CompTIA A+ Practice Questions Flashcards by Elevate Elevate

Which type of memory is typically used for cache?
- a) DRAM
- b) SRAM
- c) VRAM
- d) Flash memory

b) SRAM

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What is the purpose of a motherboard’s chipset?
- a) To store the operating system
- b) To connect the CPU to other components
- c) To provide power to the CPU
- d) To cool the CPU

b) To connect the CPU to other components

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Which type of RAM is used in laptops due to its smaller size?
- a) DIMM
- b) RIMM
- c) SIMM
- d) SO-DIMM

d) SO-DIMM

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What is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0?
- a) 480 Mbps
- b) 5 Gbps
- c) 10 Gbps
- d) 20 Gbps

b) 5 Gbps

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Which type of connector is commonly used for analog video output?
- a) HDMI
- b) DisplayPort
- c) VGA
- d) DVI

c) VGA

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What is the function of a power supply unit (PSU) in a computer?
- a) To provide network connectivity
- b) To supply electrical power to the components
- c) To cool the CPU
- d) To store data

b) To supply electrical power to the components

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Which of the following is an example of non-volatile memory?
- a) RAM
- b) Cache
- c) ROM
- d) Register

c) ROM

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Which type of storage uses magnetic disks to store data?
- a) SSD
- b) HDD
- c) USB flash drive
- d) Optical disk

b) HDD

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Which port is typically used to connect a printer to a computer?
- a) VGA
- b) HDMI
- c) USB
- d) RJ45

c) USB

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Which tool can be used to test the functionality of a power supply?
- a) Multimeter
- b) POST card
- c) Cable tester
- d) Loopback plug

a) Multimeter

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What is the primary function of a switch in a network?
- a) Route data between different networks
- b) Provide IP addresses to devices
- c) Connect multiple devices within the same network
- d) Store and manage files

c) Connect multiple devices within the same network

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Which protocol is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses?
- a) DHCP
- b) DNS
- c) ARP
- d) FTP

c) ARP

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What is the default port number for HTTP?
- a) 20
- b) 21
- c) 80
- d) 443

c) 80

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Which type of network cable uses light to transmit data?
- a) Twisted pair
- b) Coaxial
- c) Fiber optic
- d) Serial

c) Fiber optic

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What is the primary purpose of DHCP in a network?
- a) To resolve domain names to IP addresses
- b) To dynamically assign IP addresses to devices
- c) To provide secure remote access
- d) To manage file sharing

b) To dynamically assign IP addresses to devices

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Which wireless standard operates at 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies?
- a) 802.11a
- b) 802.11b
- c) 802.11g
- d) 802.11n

d) 802.11n

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What is the function of a firewall in a network?
- a) To filter and block unauthorized access
- b) To provide IP addresses to devices
- c) To store and manage files
- d) To connect multiple devices within the same network

a) To filter and block unauthorized access

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Which device connects multiple networks and directs data packets between them?
- a) Switch
- b) Router
- c) Hub
- d) Bridge

b) Router

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Which IP address class allows for the largest number of individual host addresses?
- a) Class A
- b) Class B
- c) Class C
- d) Class D

a) Class A

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What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation)?
- a) To translate domain names to IP addresses
- b) To secure data transmission over the internet
- c) To convert private IP addresses to public IP addresses
- d) To route data packets within a local network

c) To convert private IP addresses to public IP addresses

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Which component in a mobile device is responsible for detecting its orientation?
- a) Gyroscope
- b) Accelerometer
- c) Magnetometer
- d) Proximity sensor

b) Accelerometer

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Which operating system is primarily used on Apple mobile devices?
- a) Android
- b) iOS
- c) Windows Mobile
- d) BlackBerry OS

b) iOS

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What type of display technology is commonly used in modern smartphones?
- a) CRT
- b) LCD
- c) OLED
- d) Plasma

c) OLED

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Which feature allows a smartphone to make contactless payments?
- a) Wi-Fi
- b) Bluetooth
- c) NFC
- d) GPS

c) NFC

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What is the purpose of a VPN on a mobile device? - a) To increase battery life - b) To enhance data transmission speed - c) To secure data transmission over public networks - d) To store backup data

c) To secure data transmission over public networks

Which type of mobile device connectivity allows for high-speed internet access on the go? - a) Wi-Fi - b) Bluetooth - c) Cellular - d) NFC

c) Cellular

What is the purpose of a SIM card in a mobile device? - a) To store applications - b) To connect to Wi-Fi networks - c) To identify the subscriber to the mobile network - d) To increase storage capacity

c) To identify the subscriber to the mobile network

Which wireless technology is commonly used for short-range communication between devices? - a) Wi-Fi - b) Bluetooth - c) Cellular - d) GPS

b) Bluetooth

What is the purpose of the IMEI number on a mobile device? - a) To identify the device on a mobile network - b) To store user data - c) To enable Wi-Fi connectivity - d) To provide GPS location

a) To identify the device on a mobile network

Which mobile device feature allows for wireless charging? - a) NFC - b) Bluetooth - c) Inductive charging - d) Wi-Fi

c) Inductive charging

What is the first step in the troubleshooting process? - a) Establish a theory of probable cause - b) Identify the problem - c) Test the theory to determine cause - d) Document findings, actions, and outcomes

b) Identify the problem

Which tool can be used to test the integrity of network cables? - a) Multimeter - b) POST card - c) Cable tester - d) Loopback plug

c) Cable tester

What is a common symptom of a failing hard drive? - a) Slow performance - b) Blue screen errors - c) Unusual noises - d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Which utility can be used to check the health of a hard drive in Windows? - a) Disk Cleanup - b) Task Manager - c) Disk Management - d) chkdsk

d) chkdsk

What should you do if a computer does not power on when the power button is pressed? - a) Check the power supply connection - b) Replace the motherboard - c) Reinstall the operating system - d) Reset the BIOS

a) Check the power supply connection

What is the purpose of safe mode in Windows? - a) To perform regular tasks with enhanced performance - b) To access the internet safely - c) To troubleshoot and fix system issues with minimal drivers and services - d) To secure data from unauthorized access

c) To troubleshoot and fix system issues with minimal drivers and services

Which component is likely failing if a computer displays the "blue screen of death" (BSOD)? - a) RAM - b) CPU - c) Hard drive - d) Any of the above

d) Any of the above

What is the purpose of a POST (Power-On Self-Test)? - a) To check for software updates - b) To test the computer's hardware components - c) To clean the operating system - d) To optimize system performance

b) To test the computer's hardware components

What should you check if a laptop's display is flickering? - a) The graphics driver - b) The display cable connection - c) The power settings - d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Which tool can help determine if a network issue is caused by a faulty network interface card (NIC)? - a) Cable tester - b) Loopback plug - c) Multimeter - d) POST card

b) Loopback plug

What is the primary benefit of virtualization? - a) Enhanced physical security - b) Reduced hardware costs - c) Faster internet speeds - d) Improved graphical performance

b) Reduced hardware costs

Which type of cloud service provides virtual machines and other resources over the internet? - a) SaaS - b) PaaS - c) IaaS - d) DaaS

c) IaaS

What is the purpose of a hypervisor? - a) To provide network connectivity - b) To manage virtual machines - c) To store data securely - d) To perform system backups

b) To manage virtual machines

Which cloud service model delivers software applications over the internet? - a) SaaS - b) PaaS - c) IaaS - d) DaaS

a) SaaS

What is a characteristic of public cloud services? - a) Owned and operated by the user - b) Accessible only within a private network - c) Shared resources among multiple users - d) Higher level of control over the infrastructure

c) Shared resources among multiple users

Which type of virtualization allows for running multiple operating systems on a single hardware platform? - a) Server virtualization - b) Network virtualization - c) Storage virtualization - d) Desktop virtualization

a) Server virtualization

What is the primary function of a virtual private network (VPN)? - a) To enhance internet speed - b) To secure data transmission over public networks - c) To provide cloud storage - d) To create virtual machines

b) To secure data transmission over public networks

Which cloud deployment model offers a combination of private and public cloud resources? - a) Private cloud - b) Public cloud - c) Hybrid cloud - d) Community cloud

c) Hybrid cloud

What is a benefit of using cloud storage services? - a) Higher latency - b) Increased control over physical hardware - c) Scalability and accessibility - d) Reduced need for internet access

c) Scalability and accessibility

Which tool can be used to manage multiple virtual machines on a single host? - a) VPN - b) Hypervisor - c) Firewall - d) Router

b) Hypervisor

What is the purpose of a standard operating procedure (SOP)? - a) To increase productivity - b) To document routine tasks and processes - c) To train new employees - d) To manage network devices

b) To document routine tasks and processes

Which type of documentation should be used to track changes to a system? - a) Incident report - b) Change log - c) User manual - d) Asset inventory

b) Change log

What is the primary purpose of a service level agreement (SLA)? - a) To define the scope of IT services - b) To outline the responsibilities of the IT team - c) To specify the expected level of service and performance - d) To provide training for IT staff

c) To specify the expected level of service and performance

Which best practice involves protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access? - a) Asset management - b) Data encryption - c) System optimization - d) Incident response

b) Data encryption

What is the purpose of an incident report? - a) To document routine maintenance tasks - b) To track changes to a system - c) To provide a detailed account of an unexpected event - d) To outline the responsibilities of the IT team

c) To provide a detailed account of an unexpected event

Which type of backup involves copying all files and data since the last full backup? - a) Full backup - b) Differential backup - c) Incremental backup - d) Snapshot

b) Differential backup

What is the purpose of a knowledge base in an IT environment? - a) To provide training materials for new employees - b) To document common issues and solutions - c) To manage network devices - d) To monitor system performance

b) To document common issues and solutions

Which tool can be used to monitor the performance of a network? - a) Firewall - b) Router - c) Network analyzer - d) VPN

c) Network analyzer

What is the purpose of asset management in an IT environment? - a) To increase productivity - b) To document routine tasks and processes - c) To track and manage IT assets - d) To provide training for IT staff

c) To track and manage IT assets

Which best practice involves creating a copy of data to prevent data loss? - a) Data encryption - b) Backup - c) Change management - d) Incident response

b) Backup

What is the primary purpose of an antivirus program? - a) To increase system performance - b) To protect against malware - c) To manage network connections - d) To perform system backups

b) To protect against malware

Which type of attack involves sending fraudulent emails to trick users into revealing personal information? - a) Phishing - b) DDoS - c) Man-in-the-middle - d) SQL injection

a) Phishing

What is the purpose of a firewall in a network security context? - a) To enhance internet speed - b) To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic - c) To provide cloud storage - d) To create virtual machines

b) To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic

Which type of encryption is commonly used to secure data transmitted over wireless networks? - a) WEP - b) WPA2 - c) DES - d) AES

b) WPA2

What is the purpose of two-factor authentication (2FA)? - a) To increase system performance - b) To require two forms of identification for access - c) To provide secure file storage - d) To monitor network traffic

b) To require two forms of identification for access

Which type of attack involves overwhelming a system with traffic to make it unavailable to users? - a) Phishing - b) DDoS - c) Man-in-the-middle - d) SQL injection

b) DDoS

What is the purpose of a digital certificate? - a) To encrypt data - b) To verify the identity of a website or user - c) To manage network connections - d) To perform system backups

b) To verify the identity of a website or user

Which security measure can protect data on a lost or stolen mobile device? - a) VPN - b) Firewall - c) Remote wipe - d) Antivirus

c) Remote wipe

What is the purpose of encryption? - a) To increase system performance - b) To convert data into a secure format - c) To manage network connections - d) To perform system backups

b) To convert data into a secure format

Which type of malware encrypts a user's files and demands payment for the decryption key? - a) Virus - b) Worm - c) Trojan - d) Ransomware

d) Ransomware

What is an important aspect of effective communication in IT support? - a) Using technical jargon - b) Speaking quickly - c) Listening actively - d) Avoiding eye contact

c) Listening actively

Which type of communication is most appropriate for documenting troubleshooting steps? - a) Verbal communication - b) Written communication - c) Nonverbal communication - d) Visual communication

b) Written communication

What is the purpose of an escalation procedure in IT support? - a) To handle high-priority issues - b) To perform routine maintenance - c) To increase system performance - d) To secure data from unauthorized access

a) To handle high-priority issues

Which quality is essential for IT support professionals when dealing with frustrated users? - a) Patience - b) Technical knowledge - c) Speed - d) Assertiveness

a) Patience

What is the purpose of a user manual? - a) To document changes to a system - b) To provide instructions on how to use a product or service - c) To track IT assets - d) To manage network devices

b) To provide instructions on how to use a product or service

Which skill is important for IT support professionals when explaining technical issues to non-technical users? - a) Technical jargon - b) Time management - c) Problem-solving - d) Simplifying complex concepts

d) Simplifying complex concepts

What is the purpose of a feedback loop in IT support? - a) To document troubleshooting steps - b) To track changes to a system - c) To gather user feedback for continuous improvement - d) To manage IT assets

c) To gather user feedback for continuous improvement

Which practice involves providing clear and concise updates to users during the troubleshooting process? - a) Incident response - b) Active listening - c) Effective communication - d) Time management

c) Effective communication

What is the importance of documenting IT support activities? - a) To provide training materials for new employees - b) To track and resolve issues efficiently - c) To manage network connections - d) To monitor system performance

b) To track and resolve issues efficiently

Which quality helps IT support professionals build trust with users? - a) Technical knowledge - b) Assertiveness - c) Empathy - d) Speed

c) Empathy

Which tool would you use to test the integrity of a network cable? - a) Multimeter - b) Cable tester - c) Tone generator - d) Crimper

b) Cable tester

What is the first step in troubleshooting a non-booting computer? - a) Check the power supply - b) Replace the motherboard - c) Reinstall the operating system - d) Test the RAM

a) Check the power supply connection

Which of the following symptoms indicates a failing hard drive? - a) Flickering monitor - b) Frequent blue screen errors - c) Slow internet speed - d) Unresponsive keyboard

b) Frequent blue screen errors

What is the purpose of a POST card in hardware troubleshooting? - a) To test the network connectivity - b) To diagnose boot process errors - c) To measure power supply voltages - d) To check for software issues

b) To diagnose boot process errors

Which command-line tool can be used to release and renew an IP address in Windows? - a) ipconfig - b) netstat - c) ping - d) tracert

a) ipconfig

What should you check if a laptop's display is extremely dim? - a) Screen resolution settings - b) Power cable connection - c) Brightness settings or inverter - d) Network settings

c) Brightness settings or inverter

Which RAID level provides redundancy and improved performance but requires at least four disks? - a) RAID 0 - b) RAID 1 - c) RAID 5 - d) RAID 10

d) RAID 10

What is the purpose of the Safe Mode boot option in Windows? - a) To enhance system performance - b) To troubleshoot and fix software issues - c) To update the operating system - d) To install new hardware

b) To troubleshoot and fix software issues

What does the acronym UPS stand for in the context of computer hardware? - a) Universal Power Supply - b) Uninterruptible Power Supply - c) Unified Power System - d) User Power Supply

b) Uninterruptible Power Supply

Which component is most likely to cause a computer to shut down unexpectedly due to overheating? - a) Hard drive - b) CPU - c) RAM - d) Network card

b) CPU

CompTIA A+ Practice Questions Flashcards

(90 cards)