conditions Flashcards

1
Q

pathophysiology behind Parkinson’s

A

loss of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

if someone presents with Parkinson’s and autonomic dysfunction eg pissing themselves or postural hypotension what is diagnosis

A

multi system atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is the tremor in Parkinsons symmetrical or asymmetrical

A

asymmetrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is rigidity distinguished from spascity

A

rigidity is velocity dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what test is used to identify bradykinesia in Parkinson

A

tap index finger and thumb together should have decreased amplitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what scan helps to distinguish Parkinson’s from dystonia

A

DAT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what test should be done in a younger patient presenting with Parkinson’s symptoms

A

DAT, MRI , bloods as Wilsons disease can cause Parkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is motor neurone disease

A

cluster of degenerative diseases assoc with selective loss of motor neurons in either motor cortex, CN nuclei and anterior horn of spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what kind of MND is most common

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ALS or Lou Gehrig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

median survival after onset of MND

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

average age of diagnosis of MND

A

64 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is MND most likely to present

A

muscle weakness most commonly upper limb. may be bulbar onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe ALS and classic symptoms

A
mixed upper and lower motor neurone deficit 
weak grip and arm abduction 
stumbling gait 
foot drop 
drooling and dysarthria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what drug can be given in MND to prolong life

A

riluzole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what criteria system is used in MND

A

EL ESCORIAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what additional medication is commonly given in MND

A

anticholinergic for drosling and baclofen for muscle spasms and cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what kind of dementia is MND associated with

A

frontotemporal dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what would distinguish MND from myasthenia graves

A

and doesn’t affect the eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what would distinguish MS from MND

A

no sensory or sphincter involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is syndenhams chorea

A

chorea seen In children after infection (strep throat )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a stroke defined as

A

sudden disturbance of cerebral function of vascular origin that causes death or lasts 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

whats more likely a haemorrhage or thrombosis embolic stroke

A

thrombosis embolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what artery is most commonly affected in thrombotic cerebral infarction

A

MCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

where is atheroma most likely to originate from in emboli cerebral infarction

A

ICA or aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is charcot Marie foot also known as
hereditary sensory motor neuropathy
26
high arched foot, champagne bottle deformity and lower limb distal muscle weakness
charcot marie tooth
27
early viral exposure to what may predispose to MS
EBV
28
when does MS present
30-40s
29
F:M ratio of MS
3:1
30
describe progressive relapsing form of MS
slowly gets worse and has flair ups. After flair up is worse than prior to it
31
clinical features of MS
optic neuritis , pyramidal dysfunction (weakness) , sensory symptoms, lower urinary tract dysfunction, cerebella r and brain stem features, cognitive impairment
32
symptoms of optic neuritis
painful eye movements and visual loss that resolves
33
how many episodes have to have occurred for diagnosis of MS
minimum 2 episodes
34
what is seen in CSF in MS and not in serum
IgG oligoclonal bands
35
what test may be used to diagnose MS
MRI, CSF, neurophysiology and bloods - PV, FBC CRp should all be normal
36
what is first line treatment for remitting relapsing MS
tefidera and interferons and Glitiramer Acetate
37
what is second line treatment for MS
fingolimed/cadrabine and monoclonal antibodies
38
what is seen macroscopically in the brain in MS
plaques of inflammation - well demaricated- ill defined if active
39
a GCS of less than what on initial assessment would indicate CT within an hour
<13
40
a CT within 1 hour of head injury would be indicated if how many episode of vomiting
>1
41
what traumatic haematoma would be suspected if they present with a lucid interval
extradural haematoma
42
what neurotransmitter is released in excitotoxicity and subsequently what ion
glutamate and calcium
43
who can certify brainstem death
2 doctors one must be a consultant
44
what immune cells are activated in MS
t-cells
45
are gliosis seen in MND
yes
46
what protein does CAG code for
glutamine
47
below what age is Alzheimers classed as early onset
<65
48
what genes are implicated in Alzheimers
Amyloid precursor protein (APP) | presnilin 1 and 2
49
what dementia is seen in downs syndrome
alzheimers
50
what are neuritic plauques formed of in Alzheimers
A-beta amyloid core and astrocyte peripherally
51
what protein is dysregulated in Alzheimers
tau
52
what is seen microscopically in Alzheimers
neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques
53
what does amyloid precursor protein cleave ?
a-beta (aka b-amyloid protein)
54
what chromosome is the APP gene found on
21
55
what apoliipoportine is associated with Alzheimers
e4
56
what area of the brain atrophies 1st in Alzheimers
hippocampus found in temporal lobe
57
what is a Lewy body
intracytoplsmic eosinophilic inclusion with dense core surrounded by alpha-synuclei fibrils
58
describe features of Lewy body dementia
progressive dementia along with hallucinations and fluctuating levels of attention and cognition
59
what neurotransmitter is release at NMJ
ACh
60
name 2 pre-synaptic disorders of the NMJ
botulism and Lambert eaton myasthenia syndrome
61
describe pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis
autoimmune antibodies against post synaptic Each receptor
62
conditions of what other organ are seen in myasthenia graves
thymus abnormalities
63
describe Lambert eaton
antibodies to pe-synpatic calcium channel
64
what carcinoma is associated with Lambert eaton syndrome
small cell carcinoma
65
treatment of Lambert eaton
3,4, diaminopyridine
66
treatment of myasthenia graves
pyridostigmine IV Ig thymectomy
67
diagnosis of myasthenia graves
nerve conduction with repetitive stimulation
68
what drug should be avoided in myasthenia graves
gentamicin
69
marker of polymyositis and treatment
increased CK and steroids
70
what drugs can cause myopathies
statins, amiodarone, diuretics and steroids
71
what spills from muscle into plasma in rhabdomyolysis
potassium , PO4, myoglobin
72
describe transiten global amnesia
abrupt onset anterograde >retrograde amnesia repetition transit 4-6 hours generally a one off
73
describe sporadic CJD
rapid onset dementia , neurological signs and myoclonus
74
prognosis for sporadic CJD
4 months
75
what atypical kind of Alzheimers did Terry prachett have
posterior cortical atrophy
76
symptoms of posterior cortical atrophy
visuospatial disturbances, visual agnosia
77
what type of Alzheimers results in loss of language first
primary progressive aphasia