Content Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

Localized deep, aching pain
Early am stiffness
crepitus
instability of weight bearing joints

A

osteoarthritis

No lab test –> diagnosed by clinical presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

OA - general pharmacology

A
APAP
NSAIDS, COX 2 inhibitors
Corticosteroids - oral and injectable
Hyaluronate
Glucosamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acetonide, Diacetate, Hexacetonide - class?

A

injectable CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How often can you give injectable CS for OA?

A

q 4-6 months (max 3-4 times year)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Injectable CS risks

A

scarring and infection

Never inject an infected joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can be given for pain management in patients with OA that fail pharmacological and analgesic therapy?

A

Hyaluronate injections (only for the knee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hyaluronate injections - MOA

A

replicates viscoelastic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Supartz, Synvisc, Hyalgan, Nuflexxa - class?

A

Hyaluronate injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hyaluronate injection - caution and education

A

Caution: allergy to avian protein, eggs, feathers

Avoid weight bearing x 48 hrs (b/c given with 18-22g and med can leak out the track)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

OTC product to reduce arthritic pain and slow narrowing of joint

A

Glucosamine

No SE, No DDI, well tolerated, works for 40-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gout - acute treatment options

A

Colchicine
NSAIDS
corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gout - chronic treatment options

A

Allopurinol or Febuxistat
Colchicine
Colchicine + Probenacid
Pegloticase (Krystexxa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gout treatment option if resistant case or not able to take Colchicine or NSAIDS

A

CS
Injectable triamcinolone hexacetonide if single joint
Oral prednisone x 3-5 days then taper over 10-14 days to avoid rebound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why are xanthine oxidase inhibitors not given in acute gout attack?

A

may cause the uric acid crystals to mobilize and settle in another joint (but if on for chronic management, can keep giving)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What urate-oxidase enzyme can be given as the last resort for gout treatment?

A
Pegloticase (Krystexxa)
Given IV (premeditate for infusion reaction Antihistamine + CS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is Krystexxa contraindicated?

A

G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Krystexxa adverse reactions/SE

A

anaphylaxis
infusion reaction
gout attack
HF exacerbation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Diet management for gout

A

decrease red meat (high in blood = purine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Probenacid, Sulfinpyrazone - class?

A

uricosuric agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Uricosuric agents - MOA

A

increase renal uric acid clearance by inhibiting renal tubual reabsorption

21
Q

Methotrexate, Azathioprine, Hydroxychloroquine, Leflunomide - class?

22
Q

Why are DMARDS used for RA?

A

reduce and prevent join damage (start within 3 months of diagnosis)

23
Q

Education - DMARDS

A

can take 1-6 months
give NSAIDs +/- steroids until effective
effective contraception (teratogenic)

24
Q

RA - DOC

A

Methotrexate

if fails, combine with biologic agent

25
Antidote Methotrexate
Leucovorin
26
Azothiaprine (Immuran) DDI
Allopurinol and febuxostate (increases levels of allopurinol and increases risk for myelosuppression) *decrease azothiaprine 1/3 to 1/2*
27
Adalimubab (Humira), Infliximab (Remicade) - class?
TNF alpha antagonists
28
TNF alpha antagonists SE
worsening of CHF (Caution: do not use in NYHA III and IV CHF) Increased invasive infections (listeria, viral, fungal, etc.) Increased risk of TB (must to skin test to check latent TB) *because decreases immune system*
29
Amphetamine derivative - MOA
increase release of norepinephrine and dopamine
30
Methylphenidate product - MOA
inhibits re-uptake of norepinephrine and dopamine
31
Lisdexamphetamine - advantage over other stimulants
PO - only absorbed from GI tract (less chance of diversion)
32
Which stimulant comes as a patch?
Methylphenidate
33
Atomoxetine (Straterra), Clonidine, Guanfacine - Stimulants or non-stimulants?
Non-stimulants
34
Alzheimer's - DOC
Donepizil (Cholinesterase Inhibitor) | best tolerated - less N/V
35
Donepazil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine - class?
Cholinesterase Inhibitors (AChEl)
36
AChEl - SEs
N/V | diarrhea
37
Dosing of AChEl's
Donepazil (easiest) - 5-10 po qd | Galantamine and Rivastigmine are BID and titrate dose up
38
Which AChEl is available as a patch?
Rivastigmine
39
Pharmacologic options for ED
PDE5 inhibitors and synthetic prostaglandin E1 analog (Alprostadil)
40
PDE5 inhibitors - MOA
inhibits breakdown of cGMP by PDE5
41
PDE5 inhibitors contraindication
concurrent use of nitrates
42
PDE5 inhibitors SE
hypotension, flushing, HA | Rare: CV risks (angina, MI, stroke), sudden hearing loss, priapism
43
PDE5 inhibitors DDI
organic nitrates CYP3A4 inhibitors (PI, Emycin, itraconazole…) ETOH (hypotension risk)
44
Avanavil (Stendra), Sildenafil (Viagra), Tadalafil (Cialis) - class?
PDE5 inhibitor
45
Anticholinergic agents - MOA
anticholinergic activity through a competitive inhibition of the muscarinic receptors in the bladder
46
Darifenacin, Fesoterodine, Oxybutynin, Solifenacin, Tolterodine (Detrol), Trospium - class?
anticholinergics
47
Which populations may experience negative side effects on anticholinergics?
elderly myasthenia gravis BPH glaucoma
48
Anticholinergics - DDI
CYP450 (2D6 and 3A4) | except trospium
49
Gout treatment - UA level goal
<6