Conceptuals Flashcards
(346 cards)
1
Q
(Phychem) Which condition can the air inside an air balloon be brought into a more ideal condition? a. Reducing the radius of the balloon b. increasing the release of flames c. adding extra weight it carries d. none if the above
A
b (More flames = higher temp = higher spacing between molecules = less interaction)
2
Q
(Phychem)Which is the possible unit of fugacity? A. J/N B. Wm^3 C. mmHg D. Unitless
A
C. mmHg(actual pressure)
3
Q
(Phychem)Which of the following gases is the closest to ideality at a certain condition? A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Formic Acid D. Xenon
A
A. Hydrogen (lowest Molar mass, lowest IMFA)
4
Q
(Envi)Type of bacteria involved in denitrification. A. Cyanobacteria B. Rhizobium C. Aerobic Bacteria D. Anaerobic Bacteria
A
D
5
Q
(Phychem)There are three identical flasks containing hydrogen, oxygen, and neon at SATP. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Neon exerts the greatest pressure.
B. Hydrogen occupies the least volume.
C. Oxygen contains the greatest number of particles
D. None of the above
A
D. None of the Above
6
Q
(Phychem)Which condition does not indicate a predomination of repulsive forces? A. The value of Z is 1.0053 B. The value of φ is 1.0075 C. The value of μ_JT is 0.24 K/atm D. None of the above
A
C. The value of μ_JT is 0.24 K/atmAttraction = favors compression = μ_JT>0 = Z<1 = φ<1Repulsion = favors expansion= μ_JT<0 = Z>1 = φ>1Ideal = μ_JT=0 ; Z=1 ; φ=1
7
Q
(Phychem)It is an intrinsic property of the system, functionally related to its characteristic coordinates at equilibrium. A. Vapor Pressure B. Heat C. Internal Energy D. Work
A
C. Internal Energy
8
Q
(Phychem)The entropy and enthalpy changes of the system are 160 J/K and 178.3 kJ, respectively. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The process is isentropic
B. The process is exothermic
C. The process is always spontaneous
D. The process is spontaneous at T>1115 K
A
D. The process is spontaneous at T>1115 K
9
Q
(Phychem)Which of the following is equivalent to (δU/δS)_V ? A. enthalpy B. temperature C. Pressure D. heat
A
B. Temperature
10
Q
(Phychem)Which is equivalent to (δS/δT)_P * (δT/δP)_S? A. (δV/δT)_P B. -(δV/δT)_P C. (δP/δS)_T D. -(δP/δS)_T
A
A. (δV/δT)_P
11
Q
(Phychem)Which of the following is true for a spontaneous process? A. ΔG>0, K>1 B. ΔG>0, K<1 C. ΔG<0, K>1 D. ΔG<0, K<1
A
C. ΔG<0, K>1
12
Q
(Phychem)What are the signs of ΔG, ΔH, and ΔS of the vaporization of water? A. +,-,+ B. +,-,0 C. -,+,+ D. -, +, 0
A
C. -,+,+SpontaneousEndothermicIncrease in entropy (liquid to gas)
13
Q
(Phychem)For a generic cubic equation, the middle root is \_\_\_\_\_ A. liquid-like B. vapor-like C. liquid-vapor-like D. insignificant
A
D.
14
Q
(Phychem)How many degree/s of freedom are there in this gaseous reaction system? 3H2 + N2 <=> 2NH3 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
A
D.C = 3 components - 1 = 2P = 1 phase = 1DF = 2-1+2 = 3
15
Q
(Phychem)What is the maximum number of phases that can be at equilibrium with each other in a two-component mixture? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
A
C. 4C = 2DF = 00 = 2-P+2P = 4
16
Q
(CPI) producer gas consists mainly of A. CO, CO2, N2, H2 B. CO, H2 C. H2, CH4 D. C2H2, CO2, H2
A
A
17
Q
(CPI) economics of "solvay process" depends upon the efficiency of A. carbonating tower B. ammonia recovery C. ammonia recovery and size of plant D. ammoniation of salt solution
A
C
18
Q
(Phychem)
which of the following statement is correct about ideal gas?
A. the pressure of the gas is equal to the total kinetic energy of the molecules in a unit volume of the gas
B. the product of pressure and volume of the gas is always constant
C. the average kinetic energy of molecule of the gas is proportional to its absolute temperature
D. the average kinetic energy of molecule of the gas is proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature
A
C
19
Q
(Phychem) for ideal gas possessing only translational energy the following relationships are valid except A. Cp =2.5 R B. Cp=Cv - R C. Cv = 1.5R D. Cp/Cv = 1.67
A
B
20
Q
(Phychem) which of the following exist as gas at room temperature? A. Br2 B. Ga C. I2 D. none of these
A
D.
21
Q
(Phychem) the simplest state of matter is A. solid B. liquid C. gas D. plasma
A
C
22
Q
(Phychem) if a given gas has a compressibility factor of Z>1 this means that \_\_\_\_\_ exist between the molecules of gases A. attractive forces B. repulsive forces C. negligible forces of attraction D. negligible repulsive forces
A
B
23
Q
(Phychem) fluids whose viscosity increases as shear rate increases A. dilatant B. pseudoplastic C. newtonian D. bingham plastic
A
A
24
Q
(Phychem) fluids whose viscosity increases with time at constant shear rate A. inviscid B. rheopectic C. thixotropic D. pascalian
A
B
25
```
(Phychem)
one colligative properties of solutions is its freezing point depression which observation will show that the solute is an electrolyte? ΔTf/m _____
A. is not a constant
B. is not Kf
C. is less than Kf
D. is greater than Kf
```
D
26
```
(Phychem)
which of these 0.1 m solutions will give the highest boiling point at 1 atm?
A. table salt solution
B. sugar solution
C. barium chloride
D. potassium chloride
```
C
27
```
(Phychem)
all the half-cell potential (ε°) use the____ as the reference
A. hydrogen electrode
B. oxygen half-cell
C. carbon half-cell
D. arbitrarily net zero point
```
A
28
```
(Phychem)
an electrochemical cell in which chemical reaction is forced to occur by the application of an outside source of energy is
A. galvanic
B. electrolytic
C. electrical
D. chemical
```
B
29
```
(Phychem)
the more negative the value of ε° the more likely the reaction is to proceed from
A. left to right
B. right to left
C. either way
D. can't be determined
```
B
30
(Phychem)
which of the following statements about colligative properties is TRUE?
A. both vapor pressure and freezing point increase when a nonvolatile solute is added to a solvent
B. both freezing point and boiling point increase when the nonvolatile solute is added to a solvent
C. both vapor pressure and boiling point decrease when a nonvolatile solute is added to a solvent
D. colligative properties depend only upon the number of solute particles in a solution and not upon their identity
D
31
```
(Phychem)
the vapor pressure of a liquid
A. always increases with temperature
B. always decreases with temperature
C. is independent of temperature
D. none of these
```
A
32
```
(Phychem)
the lore relating the solubility of the gas to its pressure is called
A. Raoult's law
B. distribution law
C. henry's law
D. Arrhenius law
```
C
33
(Phychem)
when gaseous ammonia is dissolved in water the resulting solution does not obey henry's law. which of the following best explains why this solution does not obey henry's law?
A. all of the ammonia that initially dissolves in water rapidly escapes from the solution because ammonia is a gas at room temperature
B. ammonia reacts with the solvent to produce ammonium and hydroxide ions
C. ammonia is not soluble in water because it is a nonpolar molecule
D. the hydrogen bonding between ammonia molecules is so strong that ammonia cannot be dissolved in water
B
34
```
(Phychem)
for the process C(s) + O2 (g) <=> CO2(g), it is found that ΔG at a given temperature is -10 kcal/mol. which statement is correct at this temperature?
A. the system is in equilibrium
B. co2 will be formed spontaneously
C. co2 will decompose spontaneously
D. the process will proceed reversibly
```
B
35
(Phychem)
for a chemical reaction in a state of equilibrium a decrease in temperature will
A favor the reaction that is exothermic
B. favor the reaction that is endothermic
C. have no effect on the system
D. increase the equilibrium constant of the system
A
36
```
(Phychem)
in a chemical reaction, equilibrium has been established when the
A. opposing reactions ceases
B. concentrations are equal
C. reaction ceases to generate heat
D. net velocities of reactions is zero
```
D
37
(Heat Transfer)
which of the following statements is correct
A. planck's law relates the monochromatic emissive power at a certain temperature and certain wavelength
B. the wavelength at which the blackbody emissive power is a maximum is derived from integrating planck's law
C. the total amount of radiation per unit area leaving a surface with a certain temperature overall wavelengths is derived from differentiating planck's law
D. none of the above
A
38
```
(Heat Transfer)
which of the following is not a property of a black body
A. α = 1.0
B. ε = 1.0
C. ρ = 0
D. k = 0
```
D. k should not be zero (thermal conductivity)
α (absorptivity)
ε (emissivity)
ρ (Reflectivity)
39
```
(Heat Transfer)
in the magnetic spectrum in the wavelength range of 10^-13 to 10^-10 m is
A. cosmic ray
B. gamma ray
C. thermal radiation
D. visible radiation
```
B
| short wavelengths=higher energy
40
```
(GenInorgChem)
who discovered x-rays ?
A. goldstein
B. becquerel
C. Curie
D. Roentgen
```
D. Roentgen
41
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the color of the flame emitted by copper ions
A. red
B. brown
C. purple
D. green
```
```
D
K-purple
Ca-Red
Na-yellow
Ba-Yellow Green
Cu - Turquoise (Green)
Rb-Red
Cesium-Blue
Lithium-Red
```
42
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following is an allowed set of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms)?
A. 3, 4, 2, +1/2
B. 2, 1, -2, +1/2
C. 1, -1, 0, -1/2
D. 4, 3, -2, -1/2
```
D
43
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the valence electron configuration of tellurium?
A. 5p4
B. 5s2 5p4
C. 6p4
D. 6s2 6p4
```
B
44
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following is the correct arrangement of increasing affinity of electrons
A. (lowest)Rb-Sr-Se-Kr (highest)
B. (lowest) Kr-Se-Sr-Rb (highest)
C. (lowest) Kr-Rb-Sr-Se (highest)
D. (lowest) Se-Sr-Rb-Kr (highest)
```
C
45
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following species is the largest
A. iodine atom
B. iodide
C. bromine atom
D. bromide
```
B
46
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following is the incorrect correspondence
A. alkali metals: naturally found in salts
B. noble gases: most are unreactive
C. halogen most are in diatomic form
D. pnictogens have three valence electrons
D
47
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following is the second most abundant element in the earth's crust?
A. Si
B. O
C. H
D. Ca
```
A
O>Si>Al>Fe>Mg>Ca>K>Na (Earth's Crust)
Fe>O>Si>Mg>Ni>S>Ca>Al (Entire Earth)
48
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the third most abundant element in the human body
A. Si
B. O
C. H
D. Ca
```
C
49
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the third most abundant substance in dry air
A. carbon monoxide
B. argon
C. carbon dioxide
D. methane
```
B
50
```
(GenInorgChem)
a certain compound is found to be electrically conductive when in aqueous state but not in its solid state. upon heating in an evaporating dish there is no distinguishable change. which of the following is the most probable identity of the compound
A. metallic
B. ionic
C. covalent molecular
D. covalent network
```
B
51
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the name of the acid with a chemical formula of HN3?
A. hydrazoic acid
B. hydronitric acid
C. hydroazidic acid
D. hydrazic acid
```
A
52
```
(GenInorgChem)
brucite is the mineral form of which compound?
A. lead oxide
B. sodium nitride
C. zinc chloride
D. magnesium hydroxide
```
D
53
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the most common commercial form of manganese sulfate?
A. trihydrate
B. tetrahydrate
C. pentahydrate
D. hexahydrate
```
B
54
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following is false about chemical bonding?
A. different types have different strengths
B. it needs a certain amount of energy to be broken
C. it is the interaction of the molecules with one another
D. none of the above
C
55
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the most thermal and corrosion resistant type of stainless steel?
A. martensitic
B. Ferritic
C.Austenitic
D. duplex
```
C
| Perry pp 25-30
56
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the ratio of the mass of earth and moon
A. 69
B. 81
C. 93
D. 109
```
B
| 5.972(10)^24/7.35(10)^22
57
```
(GenInorgChem)
which functional group has the largest bond energy
A. alkene
B. alkyne
C. carbonyl
D. ether
```
B
58
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the formal charge of chlorine atom in carbon tetrachloride?
A. 0
B. +1
C. -1
D. +7
```
A
59
```
(GenInorgChem)
Which of the following molecular geometry is always polar
A. trigonal bipyramidal
B. square planar
C. trigonal planar
D. seesaw
```
D
60
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following has the lowest bond angle?
A. methane
B. carbon dioxide
C. water
D. ammonia
```
C
61
```
(GenInorgChem)
which will have the strongest interaction with alcohol?
A. benzene
B. cyclohexane
C. acetic acid
D. diethyl ether
```
C
62
(GenInorgChem)
Which of the following is true given the two organic compounds?
I. CH3(CH2)8(CH3)
II. CH3(CH2)7OCH3
A. I has higher boiling point than II
B. I is more volatile than II
C. II has lower viscosity than I
D. II needs less energy to vaporize than I
B
63
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following is the most probable solute-solvent pair?
A. ethanol-kerosene
B. isooctane-heptane
C. benzene-water
D. Na-Br diesel
```
B
64
```
(GenInorgChem)
arrange the proton neutron and electron in increasing mass
A. p-e-n
B. e-p-n
C. e-n-p
D. n-e-p
```
B
65
```
(GenInorgChem)
the constant known as the fundamental number of hydrogen is the
A. Rydberg constant
B. planck's constant
C. fine-structure constan
D. balmer constant
```
D.
66
(GenInorgChem)
in rutherford's experiment, which of the following is true?
A. the proton is evenly distributed in the nucleus of an atom
B. the atom is almost an empty space
C. the nucleus contains proton neutron and electron
D. all of these
B
67
```
(GenInorgChem)
the sum of the number of protons, neutrons and electrons of a zinc ion, Zn+2 is
A. 94
B. 92
C. 95
D. 93
```
```
D
p = 30
e = 28
n = 65.41- 30 = 35.41 round to 35
35+28+30=93
```
68
```
(GenInorgChem)
the region in space where an electron is most likely to be found is called
A. orbital
B. energy level
C. shell
D. nucleus
```
A
69
```
(GenInorgChem)
atoms with the same atomic number but different mass number is called
A. isobars
B. isotopes
C. isotherms
D. isoelectronic
```
B
70
```
(GenInorgChem)
the quantum number that has an allowable value of 0, 1, 2, etc is the
A. magnetic quantum number
B. spin quantum number
C. angular momentum quantum
D. number principal quantum number
```
C
71
```
(GenInorgChem)
it states that no two atoms will have the same set of quantum numbers
A. heisenberg uncertainty principle
B. pauli's exclusion principle
C. Aufbau building up principle
D. hund's rule of multiplicity
```
B
72
```
(GenInorgChem)
what is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum number n = 2, ms = -1/2 ?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 1
D. 4
```
D
| 2n^2/2 = 4 (since spin is -1/2 only)
73
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following properties do not depend on the electronic configuration of the atoms
A. physical
B. chemical
C. nuclear
D. none of the above
```
C
74
```
(GenInorgChem)
in what group of the periodic table is the element with the following electron configuration? [Ar] 4s^2 3d^10 4p^3
A. 1A
B. 2A
C. 3A
D. 5A
```
D
75
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following pairs are isoelectronic?
A. mn+2 and Ar
B. Zn+2 and Cu+2
C. S-2 and Cl-1
D. Na+ and Cl-
```
C
| [Ar]
76
```
(GenInorgChem)
the change in energy when an electron is accepted by a gaseous atom to form an anion
A. electronegativity
B. electron affinity
C. ionization energy
D. activation energy
```
B
77
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following halogens is the most electronegative
A. F
B. Cl
C. Br
D. I
```
A
78
```
(GenInorgChem)
among the members of the chalcogen family which is the most non-metallic
A. sulfur
B. selenium
C. tellurium
D. oxygen
```
D
79
```
(GenInorgChem)
arrange the following in increasing ionization energy
C(1) Na(2) Mg(3) B(4) N(5)
A. 41532
B. 51432
C. 23415
D. 23514
```
C
80
```
(GenInorgChem)
the theory that states that bonding is caused by overlapping of two atomic orbitals
A. valence bond theory
B. molecular orbital theory
C. vital force theory
D. valence shell electron pair repulsion
```
A
81
```
(GenInorgChem)
it pertains to a single bond, double bond triple bond, and those intermediate between single and double bonds etc
A. bond order
B. bond length
C. bond strength
D. bond degree
```
A
82
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following molecules compounds is formed by covalent bonds
A. LiF
B. MgO
C. ZnS
D. BeCl2
```
D
83
```
(GenInorgChem)
a compound whose molecules are not associated by hydrogen bonding is
A. CH3CH2OH
B. (CH3)2NH
C. HCOOH
D. (CH3)3COCH3
```
D
84
```
(GenInorgChem)
type of equilibrium that exists between similar phases is called
A. physical equilibria
B. homogeneous equilibria
C. chemical equilibria
D. heterogeneous equilibria
```
B
85
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following equilibrium system will have its Kp equal to its Kc
A. 2NO(g) + Br2(g) <=> 2NOBr(g)
B. CO(g) + Cl2(g) <=> COCl2(g)
C. H2(g) + I2(g) <=> 2HI(g)
D. N2(g) +3H2(g) <=> 2NH3(g)
```
C
86
```
(GenInorgChem)
oxalic acid + sodium hydroxide --- ____ + H2O
A. Na2CO3
B. NaC2H3O2
C. NaCHO
D. Na2C2O4
```
D
87
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following is an acidic oxide
A. MgO
B. SO2
C. Na2O
D. CaO
```
B
| nonmetallic oxide
88
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following substances in aqeous solution of the same concentration will have the highest boiling point elevation
A. potassium chloride
B. sodium sulfate
C. acetic acid
D. sodium chloride
```
B. Na2SO4
| yields 3 ions
89
```
(GenInorgChem)
Ra-226 decays by alpha emission. what is its decay product
A. 228,87Fr
B. 222,86Rn
C. 230,90Th
D. 226,89Ac
```
B
90
```
(GenInorgChem)
If 238,92U undergoes decay and found to produce 234,90Bi, what other particle was emitted
A. alpha
B. gamma
C. positron
D. electron
```
A
91
```
(GenInorgChem)
it is equivalent to the rate of disintegration of 1 gram of radium
A. becquerels
B. curie
C. gray
D. rem
```
B
92
```
(GenInorgChem)
which of the following particles cannot be accelerated in a particle accelerator?
A. alpha
B. electron
C. neutron
D. proton
```
C
93
(GenInorgChem)
| proposed the theory of electromagnetism and made connection between light and electromagnetic waves
james clerk maxwell
94
(GenInorgChem)
| coined the term isotope
margaret todd
95
(GenInorgChem)
| discovered that the number of protons in an element determines its atomic number
henry moseley
96
(GenInorgChem)
| determine the charge of an electron through his oil drop experiment
robert millikan
97
```
(Analytical Chem)
all of the following is used as a hygroscopic material in desiccators except
A. CaSO4
B. Mg(ClO4)2
C. P2O5
D. CuSO4
```
D
98
```
(Analytical Chem)
analytical methods classified as micro analyses you sample mass ranging from
A. less than 1 mg
B. 1 to 10 mg
C. 10 to 100 mg
D. greater than 100 mg
```
B.
less than 1 mg (ultramicro)
1-10 mg (micro)
10-100 mg (semi-micro)
greater than 100 mg (macro)
99
```
(Analytical Chem)
chemicals which are tested by the manufacturers show the actual percentages of impurities and labeled on the containers are called
A. reagent grade chemicals
B. analytical reagent
C. certified reagent
D. all of these
```
D
100
(Analytical Chem)
platinum crucibles can be used for the following processes without significant loss except
A. fusion with sodium carbonate, borax or alkali bifluorides
B. evaporation with hydrofluoric acid
C. ignition of oxides of Ca and Sr
D. heating with sulfides
D
101
```
(Analytical Chem)
what grade of water as defined by the british standard 3978 is suitable for the determination of trace quantities which can be prepared by the distillation of deionized water
A. grade 1
B. grade 2
C. grade 3
D. grade 4
```
B
102
(Analytical Chemistry)
the following describes colloidal suspensions form during precipitation except
A. these particles are almost invisible to the naked eye
B. they settle readily from a given solution
C. they're not easily filtered
D . none of these
B
103
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following does not describe the correct way to wash precipitates
A. minimum volume of washing liquid must be used to wash the precipitate
B. wash with small portions of washing liquid
C. ionic salts containing common ion must be added to the washing liquid to increase the solubility of the precipitate
D. gelatinous precipitate require more washing than crystalline precipitates
C
104
```
(Analytical Chem)
it is the expressed as the volume of a solution chemical equivalent to a mass of a solid reagent
A. titer
B. aliquot
C. molarity
D. ppm
```
A
105
```
(Analytical Chem)
process by which an agglomerated colloid return to its dispersed state during washing due to leaching of electrolyte responsible for its coagulation
A. nucleation
B. coagulation
C. agglomeration
D. peptization
```
D
106
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following aqueous solutions of the same concentration will have the largest pH value at 25 degC
A. NH3
B. KCl
C. NH4Cl
D. NaF
```
A
107
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following acid base pairs will result in the formation of a buffer solution when titration is done before the equivalence point?
A. NaOH-HCl
B. KOH-HNO3
C. NH3-HBr
D. all of these
```
C
108
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following statements is not correct
A. the buffer capacity is always a positive number
B the larger the buffer capacity the more resistant to solution is to pH change
C. in general alkaline buffering capacity is maximum over a pH range so pKb+/-1
D. the acid buffering capacity is maximum at pH equal to pKa
C
109
```
(Analytical Chem)
the conjugate base of H2PO4 - is
A. HPO4 -2
B. PO4 -3
C. H3PO4
D. P2O5
```
A
110
(Analytical Chem)
in the standardization of an acid solution with primary standard sodium carbonate, why is it necessary to boil the solution before completing the titration?
A. to eliminate the reaction product carbon dioxide and carbonic acid
B. to destroy the buffering action of the resulting solution due to the presence of carbonic acid and unreacted hydrogen carbonate
C. to achieve a sharper endpoint with methyl red indicator due to the large decrease in pH
D. all of these
D
111
```
(Analytical Chem)
what is the best basis for choosing the right indicator for a given acid base titration from among the following?
A. type of acid
B. type of base
C. pH at equivalence point
D. molarity of the acid or base
```
C
112
```
(Analytical Chem)
in the titration of a weak acid with a strong base which of the following is the best indicator to be used
A. bromocresol green
B. methyl orange
C. methyl red
D. phenolphthalein
```
D
113
```
(Analytical Chem)
process of determining the nitrogen content of organic materials by mixing the sample with powdered copper (II) oxide and ignited to a combustion tube giving CO2, H2O, N2 and small amounts of nitrogen oxides
A. Kjeldahl method
B. Dumas Method
C. winkler method
D. Wij's method
```
B
114
```
(Analytical Chem)
in the analysis of nitrogen using kjeldahl method which of the following is added to decompose organic matrices present in the sample
a. H2SO4
b. HgO
C. K2SO4
D. H2O2
```
D
115
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following is not used as primary standard for the standardization of alkalis solutions?
A. HgO
B. H2C2O4
C. HSO3NH2
D. C6H5COOH
```
A
116
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following is not a correct analytical method titrant pair?
A. Mohr-AgNO3
B. Fajans-AgNO3
C. Volhard-AgNO3
D. Liebig-AgNO3
```
C
117
(Analytical Chem)
in volhard method why is it necessary to carry out titration in acidic solution
A. to prevent precipitation of iron as hydrated oxide
B. to prevent formation of AgSCN precipitate
C. to prevent reduction of halide
D. to prevent precipitation of silver as hydrated oxide
A
118
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following ions is best titrated with edta at minimum ph less than 7
A. Ca2+
B. Sr2+
C. Mg2+
D. Fe3+
```
D
119
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following statements is true
A. multidentate chelating agents form weaker complexes with metal ions
B. all metals can be determined with high precision and accuracy using chelometric titration
C. eriochrome black t gives a sharp end point for the titration of calcium
D. calcium-EDTA complex is more stable than magnesium-EDTA complex
D
120
```
(Analytical Chem)
commonly the analyte in a sample is present in two different oxidation states. Pre-reduction is then necessary before titration. one of the metallic reductors is zinc soaked in a dilute solution of mercuric chloride. this reductor is known as
A. walden reductor
B. devarda alloy
C. lindlars catalyst
D. jones redactor
```
D
121
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following is false about iodine as an oxidizing agent in titration
A. standard iodine solutions have low smaller electrode potential
B. sensitive and reversible indicators are readily available
C. iodine is very soluble in water and losses are minimal
D. the solution lacks stability requires regular standardization
C
122
```
(Analytical Chem)
all of the following is used as oxidant in redox titrations except
A. KMnO4
B. Cerium (IV)
C. K2Cr2O7
D. KI
```
D
123
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following metal is not reduced by walden reductor
A. Cr
B. Fe
C. Cu
D. V
```
A
124
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following is used as pre oxidant?
A. sodium bismuthate
B. ammonium peroxydisulfate
C. sodium peroxide
D. all of these
```
D
125
```
(Envi)
The global agreement whose goal is to keep global average temperature 2 degC below the pre-industrial periods and to limit its increase to 1.5 degC.
A. Kyoto Protocol
B. Paris Agreement
C. Stockholm Agreement
D. Montreal Protocol
```
B. Paris Agreement
126
```
(Envi)
type of bacteria involved in denitrification
A. cyanobacteria
B. rhizobium
C. aerobic bacteria
D. anaerobic bacteria
```
D
127
```
(Envi)
a condition caused by excessive exposure to silver dust
a. argyria
b. itai itai disease
c. minimata disease
d. devon colic
```
A
128
```
(Envi)
which of the following pesticides has the highest MCL
A. lindane
B. heptachlor
C. dichloromethane
D. benzene
```
D
| maximum contaminant levels, so least toxic
129
```
(Envi)
the adiabatic lapse rate for a dry atmosphere which may contain water vapor but which has no liquid moisture present in the form of fog, droplets or clouds is approximately
a. 1 degC/1000 m
b. 10 degC/1000 m
c. 100 degC/1000 m
d. 1000 degC/1000 m
```
B
130
```
(Envi)
the condition of the atmosphere where temperature actually increases with altitude near the ground before it begins to decrease with altitude
A. adiabatic
B. subadiabatic
C. inverted
D. superadiabatic
```
C
131
```
(Envi)
in which part of the atmosphere is the ozone layer located
A. exosphere
B. thermosphere
C. mesosphere
D. stratosphere
```
D
132
(Envi)
an act that provides for an ecological solid waste management program in establish the national solid waste management commission
RA 9003
133
(Envi)
this administrative order classified water bodies into five classes for inland freshwater and four classes for marine and coastal water
DAO 2016-08
134
```
(Envi)
industrial water supply class 1 used for manufacturing process after treatment is classified as
A. Class C
B. Class D
C. Class B
D. Class A
```
A
135
```
(Envi)
non recyclable plastic used for plates cups compact disc cases
A. PVC
B. HDPE
C. OTHER
D. PS
```
D
| Polystyrene
136
```
(Envi)
plastic classification number for a non recyclable plastic used for plates cups cd cases
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
```
```
B. 6
1 - PETE
2 - HDPE
3 - PVC
4 - LDPE
5 - PP
6 - PS
7 - OTHER
```
137
```
(Envi)
a facility for recovery of recyclable materials
A. material recycling facility
B. material recovery facility
C.recyclable material facility
D. recovery material facility
```
B
138
(Envi)
which of the following is correct
A. hazardous wastes pose substantial danger now or in the future to living things only
B. hazardous waste must be handled or disposed with special precautions
C. both a and b
D. none of the above
B
139
(Envi)
surface impoundment is
A. an ultimate resting place of waste and must be doubly lined and secured
B. a non containerized accumulation of solid hazardous waste used for temporary storage
C. an excavated or diked area used to store liquid hazardous wastes temporarily
D. an area where wastes are pumped into geologically secure formations
C
140
```
(Envi)
which of the following is not characteristic of hazardous waste
A. ignitable reactive radioactive
B. radioactive infectious ignitable
C. explosive ignitable corrosive
D. ignitable non-recyclable toxic
```
D
141
```
(Envi)
a type of waste control and treatment used to minimize rate of contaminant migration
A. stabilization
B. neutralization
C. ion-exchange
D. source reduction
```
A
142
```
(Envi)
water that has been converted from salt water to freshwater
A. ground water
B. surface water
C. aquifers
D. seawater
```
D
143
```
(Envi)
code of sanitation of the philippines
A. PD 856
B. PD 586
C. PD 658
D. PD 568
```
A
144
```
(Envi)
the property of water that may be caused by dissolved or suspended colloidal particles from decaying leaves and microscopic plants
A. taste
B. odor
C. color
D. turbidity
```
C
145
```
(Envi)
the amount of oxygen needed by microbes for the biochemical reactions that sustain them
A. chemical oxygen demand
B. biological oxygen demand
C.microbial oxygen demand
D. total organic carbon
```
B
146
```
(Envi)
the process of converting ammonia into more stable nitrite and nitrate forms of nitrogen
A. nitrification
B. denitrification
C. nitrogen fixation
D. ammonification
```
A
147
(Envi)
which of the following is correct
A. residual chlorine is toxic in gaseous form but not when diluted in aqueous solutions
B. sulfates pose significant public danger in natural water and wastewater
C. copper and zinc are toxic even with small concentrations in water
D. iron and magnesium cause health problems when dissolved in water
A
148
```
(Envi)
indicator organism for biological parameter of water quality
A. algae
B. protozoa
C. coliform
D. bacillus
```
C
149
```
(Envi)
a technique used for the operational problems caused by variations in influent wastewater flow rate
A. filtration
B. particle removal
C. flow equalization
D. mixing
```
C
150
```
(Envi)
level of wastewater treatment where biological processes are involved
A. preliminary
B. primary
C. secondary
D. tertiary
```
C
151
```
(Envi)
involves the production of an activated mass of microbes capable of stabilizing waste aerobically
A. aerated lagoons
B. anaerobic ponds
C. aerobic ponds
D. activated sludge
```
D
152
```
(Envi)
a colorless gas with a pungent smell at low concentrations that contributes to acid rain
A. sulfur dioxide
B. nitrogen dioxide
C. ozone
D.carbon monoxide
```
A
153
```
(Envi)
organic compounds used as coolant but known as ozone-depleting substances
A. aromatics
B. organics
C. heavy metals
D. chlorofluorocarbons
```
D
154
```
(Envi)
a type of air pollution control equipment that uses electricity to clean particles of the smoke
A. cyclone separator
B. fabric filter
C. electrostatic filter
D. electrostatic precipitators
```
D
155
```
(Envi)
which of the following is not a gas control equipment for air pollution
A. scrubber
b. incineration
C. fabric filter
D. carbon capture and storage
```
B.
156
```
(Envi)
reagent used to measure COD
A. dichromate
B. nitrate
C. bromate
D. perchlorate
```
A
157
```
(Envi)
treatment systems that use natural processes involving wetland vegetation soils and their associated microbial assemblages
A. trickling filters
B. RBCS
C. activated sludge
D. constructed wetlands
```
D
158
(Envi)
| climate change act of 2009
RA 9729
159
```
(Envi)
organisms that make their own food using energy carbon and use light energy to utilize their food
A. heterotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemoautotrophs
D. photo-lithoautotrophs
```
D
160
```
(Envi)
humans are
A. chemoheterotrophs
B. chemoautotrophs
C. photoheterotrophs
D. photoautotrophs
```
A
161
```
(Envi)
occurs within an organism where the concentration of a substance builds up in the tissues and is absorbed faster than it is removed
A. bioamplification
B. biomagnification
C. bioaccumulation
D. bioconcentration
```
C
162
(Envi)
| plastic classification number for juice bottles bleach shampoo bottles and shopping bags
2
| HDPE
163
(Envi)
| plastic classification number for squeezable bottles, bread frozen food package, shopping bags
4
| LDPE
164
```
(Envi)
the process where more harmful substances are produced from less harmful ones
A. synergism
B. eutrophication
C. biomagnification
D. thermal stratification
```
A
165
```
(Envi)
part of the atmosphere where most of photochemical reactions take place
A. stratosphere
B. mesosphere
C. ionosphere
D. troposphere
```
B
166
```
(Envi)
organisms that belong to the second trophic level
A. omnivores
B. herbivores
C. carnivores
D. detritivores
```
B
167
```
(Envi)
process for decomposers return back the nitrogen to the soils through the remains and waste of plants and animals
A. ammonification
B. nitrogen fixation
C. denitrification
D. ammonolysis
```
A
168
```
(Envi)
involves the accumulation of trace metals through each species of the food chain
A. biomagnification
B. thermal inversion
C. anaerobic respiration
D. eutrophication
```
A
169
```
(Envi)
biomes are distinguished or identified by its
A. dominant plant life
B. climate
C. type of plants and animals
D. geographic location
```
A
170
```
(Envi)
denitrification is carried out when bacteria break down nitrates and release nitrogen gas. what are these bacteria
A. anaerobic bacteria
B. rhizobium
C. cyanobacteria
D. aerobic bacteria
```
A
171
```
(Envi)
total uptake of chemicals by an organism from food items as well as via mass transport of dissolved chemicals
A. bioaccumulation
B. biomagnification
C. bioconcentration
D. all of these
```
A
172
```
(Envi)
the resistance of water to the passage of light through it is a measure of the
A. color
B. turbidity
C. hardness
D. dissolved gases
```
B
173
```
(Envi)
the total solids in water are due to the presence of
A. suspended and dissolved solids
B. suspended and floating solids
C. colloidal and settleable solids
D. colloidal and bacterial load
```
A
174
```
(Envi)
which of the following is not a physical characteristic of wastewater
A. Odor
b. hardness
C. turbidity
D. color
```
B
175
```
(Envi)
gas responsible for the rotten egg odor of wastewater
A. ammonia
B. amines
C. mercaptans
D. hydrogen sulfide
```
D
176
```
(Envi)
a trace metal which causes the itai itai disease is
A. cadmium
B. silver
C. mercury
D. chromium
```
A
177
```
(Envi)
it is a phenomenon that results in the overabundance of algae growth in bodies of water. it is also the natural process of nutrient enrichment that occurs over time in the body of water
A. biomagnification
B. thermal inversion
C. anaerobic respiration
D. eutrophication
```
D
178
```
(Envi)
the red brownish color of water is due to the presence of dissolved impurities of
A. bicarbonate
B. sulfate
C. arsenic
D. iron and manganese
```
D
179
```
(Envi)
the alkalinity of wastewater is due to the presence of the following except
A. ammonia
B. dissolved CO2
C. carbonate
D. bicarbonate
```
B
180
```
(Envi)
hardness of water is usually expressed as parts per million of
A. MgSO4
B. Na2CO3
C. CaCO3
D. CaCl2
```
C
181
```
(Envi)
which of the following may be used to measure the assimilative capacity of a stream
A. BOD
B. COD
C. ThOD
D. TOC
```
A
182
```
(Envi)
type of wastewater treatment that employs physical and chemical treatment methods to remove or reduce a high percentage of suspend solid and toxic materials
A. primary treatment
B. secondary treatment
C. tertiary treatment
D. minor treatment
```
A
183
```
(Envi)
process whereby coarse matter (suspended or floating) of a certain size can be strained out of flowing water with the aid of bars, fine wires, or rocks
A. screening
B. flotation
C. sedimentation
D. flocculation
```
A
184
```
(Envi)
removal of all settleable particles rendered settleable under the influence of gravity, basically the theory of gravity under the influence of which all particles heavier than water tend to settle down
A. screening
B. flotation
C. sedimentation
D. flocculation
```
C
185
```
(Envi)
which of the following is not used as adsorbent material
A. activated charcoal
B. fuller's earth
C. silica gel
D. water
```
D
186
```
(Envi)
insufficient washing of sand grains in a rapid sand filter causes
A. air binding
B. mudballs
C. shrinkage of media
D. expansion of media
```
B
187
```
(Envi)
which of the following is not used for the disinfection of water
A. ozone
B. chlorine
C. ultraviolet rays
D. sulfuric acid
```
D
188
```
(Envi)
most aquatic organisms can survive in a pH range of about
A. 3 to 7
B. 7 to 11
C. 6 to 9
D. 5 to 8
```
C
189
```
(Envi)
most commonly used coagulating agent
A. aluminum sulfate
B.ferric sulfate
C. ferric chloride
D. sulfuric acid
```
A
190
```
(Envi)
nitrates more than 50 ppm in water leads to a disease called
A. typhoid
B. mathenoglobenemia
C. gastroenteritis
D. mottled ted
```
B
191
```
(Envi)
the process of killing infective bacteria in water is called
A. coagulation
B. screening
C. sterilization
D. sedimentation
```
C
192
```
(Envi)
the amount of chlorine available in water after the disinfection is called
A. free chlorine
B. residual chlorine
C. free available chlorine
D. combines available chlorine
```
B
193
```
(Envi)
what substance in water is removed by lime soda process
A. odor and taste
B. permanent hardness
C. iron and manganese
D. temporary hardness
```
D
194
```
(Envi)
an electrochemical process used in the removal of colloidal matter in wastewater through reduction of electrostatic charges surrounding the solids
A. coagulation
B. neutralization
C. flocculation
D. precipitation
```
A
195
```
(Envi)
these are accumulated solids removed from separation equipment such as settling tanks and clarifiers
A. flocs
B. suspended solids
C. total dissolved solids
D. sludge
```
D
196
```
(Envi)
water treatment that destroys disease causing bacteria, nuisance bacteria, parasites and other organisms and removes soluble iron, manganese and hydrogen sulfide from water
A. disinfection
B. chlorination
C. flocculation
D. coagulation
```
B
197
```
(Envi)
a neurological disease characterized by trembling inability to walk and speak and even serious convulsions that can lead to death due to indigestion of mercury
A. Scurvy
B. minimata
C. itai-itai
D. argyria
```
B
198
```
(Envi)
type of wastewater treatment that employs biological methods to remove fine, suspended, colloidal and dissolved organics by biochemical oxidation
A. primary treatment
B. secondary treatment
C. tertiary treatment
D. minor treatment
```
B
199
(Envi)
a wastewater with the BOD/COD = 1 indicates that
A. chemical treatment is required
B. biological treatment is most practical
C. the wastewater is highly polluted
D. does not indicate anything
B
200
```
(Envi)
a continuous recirculating aerobic biochemical process that keeps cells in suspended growth
A. activated sludge process
B. cycling filters
C. stabilization ponds
D. aerated lagoons
```
A
201
```
(Envi)
when a sample of water is added to a medium of agar and incubated at 37 degC for 24 hours, colonies of bacteria formed are countered. this test is called
A. total count test
B. presumptive test
C. confirmative tests
D. completed test
```
A
202
```
(Envi)
aeration of water is done to remove
A. suspended impurities
B. floating impurities
C. dissolved salts
D. dissolved gases
```
D
203
```
(Envi)
legislation that presents the revised water usage and classification
A. DENR Administrative Order no. 34
B. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004
C. Water code of the Philippines
D. Republic act 9003
```
A
204
```
(Envi)
class of water intended for primary contact recreation such as bathing swimming skin diving etc
A. class AA
B. class A
C. class B
D. class C
```
C
205
```
(Envi)
what is the atmospheric condition when the lapse rate is greater 10 degrees celsius per km?
A. adiabatic
B. subadiabatic
C. super adiabatic
D. none of these
```
C
206
```
(Envi)
a global treaty that aims to regulate emissions of greenhouse gases
A. stockholm convention
B. montreal protocol
C. kyoto protocol
D. none of this
```
C
Kyoto - greenhouse gases
Montreal - antiozone depletion
Stockholm - reduce POPS
207
```
(Envi)
it is a very unstable gas used for disinfection very powerful oxidant capable of oxidizing 200 to 300 times more than chlorine and can reduce complex taste, odor and color
A. hypochlorite
B. hydrogen peroxide
C. ozone
D. fluorine
```
C
208
```
(Envi)
a phenomenon where a cold layer of air becomes trapped by a layer of warmer air above due to a lack of wind circulation or the presence of certain topographical features, such as mountains, resulting to air pollution being trapped in the lower, cooler layers of the troposphere
A. global warming
B. thermal inversion
C. greenhouse effect
d. anaerobic respiration
```
B
209
```
(Envi)
this provides the blueprint for action towards sustainable development
A. earth summit
B. agenda 21
C. montreal draft
D. POPS convention
```
B
210
```
(Envi)
generic term used to describe the particulate matter carried in the effluent gases from furnaces burning fossil fuels
A. PM10
B. TSP
C. fly-ash
D. ESP
```
C
211
```
(Envi)
these reddish brown oxide in concentrated form produce an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the lungs
A. COx
B. SOx
C. NOx
D. TSP
```
C
212
```
(Envi)
these are closed compartments that use gravitational force to extract those and mist and typically used only for larger particles
a. electrostatic precipitator
B. settling chamber
C. cyclone device
D. wet collectors
```
B
213
```
(Envi)
a global treaty that aims to diminish and eventually phase out chlorofluorocarbons
A. stockholm convention
B. montreal protocol
C. kyoto protocol
D. none of these
```
B
214
```
(Envi)
it is described as the cloud of air pollution trapped by thermal inversion
A. CFC
B. smog
C. NOx
D. SO2
```
B
215
```
(Envi)
a global treaty that aims to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants
A. stockholm convention
b. montreal protocol
C. kyoto protocol
D. none of these
```
A
216
```
(Envi)
PAN is a powerful lachrymator or tear producer formed from unburned hydrocarbons aldehydes nitrogen oxides and oxygen. PAN stands for
A. peroxyacetyl nitrate
B. peroxyallyl nitrate
C. peroxyamyl nitrate
D. peroxyalkyl nitrate
```
A
217
```
(Envi)
component of CFCs that causes destruction of 100,000 molecules of ozone
A. carbon
B. chlorine
C. fluorine
D. hydrogen
```
B
218
```
(Envi)
it is used as bonding agents in building and furniture construction which may cause drowsiness, nausea and headaches when exposed to low level concentration
A. formaldehyde
B. radon
C. PAN
D. CO
```
A
219
```
(Envi)
the liquid produced when water percolates through any permeable material. it can contain either dissolved or suspended material or usually both, anoxic acidic, rich in organic acid groups, sulfate ions and with high concentrations of common metal ions especially iron
A. sludge
B. leachate
C. bottom ash
D. all of these
```
B
220
```
(Envi)
recyclable material labeled as number 3
A. PET
B. PS
C. PVC
D. HDPE
```
C
221
```
(Envi)
it is defined as the controlled decomposition of organic materials such as leaves grass and food scraps
A. composting
B. putrefaction
C. incineration
D. recycling
```
A
222
```
(Envi)
type of recycling that involves recovery of chemicals or energy from post-consumer waste materials
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
```
C
223
```
(Envi)
which of the following is not classified as heavy industry in the list of environmentally critical projects
A. iron and steel industry
B. non-ferrous metal industry
C. smelting plants
D. forestry projects
```
D
224
(GenInorg)
| Mass Ratio of Sun to Earth
333000
225
volume ratio of earth to moon
49.33
226
volume ratio of sun to earth
1304000
227
distance from earth to moon
384400
228
distance from earth to sun
149.6 million km
229
radius of the earth
6371 km
230
radius of the moon
1737.1 km
231
radius of sun
695519 km
232
percentage of water in celery
95
233
percentage of water in watermelon
92
234
percentage of water in brain
75
235
percentages of hydrogen helium and oxygen in the universe
74% H, 23% Helium, balance oxygen
236
most abundant elements in the earth's core
iron nickel gold platinum uranium
237
the least dense metal is_____ while the densest element is _____
Li, Os
238
inert gas used in light bulbs to retard the vaporization of tungsten filament
Ar
239
lightweight metal used in aircraft construction, high voltage transmission lines, beverage cans and foils
Al
240
strong lightweight corrosion-resistant metal that is used in rockets aircraft jet engines and bicycle frames
Ti
241
a poisonous gas because it binds very strongly to hemoglobin in the blood
CO
242
used to purify air in spacecraft submarines because it absorbs carbon dioxide
LiOH
243
used as an inhalation anesthetic though it is a toxic substance
chloroform
244
white substance with opaque and non-toxic properties which makes it suitable as a pigment and plastics and
titanium(IV) oxide
245
used in the vulcanization of rubber
disulfur dichloride
246
important industrial chemical used in fertilizers detergents and food industry
phosphoric acid
247
emitted by fruits and is known to be responsible for the ripening
ethylene
248
used as antifreeze in car radiators
ethylene glycol
249
substance whose aroma the human nose can detect in the smallest amount
vanillin
250
used in perfumery soap and cosmetics
cinnamic alcohol
251
compound responsible for the characteristic smell of garlic
allicin
252
```
(OrgChem)
which of the following orbitals overlap to form a σ bond in a triple bond?
A. s-s
B. sp3-sp3
C. sp-sp
D. p-p
```
C
253
```
(OrgChem)
A π bond is the result of the
A. overlap of two s orbitals
B. overlap of an s and a p orbital
C. sideways overlap of 2s orbitals
D. sideways overlap of two parallel p orbitals
```
D
254
```
(OrgChem)
How many 1°, 2°, 3°, and 4° (respectively) carbon atoms does the alkane CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2CH(CH3)2 have?
A. 4, 2, 2, 1
B. 5, 2, 1, 1
C. 5, 1, 2, 1
D. 6, 1, 1, 1
```
B
255
```
(OrgChem)
which isomer of hexane as only two sets of structurally equivalent hydrogen atoms?
A. 2-methylpentane
B. 3-methylpentane
C. 2,2-dimethylbutane
D. 2,3-dimethylbutane
```
D
256
```
(OrgChem)
the conversion of an alkene to an alcohol is an example of a ____ reaction.
A. addition
B. elimination
C. substitution
D. rearrangement
```
A
257
(OrgChem)
Which of the following statements applies to a C10H14O2 compound?
A. it may have one triple bond and three rings
B. it may have no double bonds and three rings
C. it may have two double bonds and two rings
D. it may have three double bonds and zero rings
(2+2C-H+N-X)/2 = 4
| C
258
```
(OrgChem)
The most stable among the following free radicals is
A. CH3•
B.(CH3)3C•
C. (CH3)2CH•
D. (CH3)2CHCH2•
```
B
| tertiary carbocation is the most stable cation among the three
259
```
(OrgChem)
alkanes undergo this type of reaction
A. electrophilic addition
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophilic substitution
D. nucleophilic substitution
```
A
260
```
(OrgChem)
which of the following reactions can reduce an alkene yielding an alkane
A. oxidation
B. bromination
C. hydrogenation
D. polymerization
```
C
261
```
(OrgChem)
Which compound is a likely product from addition of Cl2 to 1-butene?
A. CH3CH2CCl2CH3
B. CH3CH2CH2CHCl2
C. CH3CH2CHClCH2Cl
D. ClCH2CH2CH2CH2Cl
```
C
262
```
(OrgChem)
all of the following reactions are oxidation except
A. ozonolysis
B. epoxidation
C. hydroxylation
D. hydrogenation
```
D
263
```
(OrgChem)
which of the following is/are characteristics of an aromatic compound
I. it is cyclic and planar
II. it is completely conjugated
III. it is composed of even-numbered carbon atoms
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and IIIB
D. I, II, and III
```
B
264
```
(OrgChem)
which of the following substituents is NOT an ortho, para director in an EAS reaction?
A. -Cl
B. -OH
C. -NO2
D. -CH3
```
```
C
meta directors:
-CN
-COH
-COOH
-COR
-COOR
-SO3H
-CF3
-NO2
-NR3
```
265
(OrgChem)
which of the following describes the effect of a nitro group (-NO2) as a substituent in EAS?
A. weakly activating, meta directing
B. strongly deactivating, meta directing
C. strongly activating, ortho-para directing
D. weakly activating, ortho-para directing
B
266
```
(OrgChem)
consider the following alkyl halides:
A. 1-chloropentane
B. 2-chloropentane
C. 2-chloro-3-methylbutane
D. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
```
which of the following will undergo SN2 reaction most readily?
which will form the most stable carbocation in an SN1 reaction?
A (less bulky for SN2)
| D (higher degree carbocation for SN1)
267
```
(OrgChem)
how is the rate affected when the concentration of the nucleophile is doubled in an E1 reaction?
A. the rate is halved
B. the rate is doubled
C. the rate quadruples
D. the rate is unchanged
```
D
268
```
(OrgChem)
A. 2-pentanol
B. 2-methyl-1-pentanol
C. 3-methyl-3-pentanol
D. none of the above
```
which alcohol would react quickly with lucas reagent (equimolar amounts of HCl and ZnCl2)?
which alcohol would be oxidized to an aldehyde upon reacting with a weak oxidizing agent?
which alcohol would be oxidized to a ketone upon reaction with jones reagent?
C
B
A
269
(OrgChem)
which of the following is true about the reactivity of phenols?
A. Phenols form colored complexes with Fe3+
B. Phenols don't react with CrO3 dissolved in acid
C. Phenols don't react with AgNO3 dissolved in NH3
D. Phenols are inert towards strong bases such as NaOH
A
270
(OrgChem)
which of the following is true about ethers?
A. ethers are completely soluble in water
B. ethers are reactive towards strong acids
C. ethers are not soluble in organic solvents
D. ethers form colored complexes with Fe3+
B
271
```
(OrgChem)
aldehydes and ketones react with hydride reagents to form
A. alkanes
B. alkenes
C. alcohols
D. ethers
```
C
272
```
(OrgChem)
carbonyl compounds undergo this type of reaction
A. electrophilic addition
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophilic substitution
D. nucleophilic substitution
```
B
273
```
(OrgChem)
each reagent reacts with both aldehydes and ketones
A. KMnO4
B. KI, I2, NaOH
C. Ammoniacal AgNO3
D. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
```
D
| ammoniacal AgNO3 detects aldehydes only
274
```
(OrgChem)
What is the reaction of benzyl alcohol with K2Cr2O7?
A. benzoic acid
B. benzaldehyde
C. benzyl chloride
D. benzophenone
```
A
275
```
(OrgChem)
A. butane (58 g/mol)
B. propanal (58g/mol)
C. 1-butanol (60g/mol)
D. acetic acid (60g/mol)
```
Which will have the highest boiling point?
Which will react with tollen's reagent (ammoniacal AgNO3)?
Which will react with aqueous NaOH?
D (carboxylic acid)
B (tollen's react only with aldehyde)
D (acid reacts with base)
276
```
(OrgChem)
what do malic, citric and tartaric acids have in common?
A. they are keto acids
B. they are found in fruits
C. they are chiral molecules
D. they contain aromatic rings
```
B
277
```
(OrgChem)
what is the product when an acyl chloride reacts with an alcohol?
A. ester
B. aldehyde
C. acid anhydride
D. carboxylic acid
```
A
278
```
(Biochem)
which monosaccharide is the most abundant among the aldoses?
A. D-glucose
B. D-fructose
C. D-mannose
D. D-galactose
```
A
279
```
(Biochem)
this is a general test for all sugars
A. fehlings test
B. bromine water
C. molisch test
D. benedict's test
```
C
| Fehling's and Benedict's classify reducing from non-reducing
280
```
(Biochem)
the major form in which polysaccharide are stored in animals
A. starch
B. glycogen
C. cellulose
D. raffinose
```
B
281
```
(Biochem)
they are the simplest hydrolyzable lipids. they are esters formed from a high molecular weight alcohol and a fatty acid
A. waxes
B. triglycerides
C. sphingolipids
D. phospholipids
```
A
282
```
(Biochem)
they are the most abundant lipids. they are triesters of glycerol and fatty acids.
A. Waxes
B. Triglycerides
C. Sphingolipids
D. Phospholipids
```
B
283
```
(Biochem)
they are mixtures of phosphoacylglycerols and appear as yellow brownish fatty substances. they are usually available from sources such as soybeans, eggs and milk. they can easily be extracted using hexane, ethanol, acetone, etc. they have excellent emulsifying and homogenizing properties
A. prostaglandins
B. Sphingomyelins
C. Lecithins
D. Cephalins
```
C
284
(Biochem)
| arrange the following fatty acids in order of increasing melting point: oleic, stearic, palmitic, linoleic acid.
Linoleic, oleic, palmitic, stearic
"LAUra looks at her wRIST and PALM and STares At her BEH-LI"
```
Lauric (12)
Myristic (14)
Palmic (16)
Stearic (18)
Arachidic (20)
Behenic (22)
Lignoceric (24)
```
Oleic (18:1)
Linoleic (18:2)
Linolenic (18:3)
285
```
(Biochem)
all of the following amino acids are basic side chains except
A. L-lysine
B. L-Arginine
C. L-histidine
D. L-leucine
```
D
286
```
(Biochem)
all of the following are essential amino acids except
A. L-tryptophan
B. L-phenylalanine
C. L-alanine
D. L-methionine
```
```
C
PVT TIM HALL
Phenylalanine
Valine
Typtophan
Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine
Histidine
Arginine
Leucine
Lysine
```
287
```
(Biochem)
these proteins are composed of long linear polypeptide chains that are bundled together to form rods or sheets. these proteins are insoluble in water and serve structural roles giving strength and protection to tissues and cells
A. enzymes
B. fibrous proteins
C. globular proteins
D. transport proteins
```
B
288
(Analytical Chem)
A 0.005-g sample of a rock is to be analyzed and iron is to be determined at the ppm level. what is the type of analysis and type of constituent?
A. micro analysis of a trace constituent
B. meso analysis of a minor constituent
C. macroanalysis of a major constituent
D. ultra micro analysis of an ultra trace constituent
```
A
macro (more than 100 mg)
meso (10-100 mg)
micro (0.1-10 mg)
ultra micro (less than 0.1)
```
major (more than 1%)
minor (0.01-1%)
trace (E-7-0.01%)
ultra trace (less than E-7%)
289
```
(Analytical Chem)
these are portions of a material of approximately the same size that are carried through an analytical procedure at the same time and in the same way
A. aliquots
B. samples
C. standards
D. replicates
```
D
290
```
(Analytical Chem)
A process wherein the precipitate is heated in the mother liquor and allowed to stand in contact with the solution
A. inclusion
B. digestion
C. occlusion
D. peptization
```
B
291
```
(Analytical Chem)
What is the process wherein a coagulated precipitate reverts to smaller particles?
A. peptization
B. coagulation
C. flocculation
D. agglomeration
```
A
292
```
(Analytical Chem)
all of the following are weak acids except
A. HCN
B. HNO2
C. HClO3
D. H2C2O4
```
C
293
```
(Analytical Chem)
when a 0.001 M aqueous solution of each of the following compounds is prepared which solution will have the greatest electrical conductivity
A. NH3
B. HCl
C. SO2
D. CH3COOH
```
B
294
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following statements about the equivalent point of an acid-base titration is true?
A. it is where the ph is 7.0
B. it is the same as the indicator endpoint
C. it is where the entire volume of the buret has been used
D. it is the point where there is an equivalent amount of titrant and titrand
D
295
(Analytical Chem)
what is the stoichiometry of EDTA with metal ions?
A. it is 1:6, because EDTA is a hexaprotic weak acid with six distinct acid dissociation values
B. it is 1:4, because EDTA has four binding sites upon loss of the four carboxylic acid protons
C. it is 1:1 because EDTA forms a cage-like structure around the metal ion
D. it is dependent on the metal ion present
C
296
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following is not a desirable property of an indicator to be used in complexometric titration that involves EDTA?
A. the indicator should be a lewis base
B. the indicator should bind more tightly to the metal ion than does EDTA
C. the complexation reaction between the indicator and the analyte metal should be reversible
D. the uncomplexed form of the indicator should be a different color than the indicator-metal complex
B
297
```
(Analytical Chem)
what is the secondary valence of the Ca-EDTA complex?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
```
D
298
```
(Analytical Chem)
which of the following factors causes a decrease in solubility?
A. weak acid formation
B. common ion effect
C. complex ion formation
D. weak base formation
```
B
299
```
(Analytical Chem)
in this argentometric method, halides are determined directly employing AgNO3 as titrant.
A. Mohr
B. Liebig
C. Warder
D. Volhard
```
A
300
```
(Analytical Chem)
in redox reactions involving MnO4 - in acidic medium, what is the normality of KMnO4?
A. N= M*1
B. N= M*3
C. N=M*5
D. N=M*7
```
C
301
```
(Analytical Chem)
in redox reactions involving Cr2O7 2-, what is the equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7? in acidic medium, Cr2O7 2- is converted to Cr3+
A. EW = MW
B. EW = MW/2
C. EW = MW/3
D. EW = MW/6
```
D
302
```
(Analytical Chem)
it is the indirect determination of an analyte (oxidizing agent) which is added to excess iodide to produce iodine which is then titrated with standard size sulfate solution
A. Iodimetry
B. Iodometry
C. Argentometry
D. Permanganimetry
```
B
303
```
(BioChE)
which of the following microorganisms is primarily used for ethanol production?
A. protozoa
B. bacteria
C. yeast
D. archaea
```
C
304
```
(BioChE)
which equation is used to model microbial growth
A. michaelis-menten
B. langmuir
C. freundlich
D. monod
```
D
305
(BioChE)
at steady-state operation of bioreactors, what is the relationship between specific growth rate and dilution rate
A. they are approximately equal
B. the specific growth rate is greater than the dilution rate
C. they are reciprocals of each other
D. the dilution rate is greater than the specific growth rate
A
306
```
(BioChE)
what is the basis of the sterilization condition at 15 psi and 121 °C for 15 minutes?
A. energy savings
B. Equipment limits
C. bacterial spores
D. medium stability
```
C
307
(BioChE)
which of the following statements is false ?
A. growth associated products are directly involved in cellular metabolism
B. the heating stage to cooling stage for sterilization takes 15 minutes
C. the ratio Nt/N0 is also called the survival factor
D. the dilution rate can be used to regulate microbial growth rate
B
308
```
(BioChE)
the del factor increases when the final cell number
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. reached zero
```
B
309
```
(BioChE)
these are the most abundant organic molecules in living cells
A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
D. fats
```
A
310
```
(BioChE)
type of bacteria that are considered to be ancient organisms such as methanogens, halobacteria and thermoacidophiles
A. archaebacteria
B. eubacteria
C. bacteriophage
D. virus
```
A
311
```
(BioChE)
which of the following is not a steroid?
A. sex hormones
B. cholesterol
C. adrenocortical hormones
D. prostaglandin
```
D
312
```
(BioChE)
bacteria which convert alcoholic solution to vinegar are
A. coli
B. acetobacters
C. bacilli
D. proteins
```
B
313
```
(BioChE)
the biological decomposition of organic matter is accompanied by the production of foul smelling products in an anaerobic condition is
A. pollution
B. putrefaction
C. dissolution
D. stabilization
```
B
314
```
(BioChE)
a waste treatment process by which biologically active growths are continuously circulated with incoming biodegradable waste in the presence of oxygen is
A. activated sludge process
B. stabilization process
C. agitation process
D. trickling filter process
```
A
315
```
(BioChE)
the temperature at which a microorganism is killed within the period of 10 minutes
A. SCP
B. TDP
C. TDT
D. ATP
```
B (thermal death point)
316
```
(BioChE)
a visible concentrated growth of algae or other aquatic life/plants is called
A. phytoplankton
B. amoeba
C. bloom
D. zooplankton
```
C
317
```
(BioChE)
materials in which microorganisms are grown in a laboratory are
A. nutrients
B. substrates
C. enzymes
D. culture media
```
D
318
```
(BioChE)
this is the early period of growth where the organism adjusts to its new environment
A. stationary phase
B. logarithmic phase
C. lag phase
D. decline phase
```
C
319
```
(BioChE)
genetic information is stored in the structure of the DNA molecule. which of the following obtains the code for protein synthesis from DNA and serves as the template for peptide formation
A. transfer rna
B. messenger rna
C. ribosomal rna
D. colon
```
B
320
```
(BioChE)
is there are several forms suggested by which the hyperbolic michaelis-menten equation may be expressed linearly. if the substrate concentration S is plotted against reaction velocity V, a linear plot is obtained the equation is called
A. lineweaver and burke
B. eadie-hofstee
C. haynes-woolf
D. Eisentahl and cornish-bowden
```
D
321
```
(BioChE)
the enzyme in the stomach is
A. urease
B. papase
C. pepsin
D. bromelis
```
C
322
```
(BioChE)
the organism that reproduces by sporulation is
A. bacteria
B. molds
C. protozoa
D. yeast
```
B
323
```
(BioChE)
organism that grows or uses carbon dioxide as its principle carbon source
A. autotroph
B. aerobe
C. mesophile
D. heterotroph
```
A
324
```
(BioChE)
a basic amino acid is
A. alanine
B. lysine
C. serine
D. cystein
```
B
325
```
(BioChE)
the time to kill all bacteria in a particular culture at the specified temperature
A. SCP
B. TDP
C. TDT
D. ATP
```
C
| thermal death time
326
```
(BioChE)
bacteria which grow over the temperature of 30 °C to 40 °C are called
A. psychrophiles
B. hydrophiles
C. mesophiles
D. thermophiles
```
C
327
```
(BioChE)
group of microorganisms that grow in the presence of low oxygen concentration are
A. pathogens
B. bacteria
C. fungi
D. microaerophiles
```
D
328
```
(BioChE)
these are very small bound particles that release digestive enzymes and contribute to the digestion of nutrients in a cell
A. endoplasmic reticulum
B. golgi bodies
C. lysosomes
D. mitochondria
```
C
329
(BioChE)
hydrolysis of one mole of sucrose gives
A. one mole of glucose and one mole of galactose
B. one mole of glucose and one mole of fructose
C. two moles of glucose
D. one mole of mannose and one mole of glucose
B
330
```
(BioChE)
method used to free milk from disease or germs
A. lyophitization
B. Pateurization
C. Fermentation
D. Putrefaction
```
B
331
(BioChE)
| the powerhouse of the cell is called
mitochondria
332
```
(BioChE)
the microorganism utilized in the production of pickles is
A. acetobacter
B. lactic acid bacteria
C. streptomyces griseus
D. aspergillus sojae
```
B
333
```
(BioChE)
the color of fruit like papaya is attributed to a pigment which is a precursor of vitamin A. this substance is
A. lecithin
B. carotene
C. lipoprotein
D. riboflavin
```
B
334
```
(BioChE)
hormone secreted by the pancreas that regulates glucose metabolism is called
A. bile
B. insulin
C. alanine
D. cortisol
```
B
335
```
(BioChE)
the disaccharide formed by β-glycosidic bond is
A. sucrose
B. lactose
C. maltose
D. glucose
```
B
336
```
(BioChE)
in phototrophic cells the ____ is the organelle serving as the major cell powerhouse
A. mitochondria
B. chloroplast
C. lysosomes
D. golgi bodies
```
B
337
```
(BioChE)
defined as the quantity of enzymes needed to transform 1.0 micromole of substrate to product per minute at 30 °C and optimal pH
A. international unit
B. enzyme unit
C. catalytic unit
D. all of these
```
A
338
```
(BioChE)
the only source that naturally contains vitamin d
A. sunlight
B. meat
C. fish oil
D. orange
```
C
339
```
(BioChE)
which of the following vitamins is water soluble
A. vitamin c
B. vitamin a
C. vitamin d
D. vitamin e
```
A
340
```
(BioChE)
it states that there is a topographical structural compatibility between an enzyme and its substrate
A. lock and key theory
B. michaelis-menten model
C. briggs haldane model
D. compatibility theory
```
A
341
```
(BioChE)
plants that are devoid of chlorophyll and are therefore unable to synthesize their own food
A. fungi
B. bacteria
C. virus
D. none of these
```
A
342
```
(BioChE)
the fundamental cause of sickle cell disease is a change in the structure of
A. red cells
B. hemoglobin
C. capillaries
D. blood
```
B
343
```
(BioChE)
which of the following is a saturated fatty acid
A. oleic acid
B. linoleic acid
C. arachidonic acid
D. palmitic acid
```
D
344
```
(BioChE)
a measure of the degree of unsaturation of a fatty acid
A. acid number
B. iodine number
C. saponification number
D. deborah number
```
B
345
```
(BioChE)
these are DNA or RNA coated protein that may or may not be considered as living things
A. protozoa
B. bacteria
C. algae
D. virus
```
D
346
```
(BioChE)
non photosynthetic eukaryotes highly organised with soil as its major habitat
A. fungi
B. virus
C. protozoa
D. bacteria
```
C
