Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a connectionless protocol that utilizes on UDP?

-HTTP
-TFTP
-FTP
-HTTPS

A

TFTP

Explanation
OBJ-2.1: The user datagram protocol (UIDP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connectionless, non-guaranteed communication with no sequencing or flow control. UDP is faster than TCP, but it does not provide reliable delivery of the packets. The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using TCP port 80. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using TCP port 80. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over TCP port 443.

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2
Q

Which of the following network configurations is used to identify your computer’s individual host identifier and your computer’s network identifier?.

-Subnet mask
-Gateway
-WINS
-DNS

A

Subnet mask

Explanation
OBJ-1.6: The subnet mask is used to identify the host identifier and the network identifier uniquely in combination with the IP address. The subnet mask is used by the TCP/IP protocol to determine whether a host is on the local subnet or a remote network. The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a legacy computer name registration and resolution service that maps computer NetBIOS names to IP addresses. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.

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3
Q

Which of the following installation types would allow a single technician to quickly install Windows 10 Enterprise on 50 workstations simultaneously?

-Image deployment
-In-place upgrade
-Refresh install
-Repair installation

A

Image deployment

Explanation
OBJ-1.9: An image deployment is a type of installation that uses a clone of an existing installation stored in an image file to perform the installation. The image can contain the base OS and configuration settings, service packs and updates, applications software, and whatever else is required. An image can be stored on DVD or USB media or can be accessed over a network. Repair installation is a type of installation that attempts to replace the existing version of the operating system files with a new copy of the same version. A repair installation is useful when trying to repair a Windows computer that will not boot or when you believe the system files have become corrupted. A refresh installation is a type of installation that will recopy the system files and revert most system settings to their default configuration while preserving user personalization settings, data files, and applications installed through the Windows Store. An in-place upgrade is an installation of the new operating system on top of an existing version of the operating system. An in-place upgrade will preserve the applications, user settings, and data files that already exist on the computer.

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4
Q

Dion Training is building a new computer for its video editor to use. The new computer will use four physical Intel Xeon processors, 128 GB of DDR4 memory, and a RAID 0 with two 2 TB SSDs for optimal performance. Which of the following editions of Windows 10 would support all of this computer’s resources properly?

-Pro
-Home
-Pro for Workstations
-Education

A

Pro for Workstations

Explanation
OBJ-1.1: Microsoft Windows 10 Pro for Workstations is designed to run on devices with high-performance configurations, including server-grade Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron processors. Windows 10 Pro for Workstations and Windows 10 Enterprise both support up to four physical CPUs and 6 TB of RAM. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 Education both only support two physical CPUs and 2 TB of RAM. Windows 10 Home only supports one physical CPU and up to 128 GB of RAM.

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5
Q

Question 11: Incorrect
A factory worker suspects that a legacy workstation is infected with malware. The workstation runs Windows XP and is used as part of an ICS/SCADA system to control industrial factory equipment. The workstation is connected to an isolated network that cannot reach the internet. The workstation receives the patterns for the manufactured designs through a USB drive. A technician is dispatched to remove the malware from this workstation. After its removal, the technician provides the factory worker with a new USB drive to move the pattern files to the workstation. Within a few days, the factory worker contacts the technician again to report the workstation appears to be reinfected with malware. Which of the following steps did the technician MOST likely forget to perform to prevent reinfection?

-Update the anti-malware solution
-Quarantine the infected system
-Disable System restore in Windows
-Investigate and verify malware symptoms
-Enable System Restore and create a restore point in Window
-Remediate the infected systems

A

Update the anti-malware solution

Explanation
OBJ-3.3: Since the workstation is isolated from the internet, the anti-malware solution will need to be manually updated to ensure it has the latest virus definitions. Without the latest virus definitions, the system can easily become reinfected. The seven steps of the malware removal procedures are (1) Investigate and verify malware symptoms, (2) Quarantine the infected systems, (3) Disable System Restore in Windows, (4) Remediate the infected systems, update anti-malware software, scan the system, and use removal techniques (e.g., safe mode, pre-installation environment), (5) Schedule scans and run updates, (6) Enable System Restore and create a restore point in Windows, and (7) Educate the end user.

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6
Q

The customer service manager at Dion Training is having issues with her Windows 10 laptop. A technician believes that the operating system may have been corrupted by a piece of malware. The technician has removed the malware and wants to perform an installation or upgrade that will recopy the system files and revert most of the system settings to their default configurations while still preserving the user’s personalization settings, data files, and any applications installed through the Windows store. The technician has been told that they may delete any applications installed by the user, though, since they may have been infected by the malware. Which of the following types of upgrades or installations should the technician use?

-Clean install
-Repair installation
-In-place upgrade
-Refresh installation

A

Refresh installation

Explanation
OBJ-1.9: A refresh installation is a type of installation that will recopy the system files and revert most system settings to their default configuration while preserving user personalization settings, data files, and applications installed through the Windows Store. A clean install is an installation of the new operating system on a new computer or a computer that has been recently formatted. A clean install will completely replace the operating system software on the computer with the new operating system. During a clean install, all of the user’s data, settings, and applications will be deleted. An in-place upgrade is an installation of the new operating system on top of an existing version of the operating system. An in-place upgrade will preserve the applications, user settings, and data files that already exist on the computer. Repair installation is a type of installation that attempts to replace the existing version of the operating system files with a new copy of the same version. A repair installation is useful when trying to repair a Windows computer that will not boot or when you believe the system files have become corrupted.

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7
Q

A home user contacts the help desk and states that their desktop applications are running very slowly. The user also says that they have not received any emails all morning, but they normally get at least 5-10 emails each day. The help desk technician gets permission from the home user to remotely access their computer and runs some diagnostic scripts. The technician determines that the CPU performance is normal, the system can ping the local router/gateway, and the system can load websites slowly, or they fail to load completely. During the diagnosis, the technician also observes the remote connection dropping and reconnecting intermittently. Which of the following should the technician attempt to perform NEXT to resolve the user’s issue?

-Reboot into safe mode, uninstall the last OS update, and run a CHKDSK against the hard
-Update the anti-virus software, run a full scan of the system, and verify the web browser’s and email client’s settings
-Empty the web browser’s cache, send a test email to the technician’s personal account, and open the Explorer to check the file system
-Boot into the BIOS setup, enable TPM, reboot into safe mode, and perform a System Restore

A

Update the anti-virus software, run a full scan of the system, and verify the web browser’s and email client’s settings

Explanation
OBJ-3.2: Based on the symptoms, it appears that the system may be infected with malware. Therefore, it would be best to attempt to remediate the system by updating the anti-virus, performing a full system scan, and verifying that the web browser and email client’s settings are correct. There is no indication that a recent OS update was performed, so there is no need to reboot into safe mode and roll back that update. Enabling TPM would not help with this issue since TPM is used to store encryption keys for a BitLocker encrypted hard disk. A technician should never send test emails to their personal account as it is considered unprofessional.

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8
Q

Eduardo is installing Windows 11 (64-bit) in a virtual machine on his macOS desktop. The installation is continually failing and producing an error. Eduardo has configured the virtual machine with a 2.2 GHz processor, 4 GB of memory, a 64 GB hard drive, and a 1280 x 720 screen resolution. Which item in the virtual machine should be increased to fix the installation issue experienced?

-Amount of memory
-Amount of hard drive space
-Number of CPU cores
-The screen resolution

A

Number of CPU cores

Explanation
OBJ-1.7: The number of CPU cores needs to be increased. For the Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space.

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9
Q

You are installing a new firewall for Dion Training’s corporate network. Which of the following documents should you update FIRST?

-Incident database
-Password policy
-Knowledge base articles
-Network topology diagrams

A

Network topology diagrams

Explanation
OBJ-4.1: A network topology is the shape or structure of a network in a physical or logical format as depicted in a network diagram. Physical network topologies include the actual appearance of the network layout. Logical network topologies include the flow of data across the network. A password policy is a set of rules designed to enhance computer security by encouraging users to employ strong passwords and use them properly. A password policy is often part of an organization’s official regulations and may be taught as part of security awareness training. It contains items like password complexity, password age, and password history requirements. A Knowledge Base (KB) is a reference document that is used to assist a technician when they are installing, configuring, and troubleshooting hardware and software. A knowledge base article might be created by a vendor to support their products, too. A company might create an internal KB, populated with guidelines, procedures, information, and frequently asked questions from their service tickets. An incident database is used to document any issues, problems, or incidents in the network. An incident database is often called a trouble ticket system. The system should document the number of the incident, the point of contact for the workstation, the priority of the incident, the problem description, and a history of work performed to resolve the incident for the user.

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10
Q

Which of the following commands is used on a Linux system to switch to another user’s account?

-su
-passwd
-chown
-ps

A

su

Explanation
OBJ-1.11: The su command, which stands for substitute user, is used by a computer user to execute commands with the privileges of another user account. When executed, it invokes a shell without changing the current working directory or the user environment. When the command is used without specifying the new user id as a command-line argument, it defaults to using the system’s superuser account (user id 0). The command sudo is related and executes a command as another user but observes a set of constraints about which users can execute which other users can execute. The chown command is used to change the owner of the file, directory, or link in Linux. The ps command is used to list the currently running processes, and their PIDs and some other information depend on different options. It reads the process information from the virtual files in the /proc file system. The /proc directory contains virtual files and is known as a virtual file system. The passwd command changes passwords for user accounts. A normal user may only change the password for their account, while the superuser may change the password for any user.

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11
Q

A printing company uses an isolated Windows XP workstation to print out large format banners for its customers on a custom printer. Unfortunately, the printer does not support newer versions of Windows and would cost $50,000 to replace it. To mitigate this risk, the workstation is not connected to the internet or a local area network. When a customer needs a banner printer, the technician takes a copy of their PDF file and moves it to the Windows XP workstation using a USB thumb drive. The workstation recently became infected with malware when printing a customer’s file. The technician remediated the issue, but the workstation became infected again three weeks later. Which of the following actions did the technician forget to perform?

-Perform a data wipe operation on the USB thumb drive before its next use
-Connect the workstation to the Internet to receive the latest Windows XP patches
-Disable System Restore and remove the previous restore points
-Manually update the antivirus on the workstation and set it to perform on-access scans

A

Manually update the antivirus on the workstation and set it to perform on-access scans

Explanation
OBJ-2.4: This is a legacy workstation since it is running Windows XP. Since Windows XP is considered end-of-life, there are no security patches or updates available for it. To mitigate this risk, the workstation should be run only as an isolated workstation. Since the workstation is not connected to a network and receives files through the connection of a USB thumb drive, this would be the only way a piece of malware could enter the system. The technician most likely neglected to update the antivirus/antimalware software on this workstation during the remediation. The technician should manually update the antivirus/antimalware definitions weekly. The workstation should also be configured to conduct on-access/on-demand scanning, as well.

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12
Q

A user attempted to go to their favorite social media website this morning from their laptop. When they typed in Facebook.com, their browser redirected them to MalwareInfect.com instead. You asked the user to clear their cache, history, and cookies, but the problem remains. What should you do NEXT to solve this problem?

-Conduct an antivirus scan
-Upgrade their web browser
-Disable System Restore
-Check the host.ini file

A

Check the host.ini file

Explanation
OBJ-3.2: The hosts.ini file is a local plain text file that maps servers or hostnames to IP addresses. It was the original method to resolve hostnames to a specific IP address. The hosts file is usually the first process in the domain name resolution procedure. When a user requests a webpage, the hosts.ini file is first checked for the IP address. If the IP address isn’t found in the hosts.ini file, then the workstation requests the IP address from the DNS server. Attackers often modify host.ini files to redirect users to a malicious webpage instead of one they would commonly use like Google, Facebook, and others.

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13
Q

Jason checks the Dion Training server room and finds that it currently has only 10% humidity. Which of the following risks to the servers could occur due to this low humidity level?

-Corrosion of the servers
-An over-voltage event
-Accidental static discharge
-An under-voltage event

A

Accidental static discharge

Explanation
OBJ-4.5: When humidity is low, static discharge is the biggest threat. When humidity is low, static electricity is built up and can lead to an accidental release which damages components. When humidity is high, the water in the air can react with the components in the servers and cause corrosion. In a computer server room or work area, the humidity should be kept between 40-60% to prevent electrostatic discharge from low humidity and corrosion from high humidity. An electrostatic discharge (ESD) is the release of a charge from metal or plastic surfaces that occurs when a potential difference is formed between the charged object and an oppositely charged conductive object. This electrical discharge can damage silicon chips and computer components if they are exposed to it.

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14
Q

Your company is concerned about the possibility of power fluctuations that may occur and cause a large increase in the input power to their server room. What condition is this known as?

-Power failure
-Power surge
-Power spikes
-Under-voltage event

A

Power spikes

Explanation
OBJ-4.5: A significant over-voltage event that occurs for a very short period of time is known as a power spike. A power spike is a very short pulse of energy on a power line. Power spikes can contain very high voltages up to and beyond 6000 volts but usually last only a few milliseconds instead of longer but lower voltage power surges. An extended over-voltage event is known as a power surge. A power surge is basically an increase in your electrical current. A power surge often has levels of 10-30% above the normal line voltage and lasts from 15 milliseconds up to several minutes. An under-voltage event is a reduction in or restriction on the availability of electrical power in a particular area. The irregular power supply during an under-voltage event can ruin your computer and other electronic devices. Electronics are created to operate at specific voltages, so any fluctuations in power (both up and down) can damage them. To protect against an under-voltage event, you can use either a battery backup or a line conditioner. A power loss or power failure is a total loss of power in a particular area. To protect against a power loss or power failure, a battery backup should be used.

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15
Q

An increased amount of web traffic to an e-commerce server is observed by a network administrator but without increasing the number of financial transactions. Which kind of attack might the company be experiencing?

-Bluejacking
-DoS
-Phishing
-ARP spoofing

A

DoS

Explanation
OBJ-2.4: A DoS attack or denial-of-service attack works by overloading a server with multiple requests (more than it can handle), thus eventually knocking the server offline. When a denial-of-service attack occurs, there will be an increase in the amount of web traffic on the server, but since that traffic is not being sent by legitimate customers there will be no financial transactions occurring. ARP spoofing is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. Phishing is a type of social engineering where an attacker sends a fraudulent email designed to trick a human victim into revealing sensitive information to the attacker or to deploy malicious software on the victim’s infrastructure like ransomware. Bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs, or laptop computers, sending a vCard which typically contains a message in the name field to another Bluetooth-enabled device via the OBEX protocol.

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16
Q

During the reconnaissance phase of a penetration test, you have determined that your client’s employees all use iPhones that connect back to the corporate network over a secure VPN connection. Which of the following methods would MOST likely be the best method for exploiting these?

-Identify a jailbroken device for easy exploitation
-Use a tool like ICSSPLOIT to target specific vulnerabilities
-Use web-based exploits against the devices web interfaces
-Use social engineering to trick a user into opening a malicious APK

A

Identify a jailbroken device for easy exploitation

Explanation
OBJ-3.5: When targeting mobile devices, you must first determine if the company uses iPhones or Android-based devices. If they are using an iPhone, it becomes much more difficult to attack since iPhone users can only install trusted apps from the App Store. If the user has jailbroken their phone, they can sideload apps and other malware. After identifying a jailbroken device, you can use social engineering to trick the user into installing your malicious code and then take control of their device.

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17
Q

The Chief Financial Officer has asked Maria for a recommendation on how the company could reduce its software licensing costs while still maintaining the ability to access its application server remotely. Which of the following should Maria recommend?

-Use a Virtual Network Client (VNC) on a Windows 2019 server
-Use a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) application on a Windows 10 desktop
-Install and deploy thin clients without an operating system for each user
-Install and deploy Windows 10 Home edition on each user’s thick client

A

Install and deploy thin clients without an operating system for each user

Explanation
OBJ-4.6: A thin client is a small device that can operate with or without an operating system installed on the client device. Instead, it can boot directly from a network-based operating system on a common server and access applications on the company’s application server. This type of architecture can drastically reduce the need for operating system licenses and reduce deployment costs. A thin client runs from resources stored on a central server instead of a localized hard drive. Thin clients work by connecting remotely to a server-based computing environment where most applications, sensitive data, and memory are stored.

18
Q

Dion Consulting Group has been hired by a small real estate office to build its network. The office has 4 computers running Windows 10 Professional edition configured in a workgroup to access a shared file server. Which of the following types of network models is being used by this real estate office?

  • Peer-to-peer
  • Hub-and-spoke
  • Client/server
  • Mesh
A

Peer-to-peer

Explanation
OBJ-1.1: A workgroup is a Microsoft peer-to-peer network model in which computers are connected together for access to shared resources for organizational purposes. A domain is a Microsoft client/server network model that groups computers together for security and to centralize administration. Domain members have access to a central user account database so that users can log on to any computer within the domain. Hub-and-spoke and mesh are networking models that are not used for workgroups or domains.

19
Q

Bradley has been authorized to work from home every Friday. Normally, he can use his work laptop home from home while still accessing the company’s internal network shares, but for some reason, it isn’t working today. What is MOST likely the cause of Bradley’s issue today?

-An inactive VPN connection
-The cooperate MDM policy
-Missing OS security patches
-Outdated anti-malware software

A

An inactive VPN connection

Explanation
OBJ-4.9: To connect from Bradley’s home to the corporate internal network, Bradley would need to use a VPN connection. A VPN connection will create a secure tunnel from Bradley’s laptop over the internet to the corporate internal network, which will make his laptop act as if he is connected directly to the office network. If the VPN connection is inactive, then Bradley’s laptop is simply connecting directly to the internet and cannot access any of the company’s internal network resources (like the network shares). Patch management is the process of distributing and applying updates to the software to prevent vulnerabilities from being exploited by an attacker or malware. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. Anti-malware software is a program that scans a device or network for known viruses, Trojans, worms, and other malicious software.

20
Q

Which of the following components presents the largest risk of electrical shock to a technician?

-Hard drive
-LCD monitor
-CRT monitor
-Laptop battery

A

CRT monitor

Explanation
OBJ-4.4: A CRT monitor is an older-style computer monitor that contains large capacitors which retain high levels of electricity even after being disconnected. A CRT should be disposed of carefully. A technician should never open a CRT monitor or stick anything into its interior for fear of electrocution. Hard drives, LCD monitors, and laptop batteries do not contain high voltage levels.

21
Q

You are configuring a SOHO network that will contain 7 devices, but you only have a single public IP address. Which of the following concepts should be configured to allow the 7 devices to share that single IP when connecting to the internet?

  • UPnP
  • Perimeter network
  • NAT
  • DHCP
A

NAT

Explanation
OBJ-2.9: Network address translation (NAT) is a network service provided by a router or proxy server to map private local addresses to one or more publicly accessible IP addresses. NAT can use static mappings but is commonly implemented as network port address translation (PAT) or NAT overloading, where a few public IP addresses are mapped to multiple LAN hosts using port allocations. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. Universal plug-and-play (UPnP) is a protocol framework allowing network devices to autoconfigure services, such as allowing a games console to request appropriate settings from a firewall. A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request.

22
Q

Which of the following commands is used on a Linux system to copy a file to a new directory and then remove the original file from the previous directory?

  • rm
  • cp
  • ls
  • mv
A

mv

Explanation
OBJ-1.11: The mv command is a command-line utility that moves files or directories from one place to another. The mv command supports moving single files, multiple files, and directories. The mv command can prompt before overwriting files and will only move files that are newer than the destination. When the mv command is used, the file is copied to the new directory and removed from the old directory. The cp command is a command-line utility for copying files and directories. It supports moving one or more files or folders with options for taking backups and preserving attributes. Copies of files are independent of the original file, unlike the mv command. The cp command will copy your file(s) while the mv one will move them and delete the original files from the old location. The rm command is a command-line utility for removing files or directories. To remove a file, pass the name of a file or files to the rm command, and those files will be removed immediately from the file system. The ls command lists the files or directories in the current path of a Unix, Linux, or Mac operating system. When invoked without any arguments, ls lists the files in the current working directory.

23
Q

Which of the following commands can be used to install software on a Linux system?

-grep
-nano
-yum
-cat

A

yum

Explanation
OBJ-1.11: The yum command is a package manager used with RPM-based Linux distributions to install new software packages, remove existing software packages, upgrade existing software packages, and even upgrade the entire operating system. The cat (short for “concatenate“) command is one of the most frequently used commands in Linux/Unix. The cat command allows the creation of single or multiple files, view file contents, concatenate files, and redirect output in the terminal to a file. The nano utility is an easy-to-use command-line text editor for Linux systems. Nano includes the functionality of a regular text editor, as well as syntax highlighting, multiple buffers, search and replace with regular expression support, spellchecking, UTF-8 encoding, and more. The grep is a command-line utility for searching plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression. The grep command works on Unix, Linux, and macOS operating systems. Grep is an acronym that stands for Global Regular Expression Print.

24
Q

When Jason needs to log in to his bank, he must use a hardware token to generate a random number code automatically synchronized to a code on the server for authentication. What type of device is Jason using to log in?

-Smart card
-PIV card
-Biometric lock
-Key fob

A

Key fob

Explanation
OBJ-2.1: A key fob is a hardware token that generates a random number code synchronized to a code on the server. The code changes every 60 seconds or so. This is an example of a one-time password. A SecureID token is an example of a key fob that is produced by RSA. A smart card, chip card, PIV card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system. A biometric lock is any lock that can be activated by biometric features, such as a fingerprint, voiceprint, or retina scan. Biometric locks make it more difficult for someone to counterfeit the key used to open the lock or a user’s account. A smart card is a form of hardware token.

25
Q

Which of the following remote access tools is a command-line terminal emulation program operating on port 23?

-Telnet
-SSH
-RDP
-VNC

A

Telnet

Explanation
OBJ-4.9: Telnet is a TCP/IP application protocol supporting remote command-line administration of a host (terminal emulation). Telnet is unauthenticated, which means it sends data such as the username and password in plain text. For this reason, it should not be used, and SSH should be used instead. Telnet runs over TCP port 23. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it. Secure Shell (SSH) uses port 22 to securely create communication sessions over the Internet for remote access to a server or system. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 and is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.

26
Q

You attempt to boot a Windows 10 laptop and receive an “Operating System Not Found” error on the screen. You can see the hard disk listed in the UEFI/BIOS of the system. Which of the following commands should you use to repair the first 512-byte sector on the hard disk?

  • bootrec/rebuildbcd
  • bootrec/fixmbr
  • diskpart list
  • bootrec/fixboot
A

bootrec/fixmbr

Explanation
OBJ-3.1: The master boot record (MBR) is the first 512-byte sector on a hard disk. It contains the partitioning information for a drive. To repair the master boot record (MBR), you should use the command “bootrec /fixmbr” and reboot the computer. If the disk cannot be detected, enter the system setup and try modifying settings (or even resetting the default settings). If the system firmware reports the disk’s presence, but Windows still will not boot, use a startup repair tool to open a recovery mode command prompt and use the bootrec tool to repair the drive’s boot information. The “bootrec /fixboot” command is used to attempt a repair of the boot sector of a drive. The “bootrec /rebuildbcd” command is used to add missing Windows installations to the Boot Configuration Database (BCD). The diskpart command is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Windows that is used to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions.

27
Q

Which of the following commands is used on a Linux system to display the current working directory’s full pathname to the screen?

-pwb
-passwd
-chmod
-chown

A

pwd

Explanation
OBJ-1.11: The pwd command displays the present working directory (current directory) path to the terminal or display. If you are working on a Linux system and are unsure of where you are in the directory structure, type “pwd” and hit enter to display the path to the screen. The passwd command changes passwords for user accounts. A normal user may only change the password for their account, while the superuser may change the password for any user. The chown command is used to change the owner of the file, directory, or link in Linux. The chmod command sets the permissions of files or directories on a Linux system. A set of flags associated with each file determines who can access that file and how they can access it. These flags are called file permissions or modes. The command name chmod stands for change mode and it restricts the way a file can be accessed.

28
Q

Jennifer decided that the licensing cost for a piece of video editing software was too expensive. Instead, she decided to download a keygen program to generate a license key and install a pirated version of the editing software. After she runs the keygen, a license key is created, but her system performance becomes very sluggish, and her antimalware suite begins to display numerous alerts. Which type of malware might her computer be infected with?

-Logic bomb
-Adware
-Worm
-Trojan

A

Trojan

Explanation
OBJ-2.3: A trojan is a program in which malicious or harmful code is contained inside a harmless program. In this example, the harmless program is the key generator (which does create a license key). It also has malicious code inside it causing the additional alerts from the antimalware solution. A Trojan is designed to damage, disrupt, steal, or in general, inflict some other harmful action on your data or network. The most common form of a trojan is a Remote Access Trojan (RAT), which allows an attacker to control a workstation or steal information remotely. To operate, a trojan will create numerous processes that run in the background of the system. A worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. A worm can spread on its own, whereas a virus needs a host program or user interaction to propagate itself. A logic bomb is a malicious program that is triggered when a logical condition is met, such as after a number of transactions have been processed, or on a specific date. Adware is software that displays unwanted advertisements on your computer.

29
Q

Dion Training’s offices are frequently experiencing brownouts and sags. Which of the following solutions would protect all of their workstations and servers from these under-voltage events?

-Surge suppressor
-Line conditioner
-Uninterruptable power supply
-Diesel generator

A

Line conditioner

Explanation
OBJ-4.5: Line conditioners are used to protect an entire power circuit from under-voltage events and power sags. Line conditioners raise a sag or under-voltage event back to normal levels, but it cannot protect the line from a complete power failure or power outage. These are also known as voltage regulators and power distribution units (PDUs). Because the question’s requirement must protect all of the workstations, a line conditioner is the best option. A surge protector or surge suppressor can defend against possible voltage spikes that could damage your electronics, appliances, or equipment. An uninterruptible power supply or uninterruptible power source (UPS) is an electrical apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source becomes too low or the main power fails. A UPS provides near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions by using a battery backup. A diesel generator is a mechanical device that converts rotational motion created by a diesel motor into electrical energy. Generators take 30-60 seconds to turn on and have the electrical load transferred to them. Generators are useful for long-duration power loss events, not under-voltage events.

30
Q

Dion Training uses DHCP to assign private Class B IP addresses to its Windows 10 workstations. Which of the following IP addresses is a Class B address?

  • 192.168.2.14
  • 169.254.125.154
  • 10.5.34.15
  • 172.16.13.12
A

172.16.13.12

Explanation
OBJ-1.6: Private IP addresses are any addresses in a specified range that are not allowed to be routed over the Internet. This allows companies to use these private IP addresses in their local area networks without having to purchase them from an internet registry. The class A private IP address range contains the addresses from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255.255. The class B private IP address range contains the addresses from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. The class C private IP address range contains the addresses from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. The APIPA/link-local autoconfiguration range is from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

31
Q

John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that no one can change the boot order and boot from an unauthorized operating system. What feature should he ensure is enabled?

-Secure Boot
-BIOS password required
-Full disk encryption
-RAM integrity checking

A

BIOS password required

Explanation
OBJ-2.6: John should utilize the BIOS to set up a password to prevent unauthorized access to the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) by other users. The BIOS is software that utilizes a small memory chip on the motherboard to hold the settings specialized for an organization to prevent access and tampering, thus reducing the workstations’ overall attack surface and the network. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn’t prevent a user from booting the system or changing the boot order. The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system.

32
Q

A user is complaining that when they attempt to access Google’s homepage, it appears in a foreign language even though they are located in the United States. The user claims they are not using a VPN to access the internet. You have run a full anti-malware scan on the workstation and detected nothing unusual. Which of the following actions should you attempt NEXT?

-Download the latest security updates for Windows
-Verify the user’s date and time zone are correctly listed in Windows
-Remove any proxy servers configured in their web browser
-Disable the Windows Firewall

A

Remove any proxy servers configured in their web browser

Explanation
OBJ-3.2: A proxy server is a web server that acts as a gateway between a client application. A malicious actor could have reconfigured this user’s web browser to use a particular proxy server in a foreign country to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. An anti-malware scanner would not detect this since the use of a proxy server could also be for legitimate purposes. In fact, most large companies use their own proxy servers that users connect to when using the internet. Google would be detecting the language for the proxy server’s location. If the malicious proxy server were located in Italy (for example), your Google homepage would be displayed in Italian even if your workstation is in the United States.

33
Q

Which file system type should you format a 4 TB USB flash drive to use with both Windows and macOS laptops?

-APFS
-NTFS
-exFAT
-FAT32

A

exFAT

Explanation
OBJ-1.8: The extensible file allocation table (exFAT) is a file system optimized for external flash memory storage devices such as USB flash drives and SD cards. exFAT supports a maximum volume size of up to 128 PB with a recommended maximum volume size of 512 TB for the best reliability. exFAT is supported natively by both Windows and macOS. The NT file system (NTFS) is a Windows file system that supports a 64-bit address space and can provide extra features such as file-by-file compression and RAID support as well as advanced file attribute management tools, encryption, and disk quotas. NTFS can support a maximum volume size of up to 8 PB. NTFS is not supported natively by macOS. The Apple file system (APFS) is the default file system for Mac computers using macOS 10.13 or later and features strong encryption, space sharing, snapshots, fast directory sizing, and improved file system fundamentals. APFS is not supported natively by Windows. The file allocation table 32-bit (FAT32) is the 32-bit file system supported by Windows, macOS, and Linux computers. FAT32 can support maximum volume sizes of up to 2 TB and maximum file sizes of up to 4 GB.

34
Q

A user receives the following error message: “Windows Update cannot currently check for updates because the service is not running.” The user calls the help desk to report the error they received. A support technician uses a remote connection tool to log in to the computer remotely, quickly identifies the issue, and fixes the issue. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

-Reboot the computer
-Restart the network services
-Register the Windows Update service’s DLL files
-Rollback the device drivers

A

Reboot the computer

Explanation
OBJ-3.2: If any of the .DLL files involved with Windows Update are not correctly registered, you may also encounter this problem. To solve it, open services.msc and stop the Windows Update service. Then, open a Command Prompt as the administrator and use regsvr32 for each of the 6 Windows Update DLL files (wuapi.dll, wuaueng.dll, wups.dll, wups2.dll, wuwebv.dll, and wucltux.dll). Then, open services.msc and restart the Windows Update service. Finally, restart your computer for these changes to take effect.

35
Q

What is the minimum amount of memory required to install Windows 10 (x64) on a device?

-4GB
-1GB
-8GB
-2GB

A

2GB

Explanation
OBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of hard drive space.

36
Q

Which of the following Control Panel sections would allow a technician to turn on Hyper-V on a Windows 10 Pro workstation?

-System
-Device Manager
-Programs and Features
-Devices and Printers

A

Programs and Features

Explanation
OBJ-1.4: The Programs and Features section of the Control Panel allows a technician to install or remove applications, software packages, and features in the Windows operating system. Hyper-V is considered an additional feature in Windows 10 Pro and can be enabled from the Windows Features section of the Programs and Features tool. The Devices and Printers section of the Control Panel allows a technician to manage the printers, scanners, and other external devices connected to a Windows computer. The System section of the Control Panel allows a technician to see information about the workstation, including the processor type, amount of memory, and operating system version installed on the computer. The Device Manager is used to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. The device manager will highlight a piece of hardware that is not working so that a technician can repair or replace it.

37
Q

You are installing a new file server at the offices of Dion Training. The entire building has a diesel generator installed to protect it from power outages. The file server must have zero downtime once placed into production. Which of the following power sources should the file server utilize?

-An uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
-A line conditioner
-A surge protector connected to a UPS
-A surge protector

A

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

Explanation
OBJ-4.5: An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a redundant power system that provides minutes to hours of power from an internal battery unit. Since the entire office has a backup diesel generator, the file server only needs power for about a minute until the generator can restore the power to the building. The UPS will also serve as a line conditioner to prevent issues caused by under-voltage events if the generator is operating too slowly. When power is lost, it usually takes 30-60 seconds for a generator to start up, reach normal operating speeds, and begin providing power to its electrical distribution and loads. A surge protector defends against possible voltage spikes that could damage your electronics, appliances, or equipment. Electronics are created to operate at specific voltages, so any fluctuations in power (both up and down) can damage them. A line conditioner is a device that adjusts voltages in under-voltage and overvoltage conditions to maintain a 120 V output. Line conditioners raise a sag or under-voltage event back to normal levels, but they cannot protect the line from a complete power failure or power outage.

38
Q

Which command-line entry would be used on a Windows system to test if your system can reach diontraining.com?

-net use diontraining.com
-sfc diontraining.com
-ipconfig diontraining.com
-ping diontraining.com

A

ping diontraining.com

Explanation
OBJ-1.2: The ping command is used to test a host’s reachability on an Internet Protocol network. Type “ping diontraining.com” to send a series of ICMP packets will be sent to the Dion Training server. If they are received successfully, your system will receive an echo reply. Your system will then report if the call and response were successful and how long it took in milliseconds. The system file checker (SFC) command is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line. The net use command is used to connect to, remove, and configure connections to shared resources such as mapped drives and network printers. The ipconfig tool displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values on a given system.

39
Q

How would you represent the Linux permissions rwxr-xr– in octal notation?

-754
-624
-742
-724

A

754

Explanation
OBJ-2.6: RWX is 7, R-X is 5, and R– is 4. In Linux, you can convert letter permissions to octal by giving 4 for each R, 2 for each W, and 1 for each X. R is for read-only, W is for write, and X is for execute. The permissions strings are written to represent the owner’s permissions, the group’s permissions, and the other user’s permissions.

40
Q

You are working on a Windows 10 workstation with a 1 TB HDD and 16 GB of memory that is operating slowly when reading large files from its storage device. Which of the following commands should you use to speed up this workstation?

  • chkdsk
  • format
  • diskpart
  • ipconfig
A

chkdsk

Explanation
OBJ-1.2: The chkdsk command is used to check the file system and file system metadata of a volume for logical and physical errors. If used without parameters, chkdsk displays only the status of the volume and does not fix any errors. If used with the /f, /r, /x, or /b parameters, it fixes errors on the volume. The format command creates a new root directory and file system for the disk. It can check for bad areas on the disk, and it can delete all data on the disk. To use a new disk, you must first use the format command to format the disk. The diskpart command is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Windows that is used to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions. The ipconfig tool displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values on a given system.