Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RICS APC > Construction Technology and Environmental Services > Flashcards

Construction Technology and Environmental Services Flashcards

1
Q

Which RIBA Stage is on-site construction?

A

RIBA Stage 5 - Manufacturing and Construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is buildability?

A
  • Buildability can be defined as the extent to which the design of a building facilitates the ease of construction.
  • To help improve buildability, early contractor involvement should be considered to benefit from their experience and expertise.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the benefits of off-site construction over in-situ construction?

A

Safety - Hazards such as falls from height are more likely to occur on site than in a factory.

Efficiency and quality - Construction takes place in a controlled environment.

Sustainability - Reduction in waste produced.

Speed - Work in the factory can be scheduled to begin at the same time as other activities on site, resulting in a shorter build programme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between building works and civil engineering works?

A
  • Building works: all types of buildings such as houses, offices, shops, hotels, hospitals, etc.
  • Civil engineering works: drainage schemes, highways, culverts, bridges, retaining walls, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the substructure of a building?

A
  • Substructure is the lower portion of the building (in the ground) which supports the superstructure.
  • Transmits the loads of the building to the ground.
  • Includes foundations, basements and retaining walls etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is ground heave?

A
  • Ground heave is usually associated with clay soil, which swells when wet, cause the upward movement of the ground
  • As the soil generally cannot expand downwards or sideways, the result is that the exposed upper surface of the soil rises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some of the techniques available for ground improvement?

A
  • Vibro compaction.
  • Vibro stone columns.
  • Vertical drains and vacuum consolidation.
  • Soil mixing.
  • Dynamic compaction.
  • Dynamic replacement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the different forms of excavation?

A
  • Site clearance operations (removing vegetation and rubble).
  • Stripping topsoil.
  • Reduced level dig (to reach formation level).
  • Cut and fill.
  • Excavation for foundations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the key factors the contractor should consider when excavating?

A
  • Nature of the soil and the moisture content of the ground.
  • Method of excavation.
  • If ground support systems are required.
  • Proximity of existing buildings.
  • Depth of excavation.
  • Underground services and drainage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can you explain some of the techniques for waterproofing a basement?

A
  • Tanking - Materials such as asphalt, polythene sheeting, bitumen, etc. are applied internally or externally to provide a continuous membrane to the base slab and walls.
  • Drained Cavity - This method accepts that a small amount of water seepage will occur. Cavity walls are formed, and the water seepage is collected in the cavity and drained or pumped away.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Have you come across the term SUDS?

A
  • Sustainable Urban Drainage Systems.
    a SUDS are designed to manage stormwater locally (as close to its source as possible), mimic natural drainage, and encourage its infiltration and/or attenuation.
  • SUDS help reduce the reliance on existing drainage infrastructure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can you detail a typical road build-up please?

A
  • Compacted and rolled type-1 subbase (100-250 mm).
  • Base course (70 - 150 mm).
  • Binder course (50 - 100 mm).
  • Wearing/surface course (20 - 40 mm).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the purpose of a foundation?

A
  • Foundations provide support for structures, transferring their load to the ground to avoid excessive settlement.
  • The foundations should bear the loads of the superstructure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the typical considerations when selecting the type and size of foundations?

A
  • The total load of the building.
  • Nature and load bearing capacity of the ground.
  • Type of structure.
  • Cost.
  • Construction constraints (for example, their proximity to adjacent buildings or structures).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the different types of foundation?

A
  • Strip foundations.
  • Pad foundations.
  • Raft foundations.
  • Piled foundations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a raft foundation?

A
  • A raft foundation is essentially a continuous slab that extends over the entire footprint of the building.
  • The raft spreads the load of the building over a larger area than other foundations, reducing the stress acting on the ground below.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are pad foundations?

A
  • Pad foundations are typically used to support individual or multiple columns, spreading the load to the ground below.
  • They are usually square or rectangular on plan and can be reinforced or non-reinforced.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are strip foundations?

A

As the name suggests, the formation is a strip of linear structure that ultimately serves to spread the weight across the total area of the ground and is typically used to support masonry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are pile foundations?

A
  • A pile is a column (usually concrete) that extends deep into the ground.
  • Where the bearing capacity of the soil is poor or imposed loads are very heavy, pile foundations may be required.

There are two main types of pile:
- End bearing piles.
- Friction piles.

There are two main construction methods:
- Bored piles.
- Driven piles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In what scenarios might a piled foundation be the best solution for the project?

A
  • Where the structure is heavy and the underlying soil is weak.
  • In areas where settlement issues are common.
  • Where the sub-soil water table is high.
  • Where the load distribution of the structure is not uniform.
  • Presence of horizontal forces.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can you explain how end bearing and friction piles transfer the load of the building?

A
  • End bearing piles - The bottom of the pile rests on a layer of strong soil or rock, the load of the building is transferred through the pile onto the strong layer.
  • Friction piles - Friction piles work on a different principle, friction piles develop most of the pile-bearing capacity by shear stresses along the sides of the pile. In other words, the surface of the pile works to transfer the forces to the soil.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the differences between bored piles and driven piles?

A

The fundamental difference lies in their point of manufacture. A driven pile is formed off site under factory-controlled conditions and a bored pile is cast on site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the key advantages and disadvantages of driven piles?

A

Advantages:
- Piles can be precast to the required specifications.
- Piles of any size, length and shape can be made in advance.
- A pile driven into granular soil compacts the adjacent soil mass, the bearing capacity of the pile may increase as a result.
- Fast, neat and clean installation.

Disadvantages:
- Requires heavy equipment for handling and delivery.
- Increased noise and vibrations generated by driving the piles.
- It can be costly if the piles are too short.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the key advantages and disadvantages of bored piles?

A

Advantages:
- Any size or shape of pile can be formed on site.
- There is no risk of damage during delivery and handling.
- Reduced vibrations and noise.

Disadvantages:
- Significant spoils are generated that need to be handled.
- Reliance and coordination on multiple trades (reinforcement crew, piling crew and concrete supplier).
- Unlike driven piles, bored piles do not improve the bearing capacity of the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are secant pile walls?

A
  • A wall is formed by installing interlocking piles which create a solid barrier free of gaps.
  • Typically used to form a retaining wall.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is underpinning and why might it be required?

A
  • Underpinning is a method for repairing and strengthening existing foundations.
  • Stabilising foundations undergoing settlement.
  • Stabilising foundations that have moved because of landslips.
  • Stabilising foundations affected by erosion, subsidence, or heave.
  • Stabilising foundations affected by vibration damage.
  • To increase the load capacity of the existing foundations.
  • To accommodate a new adjoining building, new basement, or deep sewer.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the superstructure of a building?

A
  • The structural components of a building are constructed above ground level (usually everything above the damp-proof course).
  • The basic components of a building’s superstructure are columns, beams, slabs, walls, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the envelope of a building?

A
  • A building envelope is the boundary between the interior and exterior of a building.
  • The materials and components that form the external shell of a building such as brickwork, cladding, curtain walls, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the key considerations when designing external walls?

A
  • Weather protection.
  • Fire resistance.
  • Acoustic and thermal performance.
  • Structural performance.
  • Appearance/aesthetics.
  • Expected lifespan.
  • Future maintenance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can you briefly explain what a retained façade is?

A
  • The façade of the building is preserved while the rest of the structure is remodelled, or a new structure is built behind it.
  • Façade retention is often used when restoring listed buildings.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are standard brick dimensions in the UK?

A

Standard bricks are 215mm x 102.5mm x 65mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many UK standard size bricks are required per m2?

A

60 bricks per m2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many UK standard size blocks are required per m2?

A

10 blocks per m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are weep holes?

A
  • Small openings in the outer skin of masonry construction.
  • Weep holes provide ventilation for the cavity and allow moisture to drain away.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Can you name two different types of brick bond?

A
  • English bond - Alternating courses of headers and stretchers.
  • Stretcher bond - The most common brickwork method. The vertical joints are staggered each time by half a brick.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a curtain wall system?

A

Typically, curtain wall systems comprise a lightweight aluminium frame onto which glazed or opaque infill panels can be fixed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are movement joints and why are they used?

A
  • A movement joint is designed to safely absorb the expansion and contraction of construction materials.
  • Movement joints can also allow for movement associated with ground settlement or seismic activity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the key differences between wet rot and dry rot?

A
  • Wet rot and dry rot are two different types of fungi.
  • One of the main differences between wet rot and dry rot is that wet rot needs a higher moisture content to grow. Wet rot fungus likes to grow on timber with a high moisture content of around 50% and above
  • while dry rot will germinate at a lower moisture content of around 20% to 30%.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the key characteristics of wet rot?

A
  • Wet and spongy to the touch.
  • Affected timbers will appear darker.
  • Localised fungal growth.
  • Affected timber is vulnerable to shrinkage.
  • More likely to be accompanied by a damp, musty smell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the key characteristics of dry rot?

A
  • Dry and brittle appearance.
  • There may be orange spore dust.
  • White strands (known as hyphae).
  • White or grey cloud-like structures.
  • Rusty brown fruiting bodies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the main components of concrete?

A
  • Cement.
  • Aggregate.
  • Water.
42
Q

What is the difference between dead loads and live loads on a structure?

A
  • Dead loads are static forces that are relatively constant for an extended time; usually the weight of materials plus non-structural elements such as partitions, immovable fixtures, kitchens, etc.
  • Live loads refer to the dynamic forces from occupancy and intended use. These loads include the weight of people, furniture, appliances, moveable equipment, etc.
43
Q

What are retaining walls?

A
  • A retaining wall holds back (or “retains”) the soil behind it.
  • The typical purpose is to resist the lateral pressure of soil where there is a change in ground elevation.
44
Q

What is pre-tensioned concrete?

A
  • The tendons or cables (reinforcement) are stretched (put into tension) across the concrete formwork before the concrete is placed.
  • After the concrete has hardened and a suitable strength has developed, the tendons are released.
  • The tendons attempt to shorten and transfer the stored energy to the concrete.
  • A compressive force is therefore induced in the concrete.
45
Q

What is post tensioned concrete?

A
  • The concrete is cast around tubes or ducts which will contain the reinforcing tendon.
  • Once a suitable concrete strength has developed, the tendons are threaded through the ducts and stretched (put into tension) using hydraulic jacks.
46
Q

Can you explain what a glulam beam is?

A
  • The term glulam is an abbreviated term that stands for glue-laminated timber.
  • A glulam is made with multiple layers of solid wood bonded together with high-strength adhesive to form a single structural unit.
47
Q

Can you explain what reinforced concrete is?

A
  • Reinforced concrete is a combination of concrete with reinforcements (usually steel bars, rods, or mesh).
  • This combination is made to use the compressive strength of concrete and the tensile strength of steel at the same time, hence, they work together to resist many types of loading.
48
Q

What are the key advantages of timber frames?

A
  • Construction on-site can be faster (compared to in situ concrete frames).
  • The structure is relatively lightweight.
  • Sustainability benefits (assuming the timber is harvested responsibly from well managed forests)
49
Q

What are the key disadvantages of timber frames?

A
  • Skilled workmanship is required to achieve a high-quality finish.
  • Potential for wet rot, dry rot, woodworm, etc.
  • Fire protection may be required.
50
Q

What are the key advantages of steel frames?

A
  • Faster to erect than concrete frames.
  • Recyclable.
  • High strength to weight ratio.
  • Beams can span over long distances (ideal for warehouses, etc).
51
Q

What are the key disadvantages of steel frames?

A
  • Typically, steel frames have a lower load bearing capacity compared to concrete frames.
  • Fire protection may be required
  • The price of steel can be volatile.
  • Steel frames do not have the same acoustic and thermal properties as concrete frames.
52
Q

What is a portal frame and what types of buildings are they most suitable for?

A
  • The frame is generally characterised by a beam (or rafter) supported at either end by columns.
  • The columns are typically connected to the rafters with haunch and eaves connections.
  • Portal frames usually have long clear spans, providing large areas of open space; therefore, they are commonly used to construct warehouses, factories, etc.
53
Q

What are the key advantages of concrete frames?

A
  • Fire protection is inherent in the structure.
  • Cladding and other finishes can be fixed directly to the frame.
  • Provides good sound and heat insulation.
  • High compressive strength.
54
Q

What are the key disadvantages of concrete frames?

A
  • Require formwork.
  • Slower to construct on site.
    Requires a bulky structure.
  • Concrete does not span as well as steel.
  • Long curing time - maximum strength is typically achieved after 28 days.
55
Q

With reference to concrete frames, what is formwork?

A
  • Formwork is the structure, usually temporary, used to contain poured concrete and mould it to the required dimensions.
  • The formwork is usually stripped away once the concrete has hardened and can support itself.
56
Q

What key factors should be considered when selecting the type of structural frame?

A
  • Programme requirements.
  • Fire protection.
  • Acoustic and thermal properties.
  • Market conditions and supply costs.
  • Site logistics and general site constraints.
  • End user requirements (necessity for column free space, etc.).
  • Sustainability objectives such as BREEAM certification.
  • Mechanical and electrical services strategy.
  • Future expansion requirements.
57
Q

What is slipform construction?

A
  • Slipform construction involves pouring concrete into the top of continuously moving formwork.
  • As the concrete is poured, the formwork is raised vertically at a speed that allows the concrete to harden before it is exposed at the bottom.
  • Typically used to construct stair cores, lift shafts, towers, etc.
58
Q

What is jump forming?

A
  • Jump forming works on a similar principle to slipform.
  • The structure is cast in a series of vertical sections called lifts’.
  • After the concrete has gained sufficient strength, the formwork is moved back and then jumped’ to the next level above.
59
Q

Can you explain the difference between single phase and 3-phase electrical supplies?

A
  • Single phase power has just one live wire
  • 3 phase power uses three live wires.
  • As such, 3-phase power supplies a more constant, reliable current.
60
Q

Why do we install generators in addition to regular grid power?

A

Generators, usually powered by diesel engines, typically act as a backup power supply should the primary power supply fail.

61
Q

What is a UPS and why might the client require one?

A
  • Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS).
  • The UPS provides an alternative ‘no-break’ electrical supply in situations where it is important that there is no loss of electrical supply, even if the primary supply fails.
  • Typically installed in hospitals for life critical equipment, data centres and IT server rooms.
62
Q

What does HVAC stand for?

A

Heating, ventilation and air-conditioning.

63
Q

What do FCU, AHU and VAV stand for?

A
  • Fan Coil Unit (FCU).
  • Air Handling Unit (AHU).
  • Variable Air Volume system (VAV).
64
Q

What is natural ventilation?

A
  • Natural ventilation is a method of supplying fresh air to a building or room by means of passive forces, typically wind speed or differences in pressure internally and externally.
  • This is achieved without the use of mechanical systems; therefore, reduced carbon emissions are a key benefit.
65
Q

What is mechanical ventilation?

A
  • Mechanical ventilation is the intentional, fan-driven flow of outdoor air into a building.
  • Mechanical ventilation systems may include supply fans (pushing outdoor air into a building), exhaust fans (drawing air out of a building), or a combination of both.
66
Q

What is an air source heat pump and how does it work?

A
  • An air source heat pump takes heat from the air and boosts it to a higher temperature using a compressor, it then transfers the heat to the heating system.
  • Their function resembles the workings of a fridge or air-conditioner, but in reverse.
67
Q

Can you explain how siphonic drainage systems work?

A
  • Siphonic drainage systems contain an anti-vortex plate, which acts as a baffle and prevents air (and debris) from entering the piping system at full flow, allowing the pipes to completely fill up with water.
  • The water is sucked or siphoned from the roof down into the drain at high velocity. The lack of air and the downward pull of the water creates a vacuum, making the drainage process fast and efficient.
68
Q

What is rainscreen cladding used for?

A
  • A rainscreen uses an exterior surface (a rainscreen cladding layer) to break the force of sideways, wind-driven water movement so that any water that gets through the small breaches in the surface has lost its momentum. - Most water simply bounces off the surface or runs down the exterior.
  • The system is not necessarily waterproof itself but serves as a screen and protection against rain for the rest of the building.

Two key types of system:
- Drained and ventilated systems.
- Pressure-equalised systems.

69
Q

What is the purpose of a parapet?

A
  • A parapet is an extension of the external building shell above roof level.
  • A parapet can be used as edge protection to enable maintenance to take place and can also mask unsightly roof plant from ground level.
70
Q

What is the difference between a gable, hipped and mansard roof?

A

Gable - A roof sloping downward in two parts at an angle from a central ridge.
- Hipped - A roof that slopes upward from all sides of the structure, having no vertical ends
Mansard Roof - Steep front face pitch with a shallow pitch/flat roof on top.

71
Q

What key factors should be considered when designing internal partitions?

A
  • Fire rating and acoustic requirements.
  • Thermal properties.
  • Requirement for doors and internal windows.
  • Strength and structural requirements, including fixing details.
  • Robustness.
  • Height of the partition.
72
Q

What is CAT A fit out?

A
  • CAT A fit out typically provides a basic level of finish, this may include raised floors, suspended ceilings and partitions, along with basic mechanical and electrical services.
  • CAT A space is often a bare-bones finish that is considered a blank canvas for interior and office designers.
  • The next phase of the fit out is CAT B.
73
Q

What is CAT B fit out?

A
  • CAT B fit out provides a space that is ready to move into and operate in.
  • CAT B fit out can include, but is not limited to:
  • Partitions and doors.
  • Floor finishes.
  • Specialist lighting and facilities.
  • Cafés, tea points and kitchen areas.
  • Furniture.
  • Branded material and décor.
74
Q

Can you name some common types of plasterboard?

A
  • Standard boards (white/light grey).
  • Fire boards (pink).
  • Acoustic board (blue).
  • Moisture resistant boards (green).
75
Q

What is raised access flooring?

A
  • A floor sitting on pedestals above the structural slab.
  • The system allows services to be located within the void (usually power and data cables).
76
Q

What are temporary works?

A
  • Temporary works are the parts of a construction project that are needed to enable the permanent works to be built; they are usually required for safety or access reasons.

Examples:
- Propping
- Scaffolding.
- Formwork.
- Excavation support.

77
Q

What are hoists?

A

Designed for the vertical transportation of materials and/or people.

78
Q

What is shoring?

A

Form of temporary support given to existing buildings and excavations. The purpose is to prevent collapse or excessive movement.

79
Q

What is a culvert?

A

A culvert is a tunnel-like structure that is constructed to allow water to flow under a road, railway line or similar obstruction.

80
Q

What is the purpose of a drainage headwall?

A
  • A headwall is a small retaining wall/structure built at the inlet or outfall of - a storm water drainage pipe.
    They are used to protect the end of the drain and prevent erosion of the watercourse embankment.
81
Q

What site surveys might be required for a typical construction project?

A
  • Topographic survey.
  • Site investigation.
  • Asbestos survey.
  • Drainage CCTV survey.
  • Utility searches.
  • Measured survey.
  • Ecology surveys.
  • Flood risk assessments.
  • Transport assessments.
  • UXO discovery.
  • CBR test.
  • Archaeological digs/excavations.
  • Existing condition surveys.
82
Q

What are the objectives of a site investigation?

A
  • The primary purpose is to establish parameters for foundation and substructure design.
  • The engineer will assess the properties and composition of the soil and rock, as well as potential ground contamination that could affect construction or building safety.
83
Q

What is a CBR test?

A
  • California Bearing Ratio.
  • Tests the load bearing capacity of the ground to inform foundation design and construction details for other ground bearing elements (such as roads).
84
Q

Which types of vegetation can cause issues for a construction project?

A

Invasive plants such as Japanese knotweed.

85
Q

Are you aware of a RICS professional standard associated with Japanese knotweed?

A

Japanese knotweed and residential property - 1st edition, January 2022,

86
Q

What fire safety provisions might you find in a new building?

A
  • Maximum occupancy numbers.
  • Fire evacuation plan, designated escape routes (with signage) and fire exits.
  • Fire extinguishers.
  • Fire alarms.
  • Sprinklers.
  • Fire dampers located in ventilation ductwork.
  • Fire barriers in floor, wall and ceiling cavities.
  • Fire rated roller shutters.
  • Smoke control systems.
87
Q

What is a fire compartment within a building?

A
  • Compartmentation is a form of passive fire protection.
  • The idea is to subdivide a structure into fire compartments to limit the spread of fire and smoke.
88
Q

What is intumescent paint?

A
  • Intumescent paint is a passive fire protection system.
  • When exposed to extreme temperatures, it rapidly expands to protect the surface that it is applied to.
  • This prevents, minimises, or delays fire damage to the structure.
89
Q

What are automatic fire sprinklers and how are they activated?

A
  • Sprinkler heads are usually heat-activated.
  • When the heat of a fire reaches the sprinkler head, a solder link will melt or a liquid-filled glass bulb will shatter to activate the sprinkler, releasing water directly over the source of the heat.
90
Q

Can you detail the different types of fire extinguisher and their typical uses?

A
  • Water - wood, cardboard, textiles, etc.
  • Foam - flammable liquids.
  • Dry powder - flammable liquids and electrical fires.
  • Carbon dioxide - electrical fires.
  • Wet chemical - cooking oil fires.
91
Q

What is a mansafe fall arrest system?

A
  • Mansafe systems are horizontal or vertical safety lines (usually stainless steel wire rope) designed to keep people safe while working at height. - The user will wear a safety harness and clip onto the safety line.
  • If a fall should occur, the system is designed to limit the distance and consequences of the fall.
92
Q

What are Building Regulations?

A
  • Regulations to ensure that new buildings, conversions, renovations and extensions (domestic or commercial) are going to be safe, healthy and high performing.
  • Regulations cover specific topics including structural integrity, fire protection, accessibility, energy performance, acoustic performance, protection against falls, electrical safety and gas safety.
93
Q

Can you list the Building Regulations Approved Documents?

A

Part A - Structure.

Part B - Fire safety.

Part C - Site preparation.

Part D -Toxic substance.

Part E - Sound resistance.

Part F - Ventilation.

Part G - Sanitation, hot water safety and water efficiency.

Part H - Drainage and waste disposal.

Part J - Combustion appliances and fuel storage systems.

Part K - Protection from falling, collision and impact.

Part L - Conservation of fuel and power.

Part M - Access to and use of buildings.

Part O - Overheating.

Part P - Electrical safety.

Part Q - Security in dwellings.

Part R - High speed electronic communications networks.

Part S - Infrastructure for charging electric vehicles.

Approved Document 7 - Materials and workmanship.

94
Q

Who reviews the design and construction phases for compliance with Building Regulations?

A

The building control officer or approved inspector.

95
Q

What are British Standards?

A
  • Publications issued by the British Standards Institution (prefixed BS).
  • They give recommended minimum standards for materials, components, design and construction practises.
96
Q

Can you name some materials that have been banned from use in construction?

A
  • High alumina cement in structural elements.
  • Asbestos.
  • Urea formaldehyde.
97
Q

What is the Equality Act 2010?

A
  • The Equality Act 2010 legally protects people from discrimination in the workplace and in wider society.
  • The Equality Act replaced previous anti-discrimination laws with a single act and covers all matters such as disability, race, sex, gender reassignment, pregnancy, religion, belief, etc.
98
Q

How does the Equality Act affect buildings?

A
  • While the accessible design of buildings is regulated by Building Regulations Part M, the Equality Act does require reasonable adjustments’ to be made when providing access to goods, facilities, services and premises.
  • This means due regard must be given to any specific needs of likely building users. Compliance with the requirements of Part M does not signify compliance with the much broader obligations and duties set out in the Equality Act.
99
Q

Can you explain what the Party Wall Act 1996 is?

A
  • The Party Wall Act 1996 provides a framework for preventing and resolving disputes in relation to party walls, boundary walls and excavations near neighbouring buildings.
  • The Act is separate from obtaining planning permission or building regulation approval.
100
Q

Can you briefly explain what O&M manuals are and what might be included?

A
  • Operation & Maintenance manuals. - Upon completion of the build phase, O&M manuals are issued to the client/building owner (O&M manuals are usually produced by the contactor).
  • Information relating to how the building has been constructed, should be maintained, cleaned and decommissioned. Includes as built drawings and specifications.

RICS APC (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions