CompTIA Practice Exam 1

Question 1

The System Restore tool in Windows is used to roll back configuration changes to an earlier date or restore point. One option for creating restore points is to use Task Scheduler. What other actions will create a restore point? (Select all that apply.)

Rebooting

Installing a program

Deleting a file

Updating an application

Answer 1

-Installing a program
-Updating an application

Whenever an application or program is installed, a restore point is created.

A restore point is also created whenever an application or program is updated.

Deleting a file will not create a restore point. Likewise, when using System Restore to roll back to an earlier date, the user’s documents, pictures, and other data are not deleted. However, software and drivers installed after the restore point will be uninstalled.

A restore point is not created when a computer is rebooted, but Windows will create a restore point if one has not occurred in seven days.

Question 2

A Windows administrator wants to learn how to use Linux by installing the Linux subsystem for Windows. What should their version of Windows have on the New Technology File System (NTFS) to support case-sensitive naming and hard links required by Linux?

Indexing

POSIX

Journaling

32-bit allocation table

Answer 2

POSIX

To support UNIX/Linux compatibility, Microsoft engineered NTFS to support case-sensitive naming, hard links, and other key features UNIX/Linux applications require. This is known as POSIX compliance.

When data is written to an NTFS volume, it is re-read, verified, and logged via journaling. In the event of a problem, the sector concerned is marked as bad and the data relocated.

FAT32 is a variant of FAT that uses a 32-bit allocation table, nominally supporting volumes up to 2 TB. The maximum file size is 4 GB minus 1 byte.

The Indexing Service creates a catalog of file and folder locations and properties, speeding up searches.

Question 3

A user disables some of the laptops’ services, thinking it would speed up performance. After restarting the laptop, “One or more services failed to start” appears. When the IT specialist opens the Services snap-in, they identify the failed service and restart it, but that does not fix it. Which of the following scenarios best explains why the restart did not work?

The user disabled a dependent service.

The failed service was set to delayed start.

The IT specialist should have restored the failed service instead of restarting.

The failed service was deleted.

Answer 3

The user disabled a dependent service.

Most Windows services are dependent on other services to run. If the user disabled a service that the failed service depended on, it would fail to start.

Service is restored if it is missing or has been deleted. The failed service still exists but failed to start due to disabled dependency.

Setting a service to delayed start is a way to improve Windows boot time since these services will not start until all other services are loaded. This setting will not cause a service to fail.

If the failed service were deleted, it would not have appeared as a service that failed to start.

Question 4

A user is about to join a Zoom call and plugs in USB-C headphones with a built-in microphone to the computer’s USB 3 port. A message appears that there are “not enough USB controller resources.” Evaluate the situation and select the best fix for the problem.

Run the SFC to locate and update the USB controller drivers.

Open the Resource Monitor to verify the headphone’s operating system and hardware requirements are compatible with the computer’s existing resources.

Connect the headphones to a USB 2 port.

Close all running programs to free up memory.

Answer 4

Connect the headphones to a USB 2 port

“Not enough USB controller resources” is a common warning with USB 3 ports and is generally caused by connecting too many devices. It also occurs when one device exceeds the controller’s allocated endpoints. A USB 2 port has more endpoints, so switching often solves the problem.

Closing programs can free up memory on the PC, but it does not address the resource allocation issue of the USB controller.

Verifying requirements and compatibility with the computer system’s resources does not resolve USB Controller problems.

System File Checker (SFC) is a Windows utility that scans and restores system files. It does not update drivers.

Question 5

An attacker uses a technique against a wireless network that allows them to flood access points with too many packets. What is this called?

DoS

On-path attack

Insider threat

DDoS

Answer 5

DoS

A denial of service (DoS) attack causes a service at a given host to fail or become unavailable to legitimate users.

An on-path attack is a specific type of spoofing where the threat actor can covertly intercept traffic between two hosts or networks, allowing the threat actor to read and possibly modify the packets.

An insider threat is an employee or other person with immediate access to internal components of the company or organization.

Distributed DoS (DDoS) means that the attacks are launched from multiple compromised systems, referred to as botnet, to perform the attack against its target.

Question 6

A video game development company is purchasing upgraded laptops to develop cutting-edge graphics for a new story they have been marketing. They want to be able to integrate persistent system RAM. What type of operating system should they use for support?

Pro

Pro for Workstations

Enterprise

Home

Answer 6

Pro for Workstations

Windows Pro for Workstations has many of the same features as Pro but supports more maximum RAM and advanced hardware technologies, such as persistent system RAM (NVDIMM).

Windows Pro is designed for usage in small- and medium-sized businesses and can be obtained using original equipment manufacturer (OEM), retail, or volume licensing.

The Enterprise edition has several features not available in the Pro edition, such as support for Microsoft’s DirectAccess virtual private networking technology, AppLocker, and more.

The Windows Home edition is designed for domestic consumers and possibly small office home office (SOHO) business use.

Question 7

A technician uses a backup method that reflects how much lost work can be tolerated. What is this method?

Retention

Frequency

Full with differential

Full with incremental

Answer 7

Frequency

Frequency is the period between backup jobs. If the edits are much more difficult to reconstruct, the backup frequency might need to be measured in hours, minutes, or seconds.

Retention is the period that any given backup job is kept for. Short-term retention is important for version control and for recovering from malware infection.

Full with incremental means that the chain starts with a full backup and then runs incremental jobs that select only new files and files modified since the previous job.

Full with differential means that the chain starts with a full backup and then runs differential jobs that select new files and files modified since the original full job.

Question 8

Before an IT team can submit an application for change, it must include a document that includes an analysis of risks associated with performing the change and risks that might be incurred through not performing the requested change. What type of document is this?

Scope of the change

Affected systems

Purpose of the change

Date and time change

Answer 8

Purpose of the change

The purpose of the change is the business case for making the change and the accumulated benefits.

Scope of the change may include cost, timescales, and amount of devices involved. The scope should also include the factors by which the success or failure of the change can be judged.

Date and time change should be scheduled appropriately to minimize risks of system downtime or other negative impacts on the workflow of the business units that depend on the IT system being modified.

Affected systems must be considered in the implementation of change. Companies should first attempt to test the change for the most significant or major changes.

Question 9

What uses a 4-way handshake to allow a station to associate with an access point, authenticate its credential, and exchange a key to use for data encryption?

MFA

WPA2

TKIP

WPA3

Answer 9

WPA2

Wi-Fi protected access 2 (WPA2) was designed to fix critical vulnerabilities in the earlier WEP standard. WPA2 used the AES cipher deployed within the counter mode, blocking the changing message CCMP.

Temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) tries to mitigate the various attacks against WEP developed by producing a new 128-bit encryption key for every packet sent on the network.

Multifactor authentication (MFA) allows the machine to establish a trust relationship and create a secure tunnel to transmit the user credentials or perform smart card authentication without a user password.

Wi-Fi protected Access (WPA3) uses passphrase-based group authentication of stations in private mode; it changes the method this secret is used to agree with session keys.

Question 10

What technique is used on hard drives that reset them to factory condition and the hard drives only contain the information necessary to interact with a file system?

Low-level formatting

Certificate of destruction

Third-party vendor

Erasing/wiping

Answer 10

Low-level formatting

A low-level formatting tool resets a disk to its factory condition. Most of these tools will now incorporate some sanitize function. Secure erase (SE) and instant secure erase (ISE) are two functions under this tool.

Third-party vendors may use overwriting or crypto-erase and issue a certificate of recycling rather than destruction.

A certificate of destruction shows the make, model, and the serial number of each drive that was handled, plus the date of destruction and how it was destroyed.

Erasing/wiping software ensures that old data is removed using zeroes or random patterns, leaving the disk in a “clean” state, ready to be passed to the new owner.

Question 11

A server administrator wants to run the latest technologies. What technology should the administrator start using which will replace the New Technology File System (NTFS)?

ReFS

ext3

APFS

exFAT

Answer 11

ReFS

Resilient File System (ReFS) is being developed to replace NTFS. ReFS is only available for Pro for Workstations and Enterprise editions and cannot currently be used for the boot volume.

Most Linux distributions use some version of the extended (ext) file system to format partitions on mass storage devices. ext3 is a 64-bit file system with journaling support.

Where Windows uses NTFS and Linux typically uses ext3 or ext4, Apple Mac workstations and laptops use the proprietary Apple File System (APFS).

exFAT is a 64-bit version of FAT designed for use with removable hard drives and flash media.

Question 12

A client uses this software that allows access to a given computer. What is this software?

File transfer

Screen-sharing

Videoconferencing

Desktop management

Answer 12

Screen-sharing

Screen-sharing is software that is designed to work over HTTPS across the internet. This is secure because the connection is encrypted but also easier to implement as it does not require special firewall rules.

Some web-conferencing and videoconferencing software, like Microsoft Teams and Zoom, provides a screen-sharing client that participants may control.

With file transfer, users can choose a file-sharing protocol that can be used across all connected hosts. It allows configuring permissions on the share and provisioning user accounts that are recognized by both the server and client.

Desktop management suites are designed for deployment by a single organization and focus primarily on access control and authorization.

Question 13

A server administrator experiences performance issues on a server and needs to narrow down the source of the problem. The server is an externally facing website with high visibility for the company. The longer the site is having issues, the more customers might notice and possibly damage the company’s reputation. What can the administrator use to view and log performance statistics? (Select all that apply.)

msinfo32.exe

perfmon.msc

resmon.exe

devmgmt.msc

Answer 13

perfmon.msc

resmon.exe

Resource Monitor (resmon.exe) is used to view and log performance statistics. A Microsoft Management Console (MMC) contains one or more snap-ins used to modify advanced settings for a subsystem.

Performance Monitoring (perfmon.msc) is also used to view and log performance statistics. The administrator can use this to identify the source of the issue.

Device Manager (devmgmt.msc) allows the administrator to view and edit the properties of installed hardware. Users can change hardware configuration settings, update drivers, or remove/disable devices.

The System Information (msinfo32.exe) tool produces a comprehensive report about the system’s hardware and software components.

Question 14

An administrator is backup chaining a database with the type of backup that utilizes a moderate time and storage requirement. What type of backup is this?

Frequency

Retention

Full with differential

Full with incremental

Answer 14

Full with differential

Full with differential means that the chain starts with a full backup and then runs differential jobs that select new files and files modified since the original full job.

Full with incremental means that the chain starts with a full backup and then runs incremental jobs that select only new files and files modified since the previous job.

Frequency is the period between backup jobs. If the edits are much more difficult to reconstruct, the backup frequency might need to be measured in hours, minutes, or seconds.

Retention is the period that any given backup job is kept for. Short-term retention is important for version control and for recovering from malware infection.

Question 15

A manager for a large corporation is in charge of client machines and is currently undergoing a lifecycle hardware refresh. They want to optimize the machines to be powerful enough to run applications. The manager also wants to be sure that they are not underpowered either. What can the manager use to determine CPU optimization?

Privileged time

Pages/sec

Disk queue length

User time

Answer 15

Privileged time

If privileged time is much higher than user time, the central processing unit (CPU) is likely underpowered (it can barely run Windows core processes efficiently).

If overall processor time is very high (over 85% for sustained periods), it can be helpful to compare these. Privileged time represents system processes, whereas user time is software applications.

If the disk queue length increases and disk time is high, then the manager has a disk problem.

Pages per second are the number of pages read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults, which means memory moves processes to the page file.

Question 16

A company needs to set up perimeter security to control and monitor who can approach the building. Which of the following should the company use? (Select all that apply.)

Access control vestibule

Folder redirection

Guard

Fencing

Answer 16

-Access control vestibule
-Guard
-Fencing

Fencing is generally effective and needs to be transparent, so guards can see any attempt to penetrate it.

Access control vestibule is where one gateway leads to an enclosed space protected by another barrier that restricts access to one person at a time. Bollards are barricades that prevent vehicles from crashing into the building or exploding a bomb near it.

Guards can be placed in front of and around a location to protect it. They can monitor critical checkpoints and verify identification, allow, or disallow access, and log physical entry occurrences.

Folder redirection changes the target of a personal folder, such as the Documents folder, Pictures folder, or Start Menu folder, to a file share.

Question 17

Advanced malware infection may require manual removal. Which of the following tools assists in manual malware removal? (Select all that apply.)

msconfig

cleanmgr

WinPE

regedit

Answer 17

-msconfig
-WinPE
-regedit

The Registry Editor (regedit) is a tool for making direct edits to the registry database, such as manually removing registry items.

The System Configuration Utility (msconfig) can be used to perform a safe boot to prevent any infected code from running at startup.

The Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE) can be used to run commands from a clean command environment after booting the computer with a recovery disc.

Disk Clean-up (cleanmgr) is a Windows utility tool that tracks files that can be safely erased, such as temporary files, to reclaim disk space.

Question 18

A network administrator troubleshoots domain name system (DNS) issues that a particular user is having. Which of the following utilities will help the administrator troubleshoot DNS specifically?

gpupdate

nslookup

pathping

tracert

Answer 18

nslookup

If the administrator identifies or suspects a problem with name resolution, they can troubleshoot DNS with the nslookup command, either interactively or from the command prompt.

The gpupdate command is used to immediately apply a new or changed policy to a computer and account profile.

The tracert command-line utility is used to trace the path a packet of information takes to get to its target.

As an alternative to tracert, the pathping command performs a trace and then pings each hop router a given number of times for a given period.

Question 19

A curious user looks through their local logs and sees errors in region-coding copy-protection mechanisms. What type of device is generating these logs?

External drive

Optical media

SSD

USB

Answer 19

Optical media

Consumer DVDs and Blu-rays feature digital rights management (DRM) and region-coding copy-protection mechanisms.

A flash drive is also called a USB drive, thumb drive, or pen drive. It is simply a flash memory board with a USB connector and protective cover.

A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Flash memory performs much better than the mechanical components used in hard disk drives.

External storage devices are also used for backup and data transfer or provide a drive type not available as an internal unit.

Question 20

An administrator automates the creation of folders during a Windows install process. Which command should they use in their script?

cd

dir

md

rmdir

Answer 20

md

To create a directory, use the MD command. For example, to create a directory called Data in the current directory, type MD Data.

To delete an empty directory, enter rd Directory or rmdirDirectory. If the directory is not empty, users can remove files and subdirectories using the /s switch.

The cd command sets the focus to a different working directory. Users can change to any directory by entering the full path.

Use the dir command to list the files and subdirectories from the working drive and directory or a specified path.

Question 21

A telltale sign of a malware infection is when changes occur to system files. Which of the following is likely the result of malware-induced changes to system files? (Select all that apply.)

Files that are missing or renamed

Known-good files with expired certificates

Files with date stamps and file sizes that are different from known-good versions

Additional files with names similar to authentic system files, such as scvhost.docx or ta5kmgr.xlsx

Answer 21

-Files that are missing or renamed
-Files with date stamps and file sizes that are different from known-good versions

System files are an attractive target for malware because renaming or deleting them can wreak havoc on the operating system.

Hackers will alter the size of system files to hide malware or change the date stamp to cover their tracks.

While malware will add additional files with names almost the same as authentic system files, the extensions .docx and.xlsx represent Word and Excel files, respectively. These are data files, not system files. System files have extensions such as .dll and .sys.

System files do not have certificates. Certificates are a security tool used by websites to prove the server is trusted.

Question 22

A technician configures a method to run some server application from a network and make it accessible to the internet. What is this method?

UPnP

Port forwarding

Disabling unused ports

DHCP reservation

Answer 22

Port forwarding

Port forwarding means that the router requests an internet host for a particular service and sends the request to a designated host on the LAN.

The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) reservation means that the DHCP server always assigns the same IP address to the host. A user can usually choose which IP address this should be.

Disabling unused ports so that only the enabled services will be enabled. If a service is unused, then it should be accessible. If a port-forwarding rule is no longer required, it should be disabled or deleted completely.

The universal plug-and-play (UPnP) framework sends instructions to the firewall with the correct configuration parameters to allow applications to work.

Question 23

A server administrator looks at which Linux supports file systems to show all available options. Which of the following are supported by Linux? (Select all that apply.)

APFS

FAT32

ext4

NTFS

Answer 23

-FAT32
-ext4

Most Linux distributions use some version of the extended (ext) file system. ext4 delivers better performance than ext3 and would usually represent the best choice for new systems.

Linux can also support FAT/FAT32 (designated as VFAT). Additional protocols such as the Network File System (NFS) can mount remote storage devices into the local file system.

Where Windows uses NTFS and Linux typically uses ext3 or ext4, Apple Mac workstations and laptops use the proprietary Apple File System (APFS).

The New Technology File System (NTFS) is a proprietary file system developed by Microsoft for use with Windows.

Question 24

Which of the following extensions combines a scripting language with hundreds of prebuilt modules called cmdlets that can access and change most components and features of Windows and Active Directory components and features?

.sh

.js

.py

.ps1

Answer 24

.ps1

.ps1 is the PowerShell script file. Microsoft provides the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) for rapid development.

.sh is the Linux shell script extension by convention. Every shell script starts with a shebang line that designates which interpreter to use, such as Bash or Ksh.

.js is the JavaScript file extension. JavaScript is a scripting language designed to implement interactive web-based content and web applications. Most web servers and browsers are configured with a JavaScript interpreter.

.py is the Python file extension. Python is a general-purpose scripting and programming language that can develop both automation scripts and software applications.

Question 25

The operating system update on a user’s phone fails. The user verifies the phone’s connection to a wall outlet that leads to the office Wi-Fi. Which of the following could be responsible for the update failure?

Metered network

RADIUS

WLAN

NFC

Answer 25

Metered network

Updates may be blocked if a device is connected to a metered network. Additionally, if the operating system update is incompatible with the device model, it may cause the update to fail.

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol used to manage remote and wireless authentication infrastructures.

Near-field communication (NFC) is mostly used for contactless payment readers, security ID tags, and shop shelf-edge labels for stock control.

A wireless local area network (WLAN) uses radios and antennas for data transmission and reception. Most WLANs are based on the IEEE 802.11 series of standards, better known as Wi-Fi. Since the user verified that the phone was connected to Wi-Fi, WLAN would not be an issue.

Question 26

A vulnerability manager investigates their mobile environment for overall risk posture and starts with identifying legacy systems. Who determines when an Android version is at the end of life?

Vendor

Google

Microsoft

Apple

Answer 26

Vendor

End-of-life policies and update restrictions for particular handsets are determined by the handset vendor rather than the overall Android authority.

Android is a smartphone/tablet OS developed by the Open Handset Alliance, primarily driven by Google. However, vendors can make their versions as well.

Microsoft has their cell phone, which runs an OS designed to work with a handheld portable device. This type of OS must have a touch-operated interface.

iOS is the operating system for Apple’s iPhone smartphone and original models of the iPad tablet. Like macOS, iOS is also derived from UNIX.

Question 27

An employee enters the web address of their local newspaper to check for news on the company, and a site pops up with many click-bait celebrity stories. The employee re-enters the address assuming a misspelling but returns to the same page. When the help desk technician arrives, which of the following troubleshooting steps would be appropriate?

Check to see if the DNS browser is configured correctly.

Check the System Configuration Utility.

Check HOSTS files for malicious entries.

Check to see if the newspaper website’s certificate is expired.

Answer 27

Check HOSTS files for malicious entries.

This scenario describes a redirection when a user tries to open one page but is sent to another. Here, it appears adware is driving traffic to another site to increase clicks. Since HOSTS maps domain names to IP addresses, the HOSTS file in the registry would show malicious entries to re-route IP addresses.

The Domain Name Server (DNS) is a server, not a browser. However, the nslookup command can be used to check DNS records.

Any problem with a website’s certificate will likely generate a message. It will not send a user to another website.

The System Configuration Utility modifies various settings and files that affect how the computer boots and loads Windows.

Question 28

A computer administrator sets up a client workstation to join a centrally managed network. What options should the administrator configure to do this?

Sign-in options

Apps

Access work or school

Update and security

Answer 28

Access work or school under the Account settings app joins the computer to a centrally managed domain network.

Configure sign-in options under Account settings using a fingerprint reader or PIN to access the computer rather than a password. The computer can also be set to lock automatically from here.

The Update & Security settings provide a single interface to manage a secure and reliable computing environment.

The Apps group is used to view and remove installed apps and Windows Features in the Settings app. Users can also configure which app should act as the default for opening, editing, and printing particular file types and manage which apps run at startup.

Question 29

A helpdesk professional assists a user with issues booting up their Mac computer. The user reports that there is no drive to boot from. Where will the computer boot from?

Terminal

FileVault

Force Quit

Web

Answer 29

Web

When users reboot an Apple Mac, if the startup drive is not available for any reason and it is connected to the internet, the computer will try to boot from a web-based drive.

The Terminal can be used to access the command-line environment, which uses either the Z shell (zsh) or Bash. Older macOS versions use Bash, while zsh is the default from Catalina up.

If a macOS app stops responding, it should be possible to close it down and restart without restarting the computer, using Run Force Quit from the Apple menu or press COMMAND+OPTION+ESC.

FileVault is a disk encryption product. Encryption protects the data stored on a disk against the possibility that a threat actor could remove it.

Question 30

The Instagram app on an Android phone will not launch. Which of the following options could fix the problem?

AirDrop

Swiping

Force Stop

Software Update

Answer 30

Force Stop

If an app fails to launch, first use Force Stop to quit it and try launching again. In Android, open Settings > Apps. Tap an app, then select Force Stop. In iOS, either swipe up or double-tap the physical Home button, then swipe the app up off the screen.

Swiping is a mobile gesture that serves several purposes, such as bringing up the notification bar in Android (swipe down from the top of the screen) and bringing up a list of apps in iOS (swipe up from the bottom).

AirDrop is an iOS feature that allows file transfer between iOS and macOS devices over Bluetooth.

Software Update is an iOS option. The comparable Android option is a System Update.

Question 31

A forensic investigator is told that a server’s processor that does not normally run high has been over-utilized lately, and they suspect possible malware. The investigator wants to start by investigating processes. Which command can they use to start the investigation? (Select all that apply.)

top
grep
man
ps

Answer 31

top
ps

The ps command invokes the process table, a record that summarizes the currently running processes on a system.

The top command lists all processes running on a Linux system like ps. It acts as a process management tool by enabling users to prioritize, sort, or terminate processes interactively.

The grep (globally search a regular expression and print) command is used to search and filter the contents of files.

Linux users can use man to view the help pages for a particular command. For example, use man to view the help pages for the man command.

Question 32

An administrator uses a method that assigns permissions and rights to a collection of user accounts. What is this called?

MFA
Least privilege
ACL
Security group

Answer 32

Security group

security group is a collection of user accounts, as it is more efficient to assign permissions to a group than to assign them individually to each user.

Access control list (ACL) allows each access control entry (ACE) to identify a subject and its permissions for the resource. A subject could be a human user, a computer, or a software service.

Least privilege means that a user should be granted the minimum possible rights necessary to perform that job which can be complex to apply in practice.

Multifactor authentication (MFA) means that the user must submit at least two different credentials.

Question 32

A penetration tester targeted top-level executives during a test by sending out phishing emails. They received their first shell when the first executive opened the attachment in the phishing email. Once the penetration tester connects to the executive’s computer, what command will tell them the location of where their shell landed?

-mv
-ls
-cp
-pwd

Answer 32

pwd

pwd “prints” the working directory, though “printing” will typically mean “display on the terminal,” unless stdout is redirected. The working directory is important because commands will default to the working directory without specifying a path.

ls lists the contents of a directory similar to dir at the Windows command prompt. Popular parameters include -l to display a detailed (long) list and -a to display all files, including hidden or system files.

The mv command is used to move files from one directory to another or rename a file.

cp is used to create a copy of files either in the same or different directory with the same or different name.

Question 33

A user is conscientious about security after hearing about breaches in the news. The user wants to see if they are up to date on patches for their Apple computer. Where should the user go to check?

System Preferences

Printers & Scanners

App Store

Displays

Answer 33

App Store

The App Store checks daily for new updates/patches and releases of installed apps in macOS. If a new version is available, a notification will be shown against the App Store icon in the dock.

The Displays preference pane allows users to scale the desktop, set the brightness level, calibrate to a given color profile, and configure Night Shift settings to make the display adapt to ambient light conditions.

Use the Printers & Scanners preference pane to add and manage print and scan devices.

Users can manage network settings either from the Status menu on the right-hand side of the menu bar or via System Preferences.

Question 34

A helpdesk operator looks at build numbers for Windows as they plan upgrade timelines. The operator investigates the significance of the build numbers. Which of the following are the build numbers based on? (Select all that apply.)

Windows version

Time of year

Year

32 bit vs 64 bit

Answer 34

-Time of year
-Year

The number 16 in build 1607 corresponds to the year (2016) of release.

The 07 portion of build 1607 represents the month (07/July) of release. The current version of Windows 10 at the time of writing is 21H2, released in the second half of 2021.

Versioning is not part of it. Windows 10 and Windows 11 represent the currently supported versions of the Windows client OS.

The architecture is not part of it either. Each version and edition of Windows 10 was originally available as 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) software. A 32-bit CPU can only run the 32-bit editions. A 64-bit CPU can run either.

Question 35

A helpdesk manager assesses older Windows 7 computers their company owns and tries to determine available upgrade paths. Which of the following can NOT be upgraded?

Windows 7 Pro to Windows 10 Home

Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 10 Pro

Windows Home to Windows 10 Pro

Windows 7 Home to Windows 10 Enterprise

Answer 35

Windows 7 Home to Windows 10 Enterprise

Users cannot upgrade from a Home to an Enterprise edition. If users consider an in-place upgrade, they must check that the current OS version is supported as an upgrade path to the intended version.

Users can upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 10 Home or Pro. With Windows, users have to consider the edition when upgrading.

Users can upgrade from Windows 10 Home to Windows 10 Pro.

Downgrading the edition is supported in some circumstances (Windows 7 Professional to Windows 10 Home, for instance), but this only retains documents and other data, not apps and settings.

Question 36

Which of the following uses a security shield icon for tasks that are protected under them?

SSO

UAC

Fingerprint

PIN

Answer 36

UAC

User account control (UAC) is a Windows security feature designed to protect the system against malicious scripts and attacks that could exploit the powerful privileges assigned to members of the Administrators group.

A personal identification number (PIN) can contain letters and symbols. It is a passcode used to process authentication of a user accessing a system.

A fingerprint is the type of bio gesture authentication that uses a sensor to scan the unique features of the user’s fingerprint.

Single sign-on (SSO) means that a user authenticates once to a device or network to access multiple applications or services.