Content Flashcards

(328 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary purpose of the ABI test?

A

To identify large vessel, peripheral arterial disease

ABI compares systolic blood pressures in the ankle to brachial systolic blood pressures.

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2
Q

How is the ABI measured?

A

Via continuous wave doppler

Continuous wave doppler is used for accurate measurement.

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3
Q

What are the reliability concerns regarding blood pressure measurement for ABI?

A

Pulse palpation or automated blood pressure devices

These methods are not considered reliable for ABI measurement.

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4
Q

What should the ABI value be if blood flow is normal in the lower extremities?

A

1.0 or more

A normal ABI indicates that ankle pressure equals or is slightly higher than arm pressure.

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5
Q

In a normal ABI test, how does the ankle pressure compare to the arm pressure?

A

Ankle pressure should equal or be slightly higher than arm pressure

This indicates normal blood flow in the lower extremities.

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6
Q

ABI Score >1.3

A

Elevated, incompressible vessels

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7
Q

ABI Score >1.0

A

Normal

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8
Q

ABI Score <0.9

A

LEAD

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9
Q

ABI Score <0.6 to 0.8

A

Borderline

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10
Q

ABI Score <0.5

A

Severe Ischemia

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11
Q

ABI Score <0.4

A

Critical Ischemia, limb threatened

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12
Q

What should be documented regarding pulses during each visit?

A

The presence and quality of the most distal pulses.

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13
Q

What do cyanotic limbs indicate?

A

Continued tissue ischemia due to poor arterial flow.

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14
Q

What does globally erythematous residual limbs suggest?

A

An issue with venous drainage, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), or may indicate infection.

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15
Q

What do cold limbs indicate?

A

Poor arterial supply.

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16
Q

What may warm limbs suggest?

A

Underlying issues with venous drainage or infection.

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17
Q

What is vascular claudication?

A

Arterial vessel narrowing restricts blood flow to levels insufficient to match the metabolic demands of the lower extremity musculature

Vascular claudication is a condition characterized by pain and discomfort in the legs due to inadequate blood flow.

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18
Q

What percentage of people with positive ABI’s experience symptoms of vascular claudication?

A

About half

ABI stands for Ankle-Brachial Index, a test used to assess blood flow.

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19
Q

Where are symptoms of vascular claudication typically located?

A

Below the knees

Symptoms are often relieved with standing alone.

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20
Q

Symptoms that are relieved with standing alone and located below the knees are often associated with _______.

A

vascular claudication

This indicates a relationship between posture and symptom relief.

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21
Q

What is neurogenic claudication?

A

A condition caused by mechanical or vascular compression of nerve roots and/or cauda due to an extended lumbar posture leading to a narrowed spinal canal.

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22
Q

What symptoms are typically associated with neurogenic claudication?

A

Symptoms triggered by standing, relieved by sitting, located above the knees, and a positive shopping cart sign.

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23
Q

Did exercise improve ABI in patients with leg pain from IC?

A

No

ABI stands for Ankle-Brachial Index, a test used to measure blood flow.

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24
Q

Is there evidence that exercise affects amputation or mortality?

A

No evidence of an effect

This indicates that exercise does not significantly impact the rates of amputation or death in this population.

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25
What aspect of health may exercise improve in individuals with leg pain from IC?
Quality of life ## Footnote Quality of life encompasses various factors, including physical, emotional, and social well-being.
26
What are the major risk factors for development of PAD?
The same as those for cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease: * Poorly managed hypertension * High serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels * History of tobacco use and smoking ## Footnote PAD stands for Peripheral Artery Disease, which is associated with reduced blood flow to the limbs.
27
What is critical limb ischemia?
Arterial insufficiency with gangrene, a nonhealing ischemic ulcer, or rest pain ## Footnote Corroborated by at least 1 of the following hemodynamic criteria.
28
What clinical signs are suspected when peripheral neuropathy is present?
Deficits of sensation, motor impairments, autonomic dysfunction ## Footnote Clinical signs include loss of reflexes, decreased vibratory sensation, loss of protective sensation, weakness, atrophy of foot muscles, inadequate hemodynamic mechanisms, skin changes, and distal hair loss.
29
What are examples of deficits of sensation in peripheral neuropathy?
Loss of Achilles and patellar reflexes, decreased vibratory sensation, loss of protective sensation ## Footnote These deficits indicate impaired sensory function, which is crucial for balance and injury prevention.
30
What motor impairments are associated with peripheral neuropathy?
Weakness and atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the foot ## Footnote These impairments can lead to difficulties in walking and maintaining balance.
31
What autonomic dysfunctions may occur with peripheral neuropathy?
Inadequate or abnormal hemodynamic mechanism, tropic changes of the skin, distal loss of hair ## Footnote Autonomic dysfunction can affect blood flow, skin health, and hair growth, indicating systemic involvement.
32
What is required for wound healing?
Adequate blood supply, it provides nutrients, oxygen for wound bed, removes waste products, and transports cells involved in healing. ## Footnote Blood supply is essential as it provides the necessary components for healing.
33
What should an at-risk patient with diabetes avoid wearing to protect their feet?
Barefoot, in socks only, or in thin-soled standard slippers ## Footnote This is to prevent injuries and complications.
34
What should be considered when a foot deformity or pre-ulcerative sign is present?
Prescribing therapeutic shoes, custom-made insoles, or toe orthosis ## Footnote These options help in managing foot health and preventing ulcers.
35
What are the two principles to consider when deciding to amputate?
1. Must have adequate circulation to ensure healing of incision and surgical reconstruction 2. Preserve as many anatomical joints as possible ## Footnote These principles are critical in ensuring the success of the amputation and subsequent rehabilitation.
36
What is a common effect of great toe amputation on walking speed?
Lower walking speed ## Footnote Amputee patients display a significant reduction in walking speed post-amputation.
37
What are the effects of great toe amputation on ankle, knee, and hip range of motion?
Lower range of motion values ## Footnote Patients show reduced range of motion in these joints after amputation.
38
What hip profile is commonly observed in amputee patients after great toe amputation?
More flexed hip profile ## Footnote Amputee patients tend to adopt a hip posture that is more flexed.
39
What complaints are common among amputee patients post-great toe amputation?
Increased pain and lower quality of life ## Footnote Patients report higher levels of pain and diminished quality of life following the procedure.
40
What is Syme Amputation?
Disarticulates the talocrural, trims the malleoli to create a flat weight-bearing surface, and repositions the fat pad and soft tissue of the heel under the distal tibia and fibula ## Footnote This procedure is typically performed to remove the foot while preserving the ankle joint.
41
What is an indication for an open (guillotine) distal transtibial amputation?
Extensive gangrene of the foot complicated by infection ## Footnote This type of amputation allows for initial management of severe infections.
42
What is the purpose of delaying closure in guillotine amputation?
To control the infection through antibiotics and local wound care ## Footnote This approach allows for better healing before further surgical intervention.
43
What follows the initial guillotine amputation?
Revision of the residual limb more proximally and a formal transtibial or transfemoral amputation ## Footnote Standard closure techniques are employed during this stage.
44
Fill in the blank: Extensive gangrene of the foot is complicated by _______ which leads to an open distal transtibial amputation.
infection
45
True or False: The residual limb is revised immediately after the guillotine amputation.
False ## Footnote There is a delay to allow for infection control before revision.
46
What is the typical location for transtibial amputations?
5 to 7 inches below the joint line through the tibia and fibula
47
What are the benefits of a longer residual limb?
Larger total surface area to distribute pressures within the socket and long lever arm potentially enhances prosthetic control
48
What is Myodesis?
A surgical procedure where holes are drilled through the tibia and flaps are sutured to the marrow cavity. ## Footnote Myodesis helps secure muscle tissue to bone.
49
What is Myoplasty?
A surgical procedure where flexor and extensor muscles are sutured together and to the tibial periosteum. ## Footnote Myoplasty aims to maintain muscle function and bulk.
50
What are the benefits of Myoplasty?
Preserves blood and lymphatic return, maintains muscle bulk and action. ## Footnote It helps ensure functional mobility post-surgery.
51
True or False: The purpose of Myoplasty is to allow muscles to contract against resistance.
True.
52
What is the Modified Ertl Procedure?
A surgical technique involving periosteal flaps from the tibia and fibula sutured together to form a bridge across the distal tibia and fibula.
53
What is the purpose of the bridge formed in the Modified Ertl Procedure?
To provide a pressure tolerant weight bearing surface and prevent rotation of the fibula.
54
What is a key benefit of the Modified Ertl Procedure?
Prevention of heterotopic ossification.
55
What is the role of adductors in prosthetic gait?
Preservation or reattachment of the adductor brevis, adductor longus, and especially adductor magnus provides sufficient power for stabilization of the residual limb in adduction in stance.
56
What would gait look like if abductors were unopposed in stance?
Gait would be unsteady and the pelvis may not remain level.
57
What is the most recent approach to osseointegration?
A single-stage procedure with rapid rehabilitation and immediate weight-bearing.
58
What is required for the skin area surrounding the abutment of osseo integration
Daily hygiene.
59
What are the most commonly reported adverse events in osseointegration?
Skin irritation and mild infection.
60
What activities should users of osseointegrated prosthetic devices avoid?
High-impact activities such as running or jumping.
61
What is hemoglobin assessed for?
Anemia due to blood loss and decreased bone marrow ## Footnote Hemoglobin levels are critical for evaluating the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
62
What are the normal hemoglobin levels for females?
12-16 g/dL ## Footnote Normal ranges may vary based on the population and laboratory standards.
63
What are the normal hemoglobin levels for males?
14-17.4 g/dL ## Footnote Normal ranges may vary based on the population and laboratory standards.
64
What are some common presentations of anemia?
* Decreased endurance * Decreased activity tolerance * Pallor * Tachycardia ## Footnote These symptoms indicate a reduced capacity for physical activity and oxygen delivery.
65
What vital signs should be monitored in anemia?
Including SpO2 to predict tissue perfusion ## Footnote Monitoring vital signs helps assess the severity of anemia and the body's compensatory mechanisms.
66
What might patients with anemia present with?
* Tachycardia * Orthostatic hypotension ## Footnote These symptoms can indicate a compensatory response to low blood volume or oxygen delivery.
67
What is the symptoms-based approach hemoglobin level threshold?
<8 g/dL ## Footnote This threshold guides the appropriateness for activity and potential transfusion needs.
68
What should be done if hemoglobin is <8 g/dL?
Symptoms-based approach for activity; collaborate with interprofessional team regarding transfusion ## Footnote An individualized approach is necessary for managing low hemoglobin levels.
69
Hyperglycemia (>200mg/dL) presentation
Diabetic ketoacidosis, severe fatigue
70
hyperglycemia (>200mg/dL) clinical implications
decreased tolerance to activity, symptoms-based approach to appropriateness of activity.
71
Hypoglycemia (<70mg/dL) presentation
lethargy, irritibility, shaking, extremity weakness, loss of consciousness
72
Hypoglycemia (<70mg/dL) clinical implications
May not tolerate therapy until glucose level increased, glucose between 140-180 is recommended for most patients in non-critical care
73
What is one consideration in early mobilization after LLA?
Whether or not to utilize a weight-bearing prosthetic device in the early post-amputation phase before the residual limb is healed.
74
List three benefits of early mobilization after LLA.
* Facilitating early mobilization * Gait re-education * Accelerated stump healing
75
What are two potential disadvantages of early mobilization after LLA?
* Risk of skin breakdown of the residual limb * Increased residual limb pain
76
Fill in the blank: Early mobilization can lead to _______ complications.
[reduced complications]
77
True or False: One potential disadvantage of early mobilization is increased risk of falls.
True
78
What is gait re-education in the context of early mobilization?
It refers to training individuals to improve their walking patterns after amputation.
79
Fill in the blank: Early mobilization facilitates early definitive _______ fitting.
[prosthetic]
80
Why is it important to mobilize the scar after wound healing?
To prevent adhesions to the underlying tissue.
81
When is the prime time to mobilize the incision line?
When the scar is not yet mature.
82
What technique is used to mobilize the incision line?
Pressure is applied above and below the incision line.
83
Which substances can facilitate massage of the scar?
* Olive oil * Cocoa butter * Vitamin E cream
84
What could result from adherence along the suture line once prosthetic wearing is initiated?
Skin breakdown delaying ambulation.
85
What can prolong the time to prosthetic fit or prevent fitting a patient with a prosthesis?
Any contracture ## Footnote Contractures can significantly affect the rehabilitation process for amputees.
86
What is the most frequently seen contracture for the transtibial (TT) amputee?
Knee flexion contracture ## Footnote This type of contracture can hinder the fitting of prosthetics.
87
How can a knee flexion contracture be prevented in transtibial amputees?
By donning a knee immobilizer immediately post-op or intra-operatively ## Footnote Early intervention is crucial for preventing contractures.
88
What are the most frequently seen contractures for the transfemoral amputee?
Hip flexion and hip abduction contracture ## Footnote These contractures can also complicate prosthetic fitting.
89
Weightbearing regions on residual limb (anterior, posterior, medial, lateral)
Anterior: Patella tendon, pretibials Posterior: Gastroc-soleus muscle belly, popliteal fossa Medial: Medial tibial flare Lateral: Shaft of fibula
90
What should the initial check of prosthesis include?
Check height, foot is level in the shoe, 5 to 7 degrees socket flexion, weight line is near posterior third of foot, pin suspension engages/disengages easily
91
K-level 0
Does not have the ability or potential to ambulate or safely transfer with or without assistance, and a prosthesis does not enhance quality of life or mobility
92
K-level 1
Has the ability or potential to use a prosthesis for transfers or ambulation in level surfaces at a fixed cadence. Typical of the limited and unlimited household ambulator
93
K-level 2
Has the ability or potential for ambulation with the ability to transverse low level environmental barriers such as curbs, stairs, or uneven surfaces. Typical of the limited community ambulator
94
K-level 3
Has the ability or potential for ambulation with variable cadence. Typical of the community ambulator who has the ability to transverse most environmental barriers and mau have vocational, therapeutic, or exercise activity that demands prosthetic use beyond simple locomotion
95
K-level 4
Has the ability or potential for prosthetic ambulation that exceeds basic ambulation skills, exhibiting high impact, stress, or energy levels. Typical of the prosthetic demands of the child, active adult, or athlete
96
What is the joint and corset usually indicated for?
Primarily indicated for very short residual limb (transtibial)
97
What is the primary characteristic of a Patella Tendon Bearing (PTB) socket?
Localization of load-bearing pressures on designated 'pressure tolerant' regions and targeted offloading of pressure intolerant regions ## Footnote This design aims to enhance comfort and functionality for the user.
98
Which areas are considered the major weight-bearing regions of the PTB socket?
The patellar tendon bar and medial tibial flare ## Footnote These areas are specifically designed to handle the weight and pressure from the prosthetic device.
99
What is the Total Surface Bearing (TSB) Socket characterized by?
Globally reduced socket volumes and relatively equal load bearing pressures throughout the entirety of the socket ## Footnote This design allows for increased surface area for weight bearing through reduced localized socket pressures.
100
How do shear forces run in relation to the limb surface?
Parallel to the limb surface ## Footnote Shear forces are best mitigated through the use of a socket interface.
101
What type of liners provide reduction of shear at the skin surface?
Viscoelastic interface liners ## Footnote These liners are fabricated from a range of elastic materials including silicone, urethane, and other gel-like substances.
102
What are normal forces in the context of socket design?
Forces that are applied perpendicular to the surface of the limb ## Footnote Understanding normal forces is crucial for appropriate socket design.
103
What is one of the advantages of gel liners related to load distribution?
Improves load distribution ## Footnote This means that the forces on the residual limb are spread more evenly, potentially enhancing comfort and function.
104
What effects do gel liners have on pain and comfort?
Decreases pain and increases comfort ## Footnote This highlights the user experience improvements associated with gel liners.
105
What is vacuum-assisted suction?
A method similar to suction suspension with the addition of a vacuum element that actively draws air from the socket environment, resulting in elevated negative pressure. ## Footnote This method does not require initial prosthesis distraction from the residual limb to obtain negative pressure.
106
What are VAS sockets indicated for?
To decrease daily limb volume changes while facilitating more favorable pressure distribution during gait ## Footnote VAS stands for Vacuum-Assisted Suspension.
107
What is a precaution regarding the use of VAS sockets?
They require both awareness and compliance on the part of the end user and are not universally indicated ## Footnote This means that not all patients may be suitable for VAS socket use.
108
What can happen if VAS systems are worn improperly?
They can create skin blisters ## Footnote Proper fitting and maintenance are crucial to avoid skin issues.
109
What cognitive ability is required for patients using VAS?
Sufficient cognitive ability to know what to watch for and how to fix problems ## Footnote This cognitive awareness is essential for the effective use of VAS systems.
110
How does the maintenance of VAS compare to other suspension systems?
VAS requires more maintenance than other suspension systems ## Footnote Regular checks and adjustments are necessary to ensure proper function.
111
What effect does a heel that is too low for the prosthetic foot have during midstance?
Creates excessive extensor moment at the knee, hampering forward progression ## Footnote This can lead to difficulties in maintaining a smooth gait.
112
What is the consequence of a heel that is too high for the prosthetic foot during midstance?
Creates a flexion moment at the knee, leading to early 'drop off' and compromise of stance phase stability ## Footnote This can affect the overall stability and safety of the user while walking.
113
What is the Amputee Mobility Predictor (AMP)?
A tool to assess the mobility of amputees based on various criteria ## Footnote The AMP evaluates balance, postural stability, and walking cadence.
114
What does a score greater than 37 on the AMP indicate?
Proficient balance, postural stability, and ability to vary walking cadence ## Footnote A score above 37 suggests readiness for activities beyond basic ambulation.
115
What is the ceiling effect in relation to higher level mobility?
A limitation in assessing higher level mobility due to maximum scores on the AMP ## Footnote Higher scores may not accurately reflect increased mobility potential.
116
What are the characteristics of amputees with AMP scores between 32-47?
* Adequate balance with static and lower level dynamic activities * Better than average lower limb power * Competent use of prosthesis ## Footnote These scores indicate a range of functional capabilities.
117
What is the role of the ischial tuberosity in transfemoral socket?
Keeps residual limb from migrating distally in socket
118
What is the role of the femoral triangle in transfemoral socket?
Keeps pelvis from translating anterior/posterior
119
What is the role of the lateral shaft of femur in transfemoral socket?
Provides lateral stability (frontal plane) during gait Helps maintain femoral adduction
120
What is a Quadrilateral Socket?
More narrow anterior/posterior, flat shelf for ischial tuberosity and glutes. ## Footnote Stabilizes ischial tuberosity on seat.
121
Describe the Ischial Containment socket.
Wider anterior/posterior to accommodate muscle contraction, more narrow medial/lateral to maintain femoral adduction. ## Footnote Designed to enhance stability and control.
122
What characterizes the Marlo Anatomical Socket?
Lower trim lines posteriorly for more comfort when sitting. ## Footnote Aims to improve user experience during seated activities.
123
What is the primary feature of the Subischial Socket?
More comfortable, greater hip mobility, must be tight circumferentially. ## Footnote Allows for increased range of motion in the hip joint.
124
Criteria to begin fitting for prosthetic
wound closure, tolerant to force couple pressures, circumference reduction, sound side weight bearing stability
125
What is a common compensation for failure to stabilize the femur in the socket?
Lateral trunk bending ## Footnote This occurs when the lateral prosthetic wall does not stabilize the femur in adduction.
126
What happens to the femur if it is not stabilized in adduction?
The femur abducts, causing pelvic drop on the swinging side ## Footnote This is a consequence of inadequate stabilization by the prosthetic wall.
127
What uncomfortable issue can lateral trunk bending help avoid?
Uncomfortable pressure in the perineum ## Footnote This is particularly relevant if the medial socket wall is excessively high or sharp.
128
What effect does a socket aligned in abduction have on the base of support?
It widens the base of support ## Footnote This can lead to the necessity of leaning laterally to shift weight onto the prosthesis.
129
How does an excessively outset prosthetic foot affect weight shifting?
It widens the base of support ## Footnote Consequently, the individual must lean laterally to shift weight onto the prosthesis.
130
In which individual is trunk bending more apparent?
In the individual with a short amputation limb ## Footnote Shorter limbs may require more compensatory movements to maintain balance.
131
What is a common patient-related problem that leads to knee instability during loading response?
Significant hip flexion contracture or weakness of hip extensor muscles ## Footnote This compromises the patient's ability to stabilize the prosthetic knee by using active hip extension.
132
What is vaulting in the context of prosthetics?
Vaulting is the act of forcefully plantar flexing the ankle on the intact side to ensure clearance for the prosthesis during its swing.
133
What are some causes of vaulting?
* Insufficient suspension * Loose socket * Excessive friction in the knee unit * Foot set in excessive plantar flexion
134
What may cause a patient to circumduct their prosthesis?
A patient may circumduct their prosthesis due to weak musculature, fear of stubbing their toe, or reluctance to use knee flexion because of anticipated instability.
135
True or False: Circumduction only occurs in patients with weak musculature.
False
136
List two reasons why a prosthetic wearer might avoid knee flexion.
* Anticipated instability in the early stance period * Fear of falling
137
What is the most economical, durable, and lightest option for knee prosthetics?
Single Axis Knee
138
What do amputees need to use to keep the single-axis knee stable when standing?
Their own muscle power
139
What feature does the single-axis knee often incorporate to aid stability?
Constant friction control and a manual lock
140
What does the friction in a single-axis knee prosthetic prevent?
The leg from swinging forward too quickly
141
What is a Stance-Control Knee?
A knee that is very stable and often prescribed for a first prosthesis.
142
How does the Stance-Control Knee behave when weight is placed on the prosthesis?
The knee will not bend until the weight is displaced.
143
What happens if initial contact is made when the Stance-Control Knee is not completely extended?
The braking mechanism provides additional mechanical stability.
144
What does the braking mechanism in a Stance-Control Knee prevent?
It prevents the knee from rapidly buckling.
145
What is a hydraulic knee unit?
A hydraulic knee unit is a prosthetic knee that is cadence responsive, changing the forward progression of the prosthetic shin as gait speed changes. ## Footnote Hydraulic knee units are designed to adapt to varying walking speeds for active amputees.
146
How do hydraulic systems compare to other knee functions for active amputees?
Hydraulic systems provide the closest thing to normal knee function for active amputees. ## Footnote This is due to their ability to adjust based on walking speeds.
147
What are the advantages of hydraulic knees?
Hydraulic knees provide a smoother gait. ## Footnote The smoother gait is due to the responsive nature of hydraulic systems.
148
What are the disadvantages of hydraulic knees?
Hydraulic knees are heavier, require more maintenance, and have a higher initial cost. ## Footnote These factors may limit their use for some amputees.
149
What should a patient do when going downhill on hills or ramps?
Lean back to align with the ground reaction force at initial contact/loading response ## Footnote This allows the patient to 'ride' the friction of the knee mechanism down the hill.
150
What is the recommended posture for a patient when ascending a hill or ramp?
Lean forward into the hill ## Footnote This posture utilizes the hip extensors, which have a better mechanical advantage in a flexed position.
151
What effect does leaning forward have on the knee when ascending?
Creates an extension moment at the knee, making it difficult to unlock the knee ## Footnote This is important to consider when instructing patients on climbing hills.
152
How is unlocking the knee achieved in a patient with a prosthesis?
Through loading the prosthesis during terminal stance ## Footnote Once toe load is achieved, a quick hip flexion and pelvic protraction/rotation are performed.
153
Chronic Venous Insufficiency protocol
154
What are the different compression systems?
155
What are the indications for urgent referral to a vascular surgeon or ER?
156
At what pressure is healing unlikely in a diabetic foot ulcer?
Healing unlikely if toe pressure is <55mmHg
157
What grade is the flat or minimally pulsating forefoot pulse volume recording?
Grade 3
158
What is one con of having a midfoot disarticulation?
High risk for contracture development, prosthetic fitting can be challenging.
159
What is a modified Burgess posterior flap?
Preserves the Gastroc and anterior compartment muscles beyond the distal tibia Brings the flap of the gastroc-soleus forwards with the suture line being anterior distal below that of the tibia cut line
160
What is a modified Bruckner procedure?
Designed for dysvascular patients to remove the most susceptible ischemic muscles during the surgery – thus less post-op complications Anterior & Lateral compartment and the Soleus and Lateral gastroc removed Also removes the fibula
161
Why may seasoned prosthetic wearers may still require the use of a shrinker?
to maintain prosthetic fit secondary to fluctuations in circumference such as in the end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patient or those with other medical conditions such as CHF.
162
When is a metatarsal head resection typically recommended?
Typically performed when there is a nonhealing plantar ulcer, especially if there is osteomyelitis of the metatarsal head
163
In a patient with diabetes, what type of offloading device is most appropriate for treating a neuropathic plantar forefoot ulcer?
Non-removable knee-high device
164
What are the indications for VAS suspensions?
decrease daily limb volume changes while facilitating more favorable pressure distribution during gait
165
What is a single axis foot typically indicated for?
For patients ambulating at a single speed who require greater stability during weight acceptance because of weak knee extensors or poor balance. K1 patients.
166
What is the Energy Storage and Return Foot (ESAR) indicated for?
Patients at elevated risks for overuse injury (i.e., osteoarthritis) to the contralateral lower limb and lower back Patients capable of variable speed and/or community ambulation are indicated for ESAR feet. Reduced sound side loading K2 or K3
167
What is the Solid-Ankle, Cushioned-Heel (SACH) indicated for?
for patients with very limited ambulation potential or ability. Consists of a very rigid forefoot and cushioned heel
168
What are indications for Microprocessor Feet- K3?
Heavier than most feet Require nightly charging Currently limited to single axis Not appropriate for very high activity or running Actively respond and adapt to changes in the environment
169
Amputees with scores between 32-47 on the AMP indicate what?
Have adequate balance with both static and lower level dynamic activities Demonstrate better than average lower limb power Show competent use of prosthesis
170
What are Common Characteristics of Hemiplegic Gait
Poor control of the  flexor muscles during swing phase, Spasticity of the  extensor muscles acting to lengthen the affected leg. The knee is stiff, hyperextends during stance, and does not flex normally during swing causing circumduction
171
Limitations of AFO vs FES
little to no effect on propulsion with AFO and no effect with FES. Must balance between stability vs allowing movement.
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What does an anterior shell of an AFO do?
Pushes tibia posteriorly to help minimize knee buckling.
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What does an posterior shell of an AFO do?
Pushes tibia foward to help minimize knee hyperextension or extensor thrust.
174
What impact do trimlines of an AFO have?
They determine how stiff an AFO will be
175
What are the main functions of an AFO for drop-foot?
Provide a moderate resistance during LR to prevent foot-slap Allow free dorsiflexion in stance phase Provide large resistance in swing phase to inhibit drop-foot Assist push-off function by providing plantarflexion moment ## Footnote AFOs assist eccentric contraction of the dorsiflexors during the LR, thereby preserving the heel rocker function and positively affected gait velocity
176
In addition to the impairments indicated, before ordering orthoses, factors should be considered such as whether the patient has...
Sufficient ROM in Lower Extremity joints to align segments The ability (including cognition) and desire to meet ambulation goals Adequate cardiovascular endurance and adequate Upper Extremity (UE) and Lower Extremity (LE) strength for the intended activity, i.e. ambulation Sufficient strength to advance the limb
177
What is a Double-Action Ankle Joint
In the anterior compartment, typically a pin is utilized to control tibial advancement (dorsiflexion stop) in stance for a knee extension moment at heel off. In the posterior compartment, either a spring or pin is effective to aid in foot clearance during swing. (PF stop or DF assist)
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What is a Solid Ankle AFO - SAFO used for?
Plantarflexion Stop and Dorsiflexion Stop Influences knee stability Triplanar control -> Based on trim lines (if plastic
179
What are the indications for Solid Ankle AFO - SAFO?
-Weakness of dorsiflexors and plantarflexors -Quadriceps weakness -Excessive ankle/foot pronation -Helps restore normal stance phase shank and knee kinematics
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What are the contraindications for Solid Ankle AFO - SAFO?
-Isolated swing phase deficits without stance phase deficits -Isolated dorsiflexor weakness -If there is sufficient plantarflexor length AND strength to allow free dorsiflexion and still achieve maximum knee extension at mid-stance and a stiff ankle in late stance
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What is main reason to use Ankle Foot Orthoses –Dorsiflexion Stop?
Facilitates knee extension (minimizes knee buckling), stiff ankle for push off at terminal stance/pre-swing
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What are the indications and contraindications for a Dorsiflexion stop?
183
Why would you want to use a dorsiflexion assist AFO with a patient?
Primarily for swing limb clearance, Allows for controlled foot flat from initial contact to loading response
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Indications and contraindications for dorsiflexor assist
Indications: Dorsiflexor weakness Contraindications: Abnormal shank and knee kinematics Moderate to severe tone/spasticity
185
Why would you want to use a posterior leaf spring AFO?
Least bulky, provides some dorsiflexion assist but limits plantarflexion
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Indications and contraindications for Posterior leaf spring AFO
Indications: Dorsiflexor weakness with minimal need to control stance phase kinematics Primarily facilitate swing limb clearance Contraindications: Need to control stance phase kinematics Medial/lateral ankle instability??? Knee Instability Moderate to severe tone/spasticity, problematic with PF spasticity
187
Why would we want to use a Dynamic AFO?
188
Why would we want to use a Plantar Flexion Stop for a patient?
Usually a limited motion articulated ankle joint allowing ankle dorsiflexion Facilitates knee flexion in early stance
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What are the indications/contraindications for Plantarflexion stop?
Indications: Dorsiflexor Weakness Knee hyperextension in early stance (reclined shank) Contraindications: Weak quadriceps Gastrocnemius spasticity Insufficient plantarflexor length and strength to allow free dorsiflexion and achieve maximum knee extension at midstance and stiff ankle in late stance
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What is a Ground Reaction AFO- GRAFO used for?
Rigid section over anterior proximal tibia provides an external extension moment at the knee Provides additional knee stability in late stance phase Often an attempt to avoid going towards long leg bracing
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What are indications/contraindications for GRAFO?
Indications: Dorsiflexor Weakness Plantarflexor Weakness Quadriceps Weakness Contraindications: If “less” control will suffice Knee hyperextension For prefabricated designs: -Any frontal/transverse plane ankle instability -If ankle angle other than 90 degrees is required
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What is soft collar used for?
Provides partial support of the head reducing paraspinal contraction and spasm. Its true benefit is warmth, psychological reassurance and a kinesthetic reminder to limit motion. The problem is that it gives no true structural cervical spine support.
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What is headmaster control used for?
Very light weight flexible collar. Limited control, Low profile and used to support the head
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What is Cervicothoracic Orthoses used for?
Provide maximal control of flexion, extension and rotation of the cervical spine, control motion down to T5. Indications for use is Atlanto-axial instability such as in Rheumatoid Arthritis Neural arch fractures of C2 due to flexion instability.
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What is a Halo Vest used for?
The Halo is commonly used for complex combined C1 and C2 fracture patterns where internal stabilization is not possible without extension to the occiput, which results in severe loss of motion. Results in maximal triplanar control
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What makes the rehabilitation of a patient with a halo challenging?
The altered center of mass (COM) due to fixed head position and weight of the vest.
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What posture may ambulatory patients in halo vests exhibit?
A forward-flexion posture.
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What assistive devices might be required for patients in halo vests?
A cane or walker.
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What is necessary during the readjustment period after halo removal?
Postural reeducation.
200
What is a common issue that may arise in patients with a halo?
Poor cervical spine dissociation.
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True or False: Patients in halo vests can fully utilize visual cues without any adjustments.
False.
202
Thoracolumbar Orthoses
Best used for fractures from T10-L2, Goal is to prevent excessive anterior flexion and development of kyphotic deformity, Contraindicated for 3 column instability.
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Thoraco-Lumbar-Sacral orthoses (TLSOs)
The TLSO is the recommended treatment for significant fractures at the thoracolumbar junction that are being treated conservatively. TLSOs can be used to manage fractures from T6 to L4.
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Lumbar-Sacral orthoses (LSOs)
Commonly prescribed post L2-4 spinal surgery or with non operative back pain, Predominately used now for comfort OR those pt’s with poor bone quality (check PMH)
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What is the primary purpose of flexible lumbar-sacral orthoses (LSOs)?
Kinesthetic awareness, pain relief, reduce excessive lumbar lordosis, vasomotor and respiratory support in SCI patients ## Footnote SCI stands for Spinal Cord Injury.
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What are the characteristics of rigid lumbar-sacral orthoses (LSOs)?
Provide more stability and can create increased intra-abdominal pressure to improve spinal stability ## Footnote Long-term use may lead to concerns for deconditioning.
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True or False: Rigid LSOs are designed primarily for pain relief.
False
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What is a potential concern associated with long-term use of rigid LSOs?
Deconditioning ## Footnote Deconditioning refers to the loss of physical fitness and strength.
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What are SI Support Braces (SIOs) used for?
They are used by patients with back pain attributed to sacroiliac joint (SIJ) hypo- or hypermobility ## Footnote SI Support Braces help stabilize the sacroiliac joint.
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How do sacroiliac belts relieve pain?
By contributing to SIJ compression, which assists in stabilizing the joints ## Footnote This is often combined with manipulation or spinal stabilization exercises.
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What conditions are commonly associated with SIJ hypermobility?
Pregnancy-related pelvic girdle pain and low back pain ## Footnote These conditions often lead to increased mobility in the SI joint.
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What effect does using a sacroiliac belt have on SIJ mobility?
It may decrease SIJ mobility and reduce pain symptoms during functional activities ## Footnote This is particularly beneficial for patients experiencing pain related to SIJ hypermobility.
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What degree range of curves typically requires bracing?
Curves 30-40 degrees ## Footnote Bracing is effective before skeletal maturity.
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At what degree of spinal curvature is surgery typically considered?
Curves 40-50+ degrees ## Footnote Surgery is a last resort for severe cases.
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Fill in the blank: Bracing is recommended for curves between _______ degrees.
30-40 degrees ## Footnote This is to prevent further progression of the curve.
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What is the primary use of a Hip Abduction Brace?
Most commonly seen for patient following total hip replacement for whom dislocation is a concern, or following closed reduction of a dislocated total hip ## Footnote The brace is crucial in preventing dislocation in patients post-surgery.
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What does the Hip Abduction Brace limit?
Limits hip flexion ## Footnote This limitation helps in stabilizing the hip joint post-surgery.
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What is the goal of maintaining the hip in a slightly abducted position with the brace?
Increased femoroacetabular stability ## Footnote This stability is essential for proper recovery and function post-surgery.
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Prophylactic Knee Orthoses
Prophylactic knee orthoses (PKOs) are knee braces that are designed to mitigate or altogether prevent soft tissue injury, usually ligamentous, to the healthy knee
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Indications for ACL Bracing
Hyperextension Moderate to severe ACL or PCL instabilities ACL/PCL instabilities combined (CI) MCL/LCL instabilities ACL or PCL reconstruction Prophylactic use
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Ligament Bracing
Recommended for non-contact sport and activities of daily living. Suitable for mild to moderate ligament instabilities
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Patellofemoral Bracing
For acute mild to moderate lateral patellar subluxation or dislocation and maltracking.  
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Static Orthoses
Provides stabilization, protection and support to a body segment Can be used as adjunctive treatment or exercise device by blocking a distal segment to increase glide of another joint or improve tendon excursion
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What are Serial Static Orthoses applied to?
Applied to a lengthened tissue, typically at the end range of motion ## Footnote Serial static orthoses are designed to maintain a specific position to facilitate tissue elongation.
226
For which patients are non-removable versions of Serial Static Orthoses a better choice?
Better choice for the young, cognitive or behavioral issue pts, or those who have variable tone and spasticity ## Footnote Non-removable orthoses provide consistent support for patients who may not be compliant.
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How long are Serial Static Orthoses typically worn?
Worn for extended periods of time ## Footnote Extended wear is essential for achieving the desired therapeutic effects.
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Dynamic Orthoses
Use of an elastic type force to mobilize specific tissues to achieve increases in ROM The dynamic force applied is maintained as long as the elastic component can contract, even when the tissue reaches the end of its elastic boundary.
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Static Progressive orthoses
Used to mobilize tissue in one direction through the application of a low load long duration stretch for a long period of time. GOAL: tissue will accommodate to this new positon Different than dynamic orthosis in that the force applied is static
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Position of function for the hand
Wrist 20-30 deg ext MP joints 35-45 deg flexion PIP joint 45 deg flexion and DIP relaxed flexed position Thumb in palmar abd
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Position of rest/anti-deformity, safe for hand
Wrist in 30-40 deg ext MP joints 60 to 90 deg flexion PIP and DIP in extension Thumb in palmar abd
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What does the fulcrum correspond with in UE orthoses?
The anatomical axis of the target joint
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What is the effort arm in the context of UE orthoses?
The segment of the orthosis that applies the effort force
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What does the resistance arm refer to in UE orthoses?
The segment of the limb that resists the effort force
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What is the optimal angle of force application for mobilization splints?
90 degrees to the body segment being mobilized ## Footnote This angle maximizes the therapeutic effect.
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What should the force application be in orthotic design?
Tolerable ## Footnote Ensuring comfort for the patient is crucial.
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What are signs of too much stress in UE orthoses?
Edema, skin blanching, vascular changes, and pain ## Footnote Monitoring these signs is important for patient safety.
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What is a Tenodesis Orthosis used for?
Used in SCI patients ## Footnote SCI stands for Spinal Cord Injury
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What specific wrist extensor must be intact for a Tenodesis Orthosis to be effective?
Extensor carpi radialis
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What potential improvements can a patient achieve with a Tenodesis Orthosis?
Grasp, holding and releasing desired objects
241
What are the proposed benefits of Givmohr Sling?
Reduction in subluxation and pain, Improved UE positioning for ambulation, Creates compressive forces throughout the UE ## Footnote UE stands for Upper Extremity.
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What are the effects of FES for DF on swing and stance phase post stroke?
Provides or assists DF to improve foot clearance during swing phase. Also may provide improved foot position at IC during stance. There are no effects on knee or ankle medial/lateral stability.
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What are some FES biomechanical effects on stance phase during gait?
No stance-phase effects, may improve foot position at IC, no impact on propulsion/push-off power
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What are some considerations when using FES?
Patient must have good knee control, PF spasiticity may decrease success, sensory aspects, maintenance, cost
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What are the 2 types of FES devices?
246
What is a recommended setting for frequency to minimize fatigue in FES?
Often 30 pps ## Footnote Setting the frequency at 30 pulses per second (pps) is typically used to reduce fatigue during electrical stimulation.
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What is the unit of measurement for amplitude in FES?
mA ## Footnote Amplitude, which influences the strength of the stimulation, is measured in milliamperes (mA).
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What is the effect of increased frequency on fatigue?
Increases fatigue ## Footnote Higher frequencies can lead to quicker onset of fatigue in the stimulated muscles.
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What is the goal for frequency settings in FES?
Want as low as possible, often 30 pps ## Footnote Lower frequencies are preferred in FES to minimize muscle fatigue and discomfort.
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What factors should be considered when setting FES parameters?
* Comfort * Fatigue over time * Nonfused 'twitchy' contraction ## Footnote These factors influence the effectiveness and tolerability of the stimulation during therapy.
251
List some considerations when assessing the appropriateness of FES for DF assist.
* Spasticity * Skin * Hypersensitivity * Individual's goals * Stance-phase stability * PROM
252
True or False: Early provision of an AFO or FES during the acute phase of recovery can enhance recovery.
True
253
When comparing responders versus nonresponders for FES, who tends to respond better?
Individuals who had some level of motor activation to the key muscle groups being stimulated
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Is one device FES or AFO superior to another across outcomes?
No, one device is not superior to another across outcomes.
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What are potential advantages of AFO?
Greater immediate effect, better option for slower ambulators or individuals with a lower level of mobility, and better for improved balance confidence
256
What are potential advantages of FES?
Greater therapeutic effects, better option for faster ambulators or individuals with a higher level of mobility, and higher user satisfaction.
257
What type of support does a Solid or Rigid AFO provide?
Rigid support of the ankle in the desired position ## Footnote This support has implications for knee control.
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How does a Solid or Rigid AFO affect knee control?
It restricts ankle motion which impacts: * DF in swing * Stance-phase knee flexion or extension ## Footnote DF stands for dorsiflexion.
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What is one effect of using a Solid or Rigid AFO in stance?
Decreased equinovarus ## Footnote Equinovarus refers to a foot position where the heel is elevated and the foot is turned inward.
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What stability does a Solid or Rigid AFO increase?
Medial/lateral ankle stability
261
How can stiffness of a Solid or Rigid AFO be adjusted?
By changing trimlines or using different materials
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What benefit does a Solid or Rigid AFO provide regarding balance?
Increased static balance
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What is a possible drawback of using a Solid or Rigid AFO?
Possible less volitional muscle activation
264
What limitations can affect the effects of a Solid or Rigid AFO?
Ankle PROM limitations
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What considerations should be taken into account regarding the bulk of a Solid or Rigid AFO?
Bulk and weight of AFO
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What functional mobility limitation does a Solid or Rigid AFO prevent?
Prevents ankle DF motion
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What is one function of a semisolid AFO during swing phase?
DF in swing
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How does a semisolid AFO affect stance-phase knee flexion or extension?
By restricting ankle motion
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Where are the trimlines located in a semisolid AFO?
More posterior
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How can stiffness of a semisolid AFO be adjusted?
Changing trimlines or using different materials
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What benefits does a semisolid AFO provide?
Increased dynamic balance and gait speed
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What is a consideration regarding ankle control with a semisolid AFO?
Less control of ankle medial/lateral position or equinovarus
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What is required for effective use of a semisolid AFO?
Stance-phase muscle strength
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What condition may decrease the effectiveness of a semisolid AFO?
PF spasticity
275
What gait pattern does the Hip Guided and Reciprocal Orthoses allow patients to avoid?
Avoid the 2 point swing through gait pattern ## Footnote This refers to a less efficient walking pattern that the orthoses help to prevent.
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What is the function of HGO (pediatric) and Parawalker (adults)?
Use gravity to assist the swing leg ## Footnote This mechanism helps to facilitate movement during gait.
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How does RGO facilitate a gait pattern?
Uses a reciprocal link to facilitate a reciprocal gait pattern ## Footnote This means that movement in one leg is linked to movement in the other.
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What is a key advantage of reciprocating orthoses?
Will not allow both hips to flex simultaneously (“jack knifing”) ## Footnote This feature helps maintain stability during movement.
279
How often can orthoses be used as exercise equipment?
3 times per week for 2 hours ## Footnote Regular use as exercise equipment can enhance physical fitness.
280
What are some cons for reciprocating orthoses?
High discontinue rate, higher oxygen cost, there also needs to be some hip strength (>2/5) to advance the swing limb
281
What type of plane motions does HKAFO control well?
Sagittal and frontal plane motions ## Footnote HKAFO stands for Hip-Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthosis.
282
What type of plane motions does HKAFO exhibit poor control over?
Transverse plane motions
283
In what position is the solid/fixed AFO placed to assist with standing posture?
Slight DF to assist with standing posture in the 'tripod' position
284
What are KAFOs used for?
KAFOs are used when stability during stance cannot be effectively provided by one of the AFO options.
285
When are KAFOs prescribed?
KAFOs are prescribed when there is: * Impaired ankle control * Hyperextension or recurvatum that jeopardizes structural integrity of the knee * Abnormal/excessive valgus angulation in weight bearing during stance
286
True or False: KAFOs are the first option for providing stability during stance.
False
287
What are the indications for using a Conventional KAFO?
Max strength and durability are required, obese patient, fluctuating edema ## Footnote These indications highlight specific patient needs that a Conventional KAFO addresses.
288
What are the pros of a Conventional KAFO?
Strong, durable, easily adjusted ## Footnote These advantages make the Conventional KAFO a reliable choice for certain patients.
289
What are the cons of a Conventional KAFO?
Heavy, fewer contact points, less cosmetic ## Footnote These disadvantages may affect patient comfort and aesthetic preferences.
290
What is a key indication for using a thermoplastic KAFO?
Intimate/total contact fit = maximal limb control, When energy expenditure makes weight of the orthosis an issue, or when more control is needed. ## Footnote This ensures better stability and control of the limb.
291
What are the pros of a thermoplastic KAFO?
Lightweight, interchangeability of shoes, can wear under clothes ## Footnote These features enhance comfort and usability.
292
What is a con of wearing a thermoplastic KAFO?
Hot to wear ## Footnote This can lead to discomfort during extended use.
293
What is the primary use of Carbon Composite KAFO?
Used when fatigue is a major concern ## Footnote KAFO stands for Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthosis
294
List some advantages of Carbon Composite KAFO.
* Improved cosmetics * Increased walking speed * Improved kinetic characteristics of walking * Exceptional durability
295
What is the offset (posterior) axis knee joint?
The mechanical joint axis is posterior to the joint, reducing the magnitude of the external flexion moment. ## Footnote This design helps with knee hyperextension.
296
What is the function of the Variable Position Locking Joint in the knee?
The knee joint locks in the most extended position the person can achieve, providing consistent stability. ## Footnote This feature is important for maintaining stability during various activities.
297
What is the primary purpose of SCKAFO?
Locks the orthotic knee joint in extension at initial contact and during most of stance, unlocks the knee on heel rise during the third rocker ## Footnote SCKAFO stands for Solid Ankle Foot Orthosis with Knee Ankle Foot Orthosis.
298
What are the benefits of using SCKAFO?
Normalizes gait biomechanics, improved function, speed, stride length, safety, efficiency ## Footnote Improved biomechanics can lead to better overall mobility.
299
What happens to the perineum when the patient is asked to cough or perform Valsalva?
The perineum should show no downward movement; ventral movement may occur due to pelvic floor muscle guarding actions ## Footnote This reflects the functionality of the pelvic floor during increased intra-abdominal pressure.
300
Define perineal elevation.
The inward (cephalad) movement of the vulva, perineum, and anus. ## Footnote This is considered a normal response.
301
Define perineal descent.
The outward (caudal) movement of the vulva, perineum, and anus. ## Footnote This is considered an abnormal response.
302
What is the Modified Oxford Scale (MOS)?
A 6-point scale used to assess pelvic floor muscle strength.
303
What does a score of 0 on the MOS indicate?
No contraction.
304
What does a score of 1 on the MOS indicate?
Flicker.
305
What does a score of 2 on the MOS indicate?
Weak contraction.
306
What does a score of 3 on the MOS indicate?
Moderate contraction with lift; increased intravaginal pressure with small cranial elevation of the vaginal wall.
307
What does a score of 4 on the MOS indicate?
Good contraction with lift; fingers compressed with elevation of the vaginal wall towards pubic synthesis.
308
What does a score of 5 on the MOS indicate?
Strong contraction with lift; firm compression of examiner's fingers and fingers pulled further into vagina.
309
What are the goals of bladder retraining? List them.
* Develop healthy fluid intake habits * Normalize voiding frequency (avoiding voiding too little, too often, or prematurely) * Improve bladder capacity
310
What is the double void technique?
Voiding, waiting until the next urge comes, and voiding again. Can involve standing up to move.
311
What does the Crede technique involve?
Gently pushing down on the bladder (with hands above pubic bone) while exhaling and leaning forward a bit to mechanically empty the bladder. It should be used with caution.
312
For whom is the Crede technique primarily used?
Patients with neurologic challenges.
313
What is the recommended first line of treatment for an overactive bladder?
behavioral therapy
314
What are Pelvic organ prolapse symptoms?
Vaginal bulging, pelvic pressure (c/o of heaviness), bleeding/discharge/infection, splinting/digitation, low backache Symptoms are generally worse at the times when gravity might make the prolapse worse (e.g., after long periods of standing or exercise) and better when gravity is not a factor, for example, lying supine.
315
What is Dysparunia and grades of severity?
Symptoms: pain with initial entry, pain with deep penetration, friction with thrusting Grades of Severity: 1. Discomfort, but has intercourse 2. Frequently limits intercourse 3. Incapacitating problem, abstinence
316
What is Vaginismus?
involuntary tightness of the vagina during attempted intercourse. It could be from surgical or sexual trauma or a protective response
317
What is Vulvodynia?
Chronic Vulvar discomfort Symptoms: burning, stinging, irritation or rawness
318
Describe Friedrich’s Triad
For Provoked vulvodynia, – Reported painful penetration – Q tip test positive for tenderness – -/+ vestibular erythema
319
What is Levator Ani Syndrome?
Spasm of the levator ani Symptoms include pain, pressure or ache in vagina and rectum Referred pain to thigh, coccyx, sacrum and lower abdomen Repeated straining during defecation can promote pain/throbbing
320
What is Coccygodenia?
Pain on the coccyx or rectum Causes injury from fall arthritic changes pelvic floor muscle spasm birthing in lithotomy position
321
What is Pudendal Neuralgia?
Burning vaginal or vulva (anywhere between anus and clitoris) pain associated with tenderness over the course of the pudendal nerves
322
What is Alcock’s canal syndrome?
Compression of the pudendal nerve in Alcock’s canal, severe pain on sitting, which is relieved by standing, and absent when recumbent or when sitting on a toilet seat.
323
What is Sacral compartment syndrome?
increase in pelvic venous pressure (prolonged standing or sitting, the Valsalva maneuver, etc.)
324
What are 5 essential criteria for Pudendal Neuralgia?
(a) pain in the anatomical region of pudendal innervation (b) pain that is worse with sitting (c) no waking at night with pain (d) no sensory deficit on examination (e) relief of symptoms with a pudendal block
325
What are Scar Tissue Adhesions in terms of pelvic health?
Scar adhesions-restricted mobility of myofascial tissue of abdomen, LB, pelvic floor Symptoms- burning pain Causes tearing with child birth episiotomy abdominal surgeries
326
What are some symptoms of prostate pathology?
Weak or interrupted flow of urine Nocturia Trouble starting flow of urine Trouble emptying bladder Pain while urinating Blood in urine or semen LBP/ Pelvic pain
327
What are some signs and symptoms of Prostate Cancer?
dull, vague, diffuse ache localized to the lower lumbar spine or upper sacral regions only after the tumor has grown to sufficient size to compromise the urethra, will urinary symptoms be noted by the patient
328
What are some symptoms of Chronic Prostatitis?
-prostatic discharge -burning -increased frequency of urination and possible reduction in sexual potency -LBP -nagging sacral ache with radiation down the involved leg if the seminal vesicle is involved