Conditions Facts Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

What is the difference between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

A

systolic means the ventricles fail to contract, causing decreased cardiac output
diastolic means the ventricles cannot relax, causing increased filling pressure

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2
Q

What can cause systolic heart failure?

A

ischaemia, MI, cardiomyopathy

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3
Q

What can cause diastolic heart failure?

A

constrictive pericarditis, tamponade

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4
Q

How does left ventricular failure present?

A

(paroxysmal nocturnal) dyspnoea, poor exercise tolerance, nocturanl cough with pink frothy sputum, wheeze, weight loss

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5
Q

How does right ventricular failure present?

A

peripheral oedema, ascites, nausea, anorexia, tricuspid regurgitation

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6
Q

What can cause right ventricular failure?

A

LVF, pulmonary stenosis, lung disease

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7
Q

What investigations should be carried out for heart failure?

A

ECG, B-type natriuretic peptide, CXR

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8
Q

What will a chest X ray show for LVF?

A
Alveolar oedema
B lines (Kerley B)
Cardiomegaly
Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels
Effusion of pleural category
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9
Q

How should heart failure be treated?

A
Loop diuretic to relieve symptoms (furosemide)
ACE inhibitor
Beta blocker (carvedilol)
Spironolactone (potassium sparing)
Digoxin (not always)
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10
Q

Who should be treated for hypertension?

A

Those with blood pressure (sustained) of 160/100

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11
Q

What is maligant hypertension?

A

systolic > 200 and diastolic >130

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12
Q

What may you also get with malignant hypertension?

A

headaches, blurred vision

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13
Q

What is the first line therapy for over 55s?

A

calcium channel blocker (or thiazide)

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14
Q

What is the first line therapy for under 55s (non black)?

A

ACE inhibitors

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15
Q

What is the combination therapy for hypertension?

A

ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker

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16
Q

Which calcium channel blocker must be given with a beta blocker because it causes tachycardia?

A

amlodipine

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17
Q

How is rheumatic fever diagnosed?

A

evidence of recent strep infection plus 2 major criteria or 1 major and 2 minor

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18
Q

What are the major criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

carditis, arthirits, erythema, sydenham’s chorea

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19
Q

What are minor criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
prolonged PR interval
arthralgia
previous rheumatic fever
fever
raised CRP or ESR
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20
Q

What is the treatment for rheumatic fever?

A
bed rest
penicillin or benzylpenicillin 250-500mg 3 times per day for 5 days
Analgesia
Immobilise joints in arthiritis
haloperidol or diazepam for chorea
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21
Q

What are signs of mitral stenosis?

A

malar flush on cheeks, palpable first beat sounds, rumbling mid diastolic murmur

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22
Q

How should mitral stenosis be treated?

A

Anticoagulation with warfarin if with AF
Diuretics to reduce pre load and pulmonary venous congestion
If all else fails, balloon valvuloplasty or mitral valvotomy

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23
Q

Which murmur radiates to the axilla?

A

mitral regurgitation

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24
Q

What may be felt in mitral regurgitation?

A

right ventricular heave

25
What may be felt in aortic stenosis?
left ventricular heave
26
Is the prognosis badfor aortic stenosis?
Yes dreadful
27
Which valve disease can be cause by Marfan's?
aortic regurgitation
28
What may be seen on a worsening aortic regurgitation?
T wave inversion in lateral leads
29
Is there a collapsing pulse in aortic regurgitation?
Yes
30
When may an aortic thrill be felt?
aortic stenosis
31
Who are likely to be affected by tricupsid regurgitation?
IV drug users
32
What are congenital causes of pulmonary stenosis?
Turner's Syndrome, William's Syndrome
33
In pulmonary stenosis, where will the murmur radiate?
left shoulder
34
What is pulmonary regurgitation caused by?
pulmonary hypertension
35
What does valvulopasty involve?
balloon catheter inserted across valve and inflated
36
Describe the signs of infective endocarditis.
fever, rigors, night sweats, malaise, weight loss, anaemia, CLUBBING, murmur
37
How is endocarditis diagnosed?
Duke's criteria: | 2 major or 1 major and 3 minor or all 5 minor
38
What are the major criteria for endocarditis?
``` positive blood culture positive echo (vegetation, abscess) or new valvular regurgitation ```
39
What are the minor criteria for endocarditis?
predisposition e.g. IV drug user, cardiac lesion Fever Immunological signs
40
What antibiotic should be used for staphylococci endocarditis?
flucoxacillin or gentamicin
41
What antibiotic should be used for streptococci endocarditis?
benxylpenicillin/amoxycillin
42
What antibiotic should be used for enteroococci endocarditis?
amoxicillin or gentamicin
43
What happens to T waves in myocarditis?
t wave inversion
44
What is cardiac tamponade?
accumulation or pericardial fluid raising intra-pericardial pressure
45
What can cause cardiac tamponade?
pericarditis, aortic dissection, warfarin
46
What is atrial septal defect?
hole between atria
47
What cause cause ventricular septal defect?
congenital causes or post MI
48
What is an aneurysm?
When artery dilates > 150% or its original diameter
49
Via what artery should an aneurysm be stented?
femoral
50
How does aortic dissection present?
sudden tearing chest pain that radiates to back, unequal blood pressure and pulses in each arm, acute limb ischaemia
51
What is the difference between class A and B dissection?
class A involves the ascending aorta
52
If a patient is in hypovolaemic shock, what is the first line intervention?
high flow oxygen via rebreather mask
53
How long can compensatory mechanisms maintain blood pressure in hypovolaemia?
until >30% or blood volume is lost
54
In an urgent scenarios, how should fluid be given to a hypovolaemic patient?
use 2 large cannulae in large veins | 500mls of 0.9% quickly
55
What can cause pulmonary hypertension?
hypoxia increased flow through pulmonary circulation blockage eg PE loss (emphysema) of vascular bed back pressure from LEFT sided heart failure
56
What lung pattern does pulmonary oedema show?
restrictive
57
What can cause pulmonary oedema?
increased hydrostatic pressure, cellular injury, pneumonia, adult respiratory distress syndrome
58
Can myocarditis cause ST elevation?
Yes
59
What levels of hypoalbuminaemia are required before significant oedema develops?
very low, well below 30