
A

Proper documentation should be provided so that the customer knows what to expect in terms of supported items, how long incidents may take to resolve, and when they can expect an item to be replaced instead of repaired.

85
Q

A lawyer opens an email attachment that appears to be a court summons, but it is malware. The law firm’s IT consultant quarantines the lawyer’s system and then disables System Restore. Which of the following should IT disable?

  • RADIUS
  • File Sharing
  • Nearby Share
  • File history
A

File history is a Windows feature for automatically backing up user data. Any automated backup systems should be disabled, and any backup copies should b scanned for malware since they could also be infected.

86
Q

An IT manager is in charge of client machine administration. The manager wants to test various boot settings before applying them to the environment. Which tool can the manager use to accomplish this best?

  • drfrgui.exe
  • gpedit.msc
  • msconfig.exe
  • cleanmgr.exe
A

msconfig.exe is used to modify various settings and files that affect the way the computer boots and loads Windows.

87
Q

A user wants to experiment with virtualization solution. Where can the user go to enable this?

  • Features
  • Store apps
  • WSL
  • File explorer
A

Windows Features are components of the OS that can be enabled or disabled. For example. the Hyper-V virtualization platform can be installed as an optional feature in supported Windows editions.

88
Q

A computer technician wants to optimize the input/output operations performance of HDDs. What should the tech utilize?

  • devmgmt.msc
  • dfgui.exe
  • resin.exe
  • sec pool.msc
A

dfrgui.exe runs various operations to speed up the performance of HDDs

89
Q

A user wants to use the copy command but it unfamialr with the syntax and switches. What can they use to learn more? (Select all that apply)

  • xcopy help
  • help xcopy
  • xcopy |
  • xcopy /?
A

help xcopy & xcopy /?. What using help command, the help system lists the syntax and switches used for the command. The user can also display help on a particular command by using the /? switch.

90
Q

A helpdesk operator wants to use a set of tools that will help them during the troubleshooting. What can help the operator customize their toolset?

  • mmc
  • gpedit.msc
  • lusmgr.msc
  • tasksch.msc
A

The mmc command allows the operator to perform MMC customization and create a console with a personal selection of snap-ins. The console can be saved to the Administrative Tools folder as a file with a MSC extension.

91
Q

A user starts experiencing a BSoD on start up. What changes should the user check for when they are able to get back on their computer?

  • WSL
  • devmgmt.msc
  • taskschd.msc
  • services.msc
A

Most BSoD’s, especially those that occur during startup, are caused by faulty hardware or hardware drivers. Devmgmt.msc allows users to view and edit the properties of installed hardware.

92
Q

An incident handler is reviewing a possible crypto mining infection on one of the corporate servers. What should the handler use first to investigate?

  • eventvwr.msc
  • taskmgr.exe
  • regedit.exe
  • tasksch.msc
A

Taskmgr.exe tool can monitor the PC’s key resources. Cryptomining software will use resources heavily, so this would be the first place to look.

93
Q

A server administrator manages client images throughout their environment using a Windows deployment server. However, the security team asks for a specific text box that cannot be joined to the domain to test malware. Which of the following licenses could the admin use for the test box to gain the desired results?

  • Education
  • OEM
  • Enterprise
  • Home
A

The Windows Home edition cannot be joined to a domain. It is designed for domestic consumers and possible small office home office business use.

94
Q

A developer needs a laptop that will run MYSQL locally for their development project. The minimum memory required is 16GB of RAM. Which architecture should the developer use?

  • x86
  • x64
  • Either x86 or x64 will work
  • ARM
A

Each version and edition of Windows 10 was originally available as 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) software. The 64-bit version is needed because the 32-bit only supports 4GB of system memory.

95
Q

An IT admin at a university plans to push out security configuration to their computer lap to help prevent infection. Which of the following would best help the admin?

  • Bitlocker
  • Group Policy
  • RDP
  • Services Console
A

GP is used to create and apply OS and software app settings. These could be configured on each machine individually, but more typically they are applied via policies configured on the domain controller.

96
Q

A network admin is looking for an alternative network operating system (NOS) but also does not want a steep learning curve. Which of the following optimizes for NOS functionality?

A
  • Windows Server 2019 and Windows Server 2022 are optimized for use as NOS’s. However, they share the same underlying code and desktop interface as the client versions.
97
Q

A manager in charge of client images wants to test out new updates that do not make medical changes to Windows. What should the manager most likely look for?

  • Quality update
  • Feature update
  • Upgrade
  • Patches
A

In addition to feature updates, Windows is updated periodically with quality updates. Quality updates do not usually make radical changes to Windows, though some do include new features.

98
Q

A cyber intern is tasked with installing a Windows 32-bit program on a company computer which is running a 64-bit version of Windows. To confirm it is installed correctly. What folder can the intern view to ensure all files are present?

  • Program files (x86)
  • Program files
  • %SystemRoot%\system32
  • %SystemRoot%\system64
A

For this scenario the intern will ensure the files are found within the Program Files (x86) folder as this is where 32-bit apps files are installed.

99
Q

A user calls in about an invalid disk boot error. What is the most common cause of this issue?

  • Floppy disk left in the drive on a restart
  • OS loader not found
  • USB set as the primary boot method
  • Driver corruption
A

Check for any removable disk, and change the boot device priority/boot order if necessary. If the system firmware returns an error message such as invalid boot disk, then the system has completely failed to boot.

100
Q

A user experiences a slow desktop load, so they want to try to rebuild their local user profile. Which of the following is an invalid file when considering user profiles?

  • NTUSER.MSI
  • NTUSER.DAT
  • NTUSER.DAT.LOG
  • NTUSER.INI
A

NTUSER.MSI is not a valid Windows file and if a user see it then it is most likely malware.

101
Q

A user boots a Windows device into the BIOS but recognizes no bootable disks. What is most likely the problem?

  • It is using MBR partitioning
  • It is using GPT partitioning
  • It is using APFS
  • It is using ext3
A

When the disk uses GPT partitioning, the system firmware must be set to use the UEFI boot method. If the boot method is set to BIOS, the disk will not be recognized as a boot device.

102
Q

A student considers upgrading but has many custom drivers and hardware in their Windows-drive rig. Where can the student look for a catalog to test drives and drivers for this platform?

  • HCL
  • PXE
  • NIST
  • SED
A

Microsoft maintains a Windows Logo’d Product List (LPL) catalog, also called the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). This is a catalog of tested devices and drivers. If a device has not passes Windows logo testing, users should check the device vendor’s website to confirm whether there is a driver available.

103
Q

A security admin is concerned about the introduction of new software to the environment . What security considerations should be made when allowing new software in the environment? (Select the best two options)

  • Vendor reputation
  • Trusted sources
  • Digital signature
  • User reviews
A

Ensuring that software is only installed from trusted sources minimizes the risk of introducing malware, Trojan horses, or other malicious software into the environment

104
Q

A curious IT professional investigates the hidden System Reserved partition. What will the professional find contained in the partition?

  • RMM
  • MSDS
  • NLA
  • BCD
A

The BOOTMGR and the boot configuration data (BCD) file are normally installed to a hidden System Reserved partition.

105
Q

A server admin tests an app migration from a 32-bit server to a 64-bit server, but the app is still 32-bit. Where will Windows run the app?

  • PXE
  • SED
  • WOW
  • OEM
A

In 64-bit Windows, the apps run within a special app environment called WOW64.

106
Q

A project manager implements a new ticketing system that allows the helpdesk to record knowledge, streamline efficiencies, and automate solutions. Which of the following is the least of concerns for app support?

  • Licensing
  • Distribution method
  • Support
  • Training
A

A distribution method is normally not a major concern. Distribution is fairly standardized for Windows, Mac, and Linux computers.

107
Q

A user is experiencing what seems to be latency, which is affecting their ability to work. They decide to validate their theory with a ring test. What will indicate latency?

  • ARP
  • RTT
  • APIPA
  • DNS
A

If the ping is successful, it responds with the message reply from IP address and the time it takes for the host’s response to arrive. The millisecond (ms) measures of round-trip time (RTT) can be used to diagnose latency problems.

108
Q

A server administrator wants to connect to a user’s computer and push a file through Server Message Block (SMB). How should the admin connect to the computer?

  • \userhost\C$
  • userhost
  • CompTIA.com
  • 192.168.14.25
A

To connect to a computer via SMB, the admin should use \userhost\C$

109
Q

A support tech receives a call from a user who cannot seem to access a department share at \fileserv01\ShareDrive. The user also explains that they can somehow reach the share via the IP at \192.168.8.20\ShareDrive. Which of the following should the tech check first?

  • DNS
  • RTT
  • Firewall
  • APIPA
A

If a service such as domain name service (DNS) is not working, users will be able to connect to servers by IP address but not by name.

110
Q

A server admin wants to connect to a user’s computer. They are trying to get their patching numbers up and discover that users must pull the updates, so the admin wants to push a script that forces the pull. The admin wants to copy the file to users’ automatically hidden shares. Which of the following could the admin use? (Select all that apply)

  • C:\Windows$
  • C$
  • C:\Users$
  • ADMIN$
A

In addition to any local shares created by a user, Windows automatically creates hidden admin shares. This includes the root folder of any local drives (C$)

111
Q

A network admin responds to users calling in about a slow network. Which command should the administrator use to diagnose the chokepoint?

  • ipconfig
  • hostname
  • pathping
  • msconfig
A

The pathping command performs a trace and then pings each hop router a given number of times for a given period to determine the RTT and measure link latency more accurately

112
Q

A security conscientious admin wants to make computer authentication more secure. Which of the following would be the optimal method?

  • Device token
  • Facial recognition
  • MFA
  • UAC
A

An authentication technology is considered strong if it is MFA.

113
Q

A PC user is looking at the wireless card adapter properties on their Windows computer. Which of the following is the most important setting to verify in order to ensure the PC is capable of connecting to an existing network?

  • Power transmission
  • SSID
  • Automatic connection
  • Protocol support
A

Wi-Fi properties for the adapter are configured via Device Manager. The most important setting on a wireless card is support for the 802.11 standards supported by the access point.

114
Q

A transportation company outfits its mobile units with devices that will enable them to analyze routes, patterns, and create effencies. The devices will connect to their cloud servers through a 4G WWAN. What will the company need to help ensure the devices connect to the cloud resources?

  • VPN
  • SIM
  • NLA
  • Link-layer Topology Discovery
A

For GSM & 4G or 5g services, the adapter must also be fitted with a SIM card issued by a network provider.

115
Q

A pentester looks to harvest credentials from users who log in locally. Where should the pen tester look for users who authenticated locally?

  • SAM
  • Kerboros
  • VPN
  • Web portal
A

SAM. In a Windows local sign-in, the LSA compares the submitted credential to the one stored in the SAM database, which is part of the registry. This is also referred to as interactive login.

116
Q

A users calls in to support, complaining that they can not seem to reach anything on the network. The user was able to receive an IP address of 169.254.15.83 though. What is most likely the problem?

  • No internet access
  • The computer does not receive a DNS entry.
  • It cannot find the wireless SSID
  • No DHCP server found
A

No DHCP server found. When no DHCP server can be contacted, the adapter will either use an address from the automatic IP addressing (APIPA) 169.254.x.y range or will use an address specified as an alternate configuration in IPv4 properties.

117
Q

A security engineer investigates legacy application and employees that are still using them. Which of the following user group represent a security concern?

  • Guest
  • Power users
  • Standard account
  • Local users and groups
A

The power users group is present to support legacy apps. This approach created vulnerabilities that allowed accounts to escalate to the administrator’s group.

118
Q

A Windows admin wants to divide up into different admin realms to delegate responsibility for administering company departments. What should the admin use to do this?

  • Security groups
  • Member server
  • Group policy
  • OU
A

An OU is a way of dividing a domain up into different administrative realms. Administrators might create OU’s to delegate responsibility for administering company departments or locations.

119
Q

A desktop tech is setting up a new PC on a local network and is trying to install software as part of the setup process. They try to access a network share via a UNC path of \fileserv01\Setup\Apps and get a message that the location cannot be reached. They ping the file server by IP and get a reply. What network configuration on the PC should be prioritized for investigation?

  • DHCP
  • DNS
  • VPN
  • NIC
A

DNS would be the first thing to check. If a network resource does not seem to be reachable by hostname (fileserv01) but it can be reached by pinging the IP, the PC cannot seem to resolve the host name, which could indicate a problem with DNS settings.

120
Q

A user wants to secure their home router. Which of the following are strong security practices? (Select all that apply)

  • Content filtering
  • Disable 2.4 GHz Broadcast
  • Firmware update
  • AAA
A

Content filtering means that the firewall downloads curated reputation databases that associate IP address ranges, FQDNs, and URL web addresses with sites known to hose various categories of content like malware, spam, or other threats.

Users should keep the firmware and driver for the home router up to date with the latest patches.

121
Q

A vulnerability manager is ramping up the vulnerability management program at their company. Which of the following is the most important consideration for prioritizing patching?

  • Actor
  • Threat
  • Risk
  • MFA
A

Risk is the likelihood and impact of a threat actor exercising a vulnerability. This is the most important aspect of the prioritization of patches.

122
Q

A server admin for a corporation with an enterprise network was tasked with setting up a website hosted on premise. How should the admin set it up?

  • Content filtering
  • UPnP
  • Port forward
  • Screened subnet
A

A screened subnet can also be referred to by the depreciated terminology DMZ. The idea of a screened subnet is that some hosts are placed in a separate network segment with a different IP subnet address range than the rest of the LAN.

123
Q

A network professional sets up the ability to authenticate over EAPoW. Which of the following will the professional need to configure?

  • TACACS+
  • WPA3
  • AD
  • MFA
A

EAPoW is a protocol used for wireless network authentication. It allows for a variety of authentication methods to be used over wireless networks.

124
Q

A security analyst is looking at the overall security status of systems on the network. Which of the following represents the greatest risk?

  • EOL system
  • Unprotected system
  • Zero day
  • Non-compliant system
A

A legacy or EOL system is one where the software vendor no longer provides support or fixes for problems.

125
Q

A jewelry retail chain has just discovered how to create a new form of jewels that never has been seen before. They want to set up an alarm system that triggers if the jewels are taken out of they glass display case. What type of alarm should the jewelry chain install to secure the glass display case containing the jewels?

  • Motion sensors
  • RFID
  • Circuit
  • Duress
A

A circuit based alarm sounds when the circuit opens or closes. In this context, the alarm could trigger if someone opens the glass display case, making it an ideal choice.

126
Q

A network admin analyzes the physical placement of routers or network appliances to ensure a secure location. What us the admin helping to prevent?

  • Default password
  • Power off
  • Firmware update
  • Evil twin
A

A non-malicious threat actor could damage or power off an appliance by accident.

127
Q

A network admin is setting up admin access to network devices. What common solution is used for this?

  • Kerberos
  • TACACS+
  • RADIUS
  • EAP
A

TACACS+ is an AAA protocol like RADIUS, but it is typically used for device administration rather than user access to the network.

128
Q

A server admin discovers that a server service account for a FTP server was compromised. Which of the following exploits or vulnerabilities did the malicious actor use?

  • XXS
  • SQL injection
  • Plaintext authentication
  • DoS
A

A plaintext authentication password can be captured by obtaining a password file or by sniffing unencrypted traffic on the network.

129
Q

A mobile device manager is looking at data encryption and the “Data Protection” settings. Which of the following does this protect?

  • Contacts
  • SMS Message
  • Picture
  • Email Data
A

Email data and any apps using the “Data Protection” option are subject to a second round of encryption using a key derived from and protected by the user’s credential.

130
Q

A user started using NFC for payments; however, the user is unable to pay using NFC. Which of the following is not part of troubleshooting?

  • Unlock
  • Ensure airplane mode is off
  • Hold closer and longer to the reader
  • List in recipients’s authorized list
A

To use bluetooth the sender must be listed in the recipients contacts list. This is not a step in NFC troubleshooting

131
Q

A security analyst analyzes how attackers perform exploits against IOS operating systems. Which of the following is most applicable?

  • Sideloaded apps
  • While tethered
  • Root access
  • Clear app cache
A

For most exploits, this can only be done when the device is attached to a computer while it boots which is a tethered jailbreak

132
Q

A security manager proactively looks for solutions to prevent illegitimate apps from running on corporate iOS devices and stealing credentials. What us the security manager concerned about?

  • App store
  • Develooper tools
  • OS compatibility
  • Overheating
A

Under iOS, using the developer tools can be a means of installing apps from out side the app store without having to jailbreak the device

133
Q

A security manager puts together a security awareness campaign for mobile devices. Which of the following is least likely to be a symptom of malware?

  • High number of ads
  • Sluggish response time
  • Unexpected reboots
  • Redirect to spoofed sites
A

A device that randomly reboots might just be overheating

134
Q

A security manager is looking at mobile devices. They are investigating no-root firewalls and understanding how this works. Which of the following best describes no-root firewalls?

  • Control access locally
  • Block phasing sites
  • Control access through a VPN
  • Block adware
A

“No-root” firewalls work by creating a VPN then controlling app access to the VPN

135
Q

A user is experiencing issues on their iPhone. What troubleshooting option should the user initially try?

  • Disable safe mode
  • Perform a power cycle
  • Perform a settings/general/factory reset
  • Perform a system/advanced/factory reset
A

Perform. a power cycle

136
Q

A problematic Windows system with multiple operating systems installed does not boot properly. A support tech tries to diagnose by outlining the boot process. The tech determines that the system uses an EFI system partition. Which file does the tech inspect for problems related to a specific OS boot problem?

  • BOOTMGR
  • NTOSKRNL
  • HAL
  • BOOTMGFW
A

BOOTMGFW. The GUID partition table identifies a system partition. The system partition contains the boot manager and the BCD. Each windows installation has a subfolder under \EFI\Microsoft\ that contains a BCD and BOOTMGFW.EFI

137
Q

A new help desk technician receives a support call from a user. What initial information does the tech ask the user to provide? (Select all that apply)

  • Description of the issue
  • Contact details
  • System specs
  • Hard drive type
A

Description of the issue and contact details because users may not be as tech savvy to answer the rest

138
Q

An IPv6 address is made up of bits that identify the network and host of a system. How many bits long is an IPv6 address in total and how many bits identify the host portion? (Select all that apply)

  • 128
  • 32
  • 256
  • 64
A

In IPv6, the address is 128 bits long and the network prefixes are used to identify logical networks within the first 64 bits IPv6 uses hexadecimal values for notation

139
Q

A user modifies a Windows 10 computer’s ease of access settings. Which settings group configures Keyboard usability?

  • Vision
  • Hearing
  • Power
  • Interaction
A

Interaction configures options for keyboard and mouse usability. The user can also enable speech and eye controlled input methods

140
Q

A user enables privacy settings on a windows 10 computer. Which settings pertain to app permissions? (Select all that apply)

  • Location service
  • Language settings
  • Use of speech
  • Camera and microphone
A

App permission allow or deny access to devices such as the location service and to user data such as contacts, calendar items, email and files

141
Q

A tech receives a company laptop from an employee who states they are unable to authenticate from one Windows system to another in a domain but fails with no error message and has verified the username and password are correct. What does the tech determine the issue to be?

  • App crash
  • Time drift
  • Failed service
  • Blue screen of death
A

Processes such as authentication and back depend on the time reported by the local PC being closely synchronized to the time kept by a server

142
Q

What might a security engineer suggest as a solution to deter lunchtime attacks?

  • Strong password
  • Biometrics
  • Permissions
  • Policies
A

A lunchtime attack is where a threat actor is able to access a computer that has been left unlocked which implementing a policy can prevent

143
Q

A Windows user runs the Defragment & Optimize Drives tool (dfrgui.exe) on a ssd. What action will the tool take on the drive? (Select all that apply)

  • Rewriting of data into contiguous clusters
  • Identifying blocks that are deletable
  • Tagging blocks as writable
  • Tracking files that can be safely erased
A

Identifying blocks that are deletable & tagging blocks as writable

144
Q

A user needs to restore a problematic Windows system to its original factory state. What approach does the user utilize to achieve the restoration?

  • Windows refresh
  • Recovery partition
  • Clean install
  • In-place upgrade
A

Recovery partition. A factory recovery partition is a tool used by the OEMs to restore the OS environment to its ship state.

145
Q

An engineer configures an AAA server to authenticate credentials for remote users. Credentials are forwarded to the AAA server from a firewall. Which AAA method does the engineer utilize?

  • TACACS+
  • RADIUS
  • Kerberos
  • AD
A

RADIUS is one way of implementing the AAA server when configuring enterprise authentication. The firewall is configured as a client of the RADIUS server

146
Q

Which type of malware replicates between processes rather than infecting a files?

  • Worm
  • Trojan
  • Virus
  • Pop-up
A

Worms replicate between processes in system memory rather than infecting an executable file stored on a disk.

147
Q

A user opens a ticket after seeing that a company video, embedded within a particular internal webpage, is not displaying as it should. What does a support tech conclude to be mot likely true?

  • A plugin
  • An extension
  • A search provider
  • An API
A

A plugin plays or shows some sort of content embedded in a web page or other video/multimedia format. In this case, a plugin is missing a particular. page that is not displaying content.

148
Q

A tech firm deploys wireless installations at client sites. As the firm uses WPA3, which security technology does the deployment utilize? (Select all that apply)

  • RC4
  • SAE
  • 4 Way Handshake
  • AES GCMP
A

SAE & AES GCMP

149
Q

A user would like to install an updated Windows OS on a computer. There are no files that need to be saved. What options does the user have to accomplish this? (Select all that apply)

  • Recovery partition
  • Windows reset
  • Clean install
  • In place upgrade
A

Clean install & in-place upgrade

150
Q

When used with a particular command, what switch lists the syntax and switches used for the command?

  • %
  • *
  • /w
  • /p
  • /o:s
  • /?
A

/?

151
Q

What wildcard character can be used to indicate a string of characters?

  • %
  • *
  • /w
  • /p
  • /o:s
  • /?
A

*

152
Q

When used with the dir command, what switch(es) can be used to list files using a wide format with no details?

  • %
  • *
  • /w
  • /p
  • /o:s
  • /?
A

/w

153
Q

When used with the dir command, what switch(es) can be used to list files in order of size?

  • %
  • *
  • /w
  • /p
  • /o:s
  • /?
A

/o:s

154
Q

A recent software installation on a Windows desktop fails. Which internal log file does a tech review to see what may have gone wrong?

  • System
  • App
  • Security
  • Setup
A

App logs contain information regarding non-core processes and utilities for some 3rd party apps

155
Q

A user boots and installs a legacy Windows OS on a computer. The user notices that after installation, the system requires many drivers and updates to bring it to a healthy and up to date state. The user finds that it is not possible to add updates to which installation media type?

  • A network boot
  • Non-Writable Optical Disk
  • Flash drive
  • Internet based
A

Non-writable Optical Disks are dated

156
Q

how might a mobile device management suite of software detect that a user has rooted an android device?

  • The device is in developer mode
  • There is no valid developer code signature
  • The IOS device is jailbroken
  • Access is denied to an enterprise app
A
  • MDM suites have routines to detect a “rooted” device or custom firmware with no valid developer code signature
157
Q

A user would like to delete a mapped drive labeled as “X” on a Windows system. Which command will the user issue at the command prompt?

  • net use X: /delete
  • net delete X:
  • net delete *
  • net use X: \server\share
A

There are several net and net use command utilities that are useful in viewing an configuring shared resources on a Windows network. To delete a drive mapping the correct syntax is net use X: /delete

158
Q

Unlicensed spectrum refers to the operator using a public frequency band, such as 900 MHz or which(s)?

A. 5 GHz only
B. 2.4 GHz only
C. Both
D. 20 MHz channels on 2.4 GHz

A

C. An unlicensed spectrum means the operator can use a public frequency band like 900 MHz, both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz, as long-range fixed wireless

159
Q

Which system works out a devices location by triangulating its proximity to other radio sources through identifying and tracking objects using special tags?

A. GPS
B. RFID
C. IPS
D. NFC

A

B. RFID identifies and tracks objects using specially encoded tags that can be unpowered and passive, responding when scanned at close range or from a powered, active device within 100m

160
Q

The network operator is trying to minimize the potential for conflicts in an unlicensed power output but knows regulatory requirements limit them. Gain measures a wireless signal’s power. What is gain, and how is it measured?

A. Gain is the transmit strength of the radio measured in dBm.
B. Gain is the amount of boost that occurs in a focused antenna signal, measured in dBi
C. Gain is the wireless antenna signal, measured in dBi
D. Gain is the sum of transmit power expressed in dBm

A

B. Gain is the amount of boost an antenna signal receives by directionality, focusing the signal in a single direction rather than spreading it over a wide area, and is measured in dBi

161
Q

Some products are known to use the combined throughput of all radios. For example, the AX6000 claims nominal rates of 1,148 Mbps on the 2.4 GHz radio and 4,804 Mbps over 5 GHz. This type is an example of what?

A. A WPA 2 connection of WPA3 device
B. An upgraded WiFi 4 set to operate on both bands
C. A device for WiFi 6 that can operate on both bands
D. A WiFi adapter that can operate on both bands

A

C. A 2.4GHz band allows legacy connections with WPA2-Personal security, while the 5 GHz network is for 802.11ax or WiFi cable devices using WPA3-SAE authentication

162
Q

Suppose a network specialist establishes a fixed long range wireless device to configure a bridge between two networks and wants to use a specific frequency. What would be the best way for the operator to ensure signal quality?

A. Use a frequency not needing a license and minimize conflicts by ensuring the power output is strong
B. Obtain a license to purchase exclusive rights to the frequency within a geographical area from the FCC
C. Install antennas to transmit signals via satellite unobstructed from single directions not needing a license
D. Use a public unlicensed frequency but understand that these frequencies mean interference is a risk

A

B. Regulations state that to cover long distances, the operator must carefully configure devices with precisely aligned point to point line of sight, fixed wireless ground based high gain microwaves and a license for exclusive rights to a frequency given by the FCC

163
Q

The network specialist sets up a long range fixed wireless installation and operates on a public frequency without a license. Is this legal?

A. No. The public spectrum requires the operator using that frequency band to have a license to operate
B. Yes. However the radio spectrum requires the operator to carefully shield the transmitters covering long distances to avoid obtaining a license.
C. Yes. Installations may use an unlicensed spectrum but cannot exceed the EIRP defined from regulations
D. No. The point to point fixed wireless uses ground based high gain microwave antennas precisely aligned with one another, requiring a license

A

C. Installations may use any unlicensed public spectrum but must not exceed the band’s EIRP defined by regulations

163
Q

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses the topic of conducting external or internal research based on symptoms, if necessary. Which step covers this topic?

A. Fourth step
B. First step
C. Second step
D. Fifth step

A

C. The second step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a theory of probable cause which, if necessary, includes conducting external or internal research based on symptoms

163
Q

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for troubleshooting by using CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model. The first step of this model includes the identification of the problem. What should the technician consider when implementing this step in the model? (Select all that apply)

A. Gather information from the user, identify user changes, and, if applicable, perform backups before making changes
B. Consider corporate policies procedures, and impacts before implementing changes
C. If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms
D. Inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes

A

A & D. The first step in the CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model is to identify the problem, which includes gathering information from the user, identifying user changes, and, if applicable, performing backups before making changes

164
Q

A software technician is following the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model and is gathering information from the employee of the contracted vendor. What questions could the technician ask the employee to gain the desired information? (Select all that apply)

A. How long has the problem been occurring?
B. Is anyone else experiencing the same problem?
C. Has management been notified of this issue?
D. What are the exact error messages appearing on the screen or coming from the speaker?

A

A & B. Before examining the computer, the technician should gather data from the user by asking what exact error messages are appearing on the screen or are coming from the speaker, as well as the length of time the problem has been occurring & ask if anyone else is experiencing the same problem.

165
Q

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model where is discusses referring to the vendor’s instructions for guidance. Which step in CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model discusses this topic?

A. Fourth step
B. Third step
C. Sixth step
D. Second step

A

A. The fourth step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, then implement the solution, including referring to the vendor’s instructions for guidance.

165
Q

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses first confirming the theory and then determining the next steps to resolve the problem. Which part of CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model covers this topic?

A. Sixth step
B. Third step
C. Fifth step
D.Second step

A

B. The third step in the CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause, confirming the theory, and then determining the next steps to resolve the problem

166
Q

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA’s A+ troubleshooting model that dicusses when the theroty is not confirmed, then the next step is to re-establish a new theory or escalate it. Which part of the troubleshooting model covers this topic?

A. Third step
B. Second step
C. Fifth step
D. Sixth step

A

A. The third step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause. If the technician cannot confirm the theory, then it requires re-establishing a new theory or escalating to a supervisor

Comptia A+ 1102 Prep (1 decks)

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