COPR Flashcards

(770 cards)

1
Q

What is hematemsis?

A

Vomiting blood

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2
Q

What is a normal HCO3- value?

A

22 - 26 mEq/l

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3
Q

What is an oblique fracture?

A

A break in a bone running across it at an angle other than 90 degrees

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of salbutamol?

A

Selective B-2 stimulation allows for smooth muscle relaxation of the bronchioles. Has some B-1 effects, causing an increase in HR

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5
Q

What is bradypnea?

A

Slow breathing

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6
Q

What are the four indications for the usage of haloperidol?

A
  • Acute psychosis
  • Chronic psychosis
  • Aggressive behaviour
  • Agitated behaviour
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7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of haloperidol?

A

Blocks post synaptic dopamine receptors in the brain

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8
Q

What is afterload?

A

The pressure or resistance against which the ventricles must pump to eject blood

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9
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of diazepam?

A
  1. 1-0.3 mg/kg IV/IM q 5 minutes PRN

0. 5 mg/kg PR

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10
Q

What is slander?

A

The act of injuring a person’s character, name or reputation by false or malicious states spoken with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

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11
Q

What is a prolapsed cord presentation?

A

Occurs when the umbilical cord precedes the fetal presenting part

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12
Q

What is Malfeasance?

A

A breach of duty by performance of a wrongful or unlawful act

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13
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of epinepherine for bradycardia/VF/VT/PEA/asystole?

A

0.01 mg/kg IV (1:10000)

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14
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of epinepherine for asthma/anaphylaxis?

A

0.01 mg/kg (1:1000) IM/SQ max 0.5 mg

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15
Q

What are the five contraindications for the usage of sodium bicarbonate?

A
  • Alkalosis
  • Severe pulmonary edema
  • ABD pain of unknown origin
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypernatremia
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16
Q

What does Beck’s triad represent?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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17
Q

What are two causes of hyperpnea?

A
  • Emotional stress

- Diabetic ketoacidosis

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18
Q

What is the classification of ketamine? (4)

A
  • Hypnotic
  • Amnesic
  • Analgesic
  • Anesthetic
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19
Q

What is mandated reporting?

A

Spousal abuse, child abuse/neglect, elder abuse, sexual assault, GSW’s, stabbings, animal bites, communicable diseases

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20
Q

What is a bruit?

A

The sound of turbulent blood flow around a partial obstruction

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21
Q

What are four contraindications for the usage of calcium chloride?

A
  • VF
  • Digitalis toxicity
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Renal or cardiac disease
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22
Q

What are the three contraindications of ASA?

A
  • GI bleed
  • Asthmatics sensitive to ASA
  • Hypersensitivity
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23
Q

What is a bulla?

A

Vesicle with a diameter greater than 1cm

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24
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Exaggerated lumbar concavity (swayback)

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25
What is the classification of haloperidol?
Antipsychotic
26
What are eight predictors of serious internal injury?
- Ejection from vehicle - Death in same passenger compartment - Fall from higher than 6m - Rollover of vehicle - High-speed vehicle collision - Auto-ped collision - Motorcycle crash - Penetration of head, chest or abdomen
27
What is the function of the olfactory nerve?
Sensory
28
What are the three indications for the usage of atropine?
- Symptomatic bradycardia - Organophosphate poisioning - Premedication of succinylcholine in children 16 or less years old
29
What are the two indications for the usage of norepinepherine?
- Severe hypotension | - Vasodilatory shock
30
What is a muscle sprain?
It is the tearing of a joint capsule's connective tissue
31
What is the contraindication of the usage of oxytocin?
Uterine or cervical surgery
32
What is PEEP?
- Positive End Expiratory Pressure - Prevents alveoli from closing, achieves lung recruitment, but too much can decrease blood return to the heart, decreasing cardiac output - Natural, physiological PEEP is 5cmH20
33
What is bronchophony?
Abnormal clarity of patient's transmitted voice sounds
34
How is summarization used as a feedback technique?
Briefly review the interview and your interpretation of the situation. Ask open-ended questions, if needed, to allow the patient to clarify details
35
What is a normal PR interval?
0.12-0.20 seconds
36
What are the two contraindication for the usage of salbutamol?
- Hypersensitivity | - Ischemic chest pain
37
How quick does the respiratory system work when acting as a buffer?
Minutes to hours
38
What are four examples of vasodilator anti-hypertensive medications?
- Diazoxide (Hyperstat IV) - Hydralazine (Apresoline) - Minoxidil (Loniten) - Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride, Nitropress)
39
What is an occiput posterior presentation?
Occurs when the infant's face is facing the mother's front during the descent through the birth canal
40
What is Auto-PEEP?
It occurs when the pressure at the end of the exhalation does not return to the baseline pressure, causing increased thoracic pressure resulting in decreased blood return to the heart
41
What does it mean to be biphasic?
A waveform that is partly positive and partly negative
42
What are the four T's of emergency care?
Triage, Treatment, Transport, Transfer
43
What does it mean to be competent?
It is the ability to make an informed decision about medical care
44
What is the classification of norepinephrine?
Sympathomimetic
45
How is interpretation used as a feedback technique?
State your interpretation of the information
46
What is the cylinder factor of an H tank?
3.14
47
What is the dopamine infusion dosage for ROSC in ACLS?
5-10mcg/kg/min
48
What is the pediatric dosage of magnesium sulfate for patients with TDP/Hypomagnesemia/Refractory VF?
25 - 50 mg/kg IV/IO mixed in 5ml
49
What are four contraindications for the usage of nitroglycerin?
- Hypotension (SBP < 90 mmHg) - Severe bradycardia/tachycardia - Increased ICP or intracranial hemorrhage - ED medications in the past 24 hours
50
What is the mechanism of action of metoprolol?
Beta I receptor blockade resulting in negative chronotropic, inotropic, and dromotropic response. End result is a decrease in myocardial oxygen consumption and work load
51
According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for wide regular tachycardia?
100J
52
What is the pediatric dosage of ketorolac?
0.5 mg/kg IM/IV q 4 - 6 hrs, max 30 mg/day
53
What is the classification of salbutamol? (2)
- Bronchodilator | - Sympathomimetic B-2 agonish
54
What are the four components of the patient assessment?
- Primary assessment - Focused history and secondary assessment - Ongoing assessment - Detained secondary assessment
55
What is the pediatric dosage of metoclopramide?
0.15 mg/kg IM/IV max 10 mg
56
What is the impartiality test?
Asks whether you would be willing to undergo this procedure or action if you were in the patient's place
57
What is mechanical ventilation?
It serves to support or improve patients ventilation system, oxygenation while minimizing lung injury
58
What is the dosage of magnesium sulfate for patients experiencing status asthmaticus/severe bronchospasm?
2 g in 100 ml NS over 10 - 30 min
59
What is the pediatric dosage of hydromorphone?
0.01 - 0.02 mg/kg SQ
60
What is the pediatric dose for midazolam?
0.05 - 0.2 mg/kg IV/IM/IN titrate to effect. Max 2.5 mg IV, max 5 mg IM/IN
61
What are the two disorders of an acid-base imbalance?
- Acidosis | - Alkalosis
62
What is pulse quality?
The strength, which can be weak, thready, strong or bounding
63
What are the three classifications of dimenhydrinate?
- Antiemetic - Antihistamine - Anticholinergic
64
What is cardiogenic shock?
Persistent hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion due to cardiac dysfunction in the presence of adequate intravascular volume and left ventricle filling pressure
65
What are three elements of nonverbal communication?
- distance - relative level - stance
66
What is compliance?
How easily the lungs expand
67
What is the mechanism of action of norepinepherine? (5)
- Stimulates alpha and beta receptors, primarily alpha - + inotrope - + chronotrope - Increases coronary artery blood flow - Causes severe vasoconstriction (increasing SVR)
68
What is indication for the usage of naloxone?
Decreased LOC and respiratory depression in a suspected opioid overdose
69
What is the adult dosage for glucagon when facing a beta blocker overdose?
2 - 5 mg IV
70
What is an impacted fracture?
It is a break in a bone in which the bone is compressed on itself
71
What is the mechanism of action of naloxone?
It displaces opioids from receptors, reversing the effects of narcotic overdose
72
What is the pediatric nebulized dosage of Atrovent?
125 - 250 mcg mixed with ventolin and/or NS to a minimum of 2cc
73
What are five other delivery complications?
- Multiple births - Cephalopelvic disproportion - Precipitous delivery - Shoulder dystocia - Meconium staining
74
What lab value of an ABG will represent the metabolic system is responsible for the disorder?
HCO3- level
75
What is the cylinder factor of an E tank?
0.28
76
What is metabolic acidosis?
It is a condition that occurs when the body produces excessive quantities of acid or when the kidneys are not removing enough acid from the body
77
What is systole?
The contraction of the heart (usually referring to ventricular contraction) during which blood is propelled into the pulmonary arteries and aorta; when the term is used without reference to a specific chamber of the heart, the term implies ventricular systole
78
What are the four contraindications for the usage of meperidine?
- Hypersensitivity - Undiagnosed abdominal pain - Head injury - MAO inhibitors
79
What does decorticate mean?
Arms flexed, legs extended
80
What is the classification of etomidate? (2)
- Sedative | - Hypnotic
81
What are nine signs of inadequate breathing?
- Altered mental status - SOB - Retractions - Asymmetric chest wall movement - Accessory muscle use - Cyanosis - Audible sounds - Abnormal rate or pattern - Nasal flaring
82
What is the mechanism of action of calcium chloride? (3)
- Essential component for functional integrity of nervous and muscular systems - Enhances automaticity - Positive inotrope
83
What are four examples of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor medications?
- Captopril (Capoten) - Enalapril (Vasotec) - Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) - Ramipril (Altace)
84
How much blood may be lost from a femur fracture?
1500ml
85
According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for narrow irrgeular tachycardia?
120-200J biphasic | 200J monophasic
86
What is a pathogen?
Microorganisms capable of producing disease, such as bacteria or viruses
87
What is muscle cramping?
It is muscle pain resulting from overactivity, lack of oxygen, and accumulation of waste products
88
What is respiratory alkalosis?
It is a condition in which increased respiration elevates the blood pH beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45) with a concurrent reduction in arterial levels of carbon dioxide.
89
What is the pediatric MDI dosage of Atrovent?
1 - 2 puffs
90
What is an arterial line?
An angiocatheter is inserted into an artery to monitor real-time blood pressure and to obtain samples for arterial blood gas measurements
91
What is the pediatric dosage of diphenhydramine?
1-2 mg/kg IM/IV/IO (max 50mg)
92
What is the mechanism of action of glucagon? (2)
- Stimulates the release of glycogen from the liver, for glycogenolysis - Smooth muscle relaxant
93
What is the medical director?
A physician who is legally responsible for all the clinical and patient-care aspects of an EMS system
94
What are the atrioventricular (AV) valves?
Valves in the heart that separate the atria from the ventricles; the tricuspid valve separates the right atrium and the right ventricle, the mitral valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle
95
What are the six indications for the usage of calcium chloride?
- Hyperkalemia - Hypocalcemia - CCB overdose - Hypomagnesaemia - Respiratory depression of after administration of MgSO4 - To prevent hypotension from calcium channel blockers
96
What is borborygmi
Loud, prolonged, gurgling bowel sounds indicating hyperperistalsis
97
What is the membrane potential?
The difference in electrical charge across the cell membrane
98
What is the respiratory effort?
It is how hard the patient works to breath
99
What lab value of an ABG will represent the respiratory system is responsible for the disorder?
PaCO2
100
What is PIP?
- Peek Inspiratory Pressure - Greatest pressure measured during the inspiratory phase. The pressure is used to deliver the tidal volume by overcoming the non-elastic (airways) and the elastic (lung parenchyma) resistance
101
According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for wide irregular tachycardia?
Defibrillation dose (do not sync)
102
What is atrophy?
Skin surface thins and markings disappear, semitransparent parchment like appearance
103
What is diastole?
Phase of cardiac cycle when ventricles relax
104
What is the relative refractory period?
It corresponds with the downslope of the T wave; cardiac cells can be stimulated to depolarize if the stimulus is strong enough
105
What is the classification of pancuronium?
Neuromuscular-blocking agent (Non-depolarizing)
106
What is defamation?
An intentional false communication that injures another person's reputation or good name
107
What is the pediatric dosage for organophosphate poisoning of atropine?
0.05mg/kg IV/IM/ETT, repeat q 10-20 min to decrease signs and symptoms
108
What is Vt?
- Tidal volume | - Volume of gas inhaled/exhaled for one respiratory cycle
109
What are the two causes of acid-base disorders?
- Respiratory | - Metabolic
110
What are four physicial assessment techniques?
- Inspection - Palpation - Percussion - Auscultation
111
How is explanation used as a feedback technique?
Share factual or objective information related to the message
112
What are the three main chemical buffers?
- Bicarbonate - Phosphate - Protein
113
What are the four indications for the usage of furosemide?
- Circulatory overload due to: - acute pulmonary edema - CHF - Hypertensive emergency
114
What is perfusion?
The passage of blood through an organ or tissue
115
What are the two indications for the usage of dobutamine?
- Decreased heart function due to cardiac contractility | - Systolic BP 70-100mmHg with no signs of shock
116
What is the classification of amiodraone?
Antidysrhythmic
117
What is a dislocation?
It is a complete displacement of a bone end from its position in a joint capsule
118
What is tachycardia?
A pulse rate faster than 100
119
What is the apex of the heart?
The lower portion of the heart, the tip of the ventricles (approximately the level of the fifth left inter-coastal space); points leftward, downward and forward
120
What are three patient responses to questioning?
- pour out information easily - reveal some things and conceal others - resist responding
121
What is the classification of oxytocin? (4)
- Hormone - Uterine stimulant - Oxytocic - Uterotonic
122
What is the BLS adult HCP algorithm?
- Pt is unresponsive - Activate emergency response and get an AED - Check pulse *Is there a definite pulse within 10 seconds* - Begin CPR 30:2 - AED arrives - Check rhythm - If shockable, give 1 shock and resume CPR - If not shockable, resume CPR
123
What is a papule?
Elevated firm spot with varying color from brown to red or pink to purpilish red and has a diameter less than 1cm
124
What is peripheral vascular resistance?
The resistance of the flow of blood determined by blood vessel diameter and the tone of the vascular musculature
125
What is tidal volume?
The amount of air one breath moves into and out of the lungs
126
What is Ti?
- Inspiratory time - Can fluctuate to achieve adequate Vt. - Long Ti is utilized to give more time to deliver the Vt, increasing alveolar distension and gas exchange -
127
What is cultural imposition?
The imposition of your beliefs, values, and patterns of behaviour on people of another culture
128
What is Administrative Law?
A law that is enacted by governmental agencies at either the federal/provincial/territorial level
129
What is the adult dosage for dopamine?
2-20 mcg/kg/min IV. Start slow and titrate quickly as necessary for desired effects
130
What is percussion?
The production of sound waves by striking one object against another
131
What is the adult nebulized dosage of Atrovent?
250 - 500 mcg mixed with ventolin q 20 minutes x3
132
What are four abnormal delivery presentations?
- Breech presentation - Prolapsed cord - Limb presentation - Occiput posterior
133
What is the infant nebulized dosage of salbutamol?
1.25 mg
134
What is the classification of enoxaparin?
Anticoagulant
135
What is pulse rate?
The number of pulses felt in one minute
136
What is Biot's respirations?
It is rapid, deep respirations (gasping) with short pauses between sets
137
What is Confidentiality?
The principle of law that prohibits the release of medical or other personal information about a patient without the patient's consent
138
According to ACLS, what is the dosage of amiodarone in tachycardia with a pulse?
150mg over 10 mins
139
What is the mechanism of action of renin blocker medications?
Reduces blood pressure by blocking renin stimulation of angiotensinogen and inhibiting the RAAS
140
What is the mechanism of action of hydromorphone? (3)
- Hydrogenated ketone derivative of morphine that acts as a narcotic analgesic. It has a shorter duration of action than morphine. It is approximately 8 times more potent on a milligram basis than morphine. - Exerts its principal pharmacological effect on the CNS and GI tract. Binds to opiod receptors ( mu and delta) in the CNS producing analgesia and euphoria - Multiple actions but works primarily on the CNS and organs containing the smooth muscle
141
What does the QRS complex represent?
Ventricular depolarization
142
What is the classification of acetaminophen?
- Analgesic | - Antipyretic
143
What is the classification of clopidogrel?
Antiplatelet agent
144
What is the indication for the usage of etomidate?
Induction for RSI
145
What is the most common cause of right ventricular failure?
Left ventricular failure
146
What is Proximate Cause?
Action or inaction of the paramedic that immediately caused or worsened the damage suffered by the patient
147
What is hypothermia?
Decrease in the body's core temperature
148
What are the three contraindications to the usage of acetaminophen?
- Hypersensitivity - Liver disease - Major burns
149
What are the four indications of amiodarone?
- Refractory VF/pulseless VT - Polymorphic VT and wide complex tachycardia of unknown origin - Control of hemodynamically stable VT - Runs of VT post cardiac arrest
150
What is feedback?
A response to a message
151
What are the H's and T's?
- Hypovolemia - Hypoxia - Hydrogen ions (acidosis) - Hypo/hyperkalemia - Hypothermia - Tension pneumothorax - Tamponade, cardiac - Toxins - Thrombosis, pulmonary - Thrombosis, coronary
152
What is cleaning?
Washing an object with such cleaners as soap and water
153
What is turgor?
The normal tension of the skin
154
What are the two adult dosages of adenosine?
- 6mg rapid IV push | - 12mg rapid IV push
155
What is the peak systolic pressure?
Opening of the aortic valve during LV systole, allows blood to rapidly eject into the aorta
156
What are nine feedback techniques?
- silence - reflection - facilitation - empathy - clarification - confrontation - interpretation - explanation - summarization
157
What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?
Inhibits the P2Y12 of ADP receptor on the platelet which inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the activation of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa pathway
158
What are the semilunar valves?
The valves in the heart that are shaped like half-moons; the pulmonic valve prevents the backflow of blood from the pulmonary arteries into the right ventricle; the aortic valve prevents the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle
159
What is the adult dosage of propofol?
25 - 75 mcg/kg IV as needed
160
What is the pediatric dosage of dimenhydrinate?
1.0 mg/kg IV/IM max 25mg
161
What is hypernatremia?
Higher than normal sodium level in blood
162
What is the classification of adenosine?
Antidysrhythmic
163
What is a normal female systolic blood pressure before menopause?
110-140
164
What is respiratory acidosis?
It is a condition that occurs when the lungs are unable to remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body. Excess CO2 causes the pH of the blood and other bodily fluids to decrease, making them to acidic
165
If it is noted the pt has symptomatic tachycardia, what is the next step?
Synchronized cardioversion
166
What is hyponatremia?
Lower than normal sodium level in blood
167
What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood ejected from a ventricle with each heartbeat
168
What is the classification of fentanyl?
Narcotic analgesic
169
What are the three contraindications for the usage of TXA?
- Hypersensitivity - Active thromboembolic disease (PE, CVA, DVT) - Unable to initiate bolus within the time limit
170
What is heart failure?
A condition in which the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body
171
What is gravidity?
Number of times a woman has been pregnant
172
What is the adult IV dosage of meperidine?
25 - 50 mg
173
What is intrinsic PEEP?
Inadvertently applied PEEP caused from air trapping or over inflated lungs
174
What is the respiratory rate?
The number of times a patient breathes in one minute
175
What is a fissure?
Linear red crack ranging into the dermis
176
What is excoriation?
A linear, may be hollow or crusted, caused by a loss of epidermis leaving the dermis exposed
177
What is the adult dosage for glucagon when facing an esophageal foreign body?
1 mg IM/IV
178
How is facilitation used as a feedback technique?
It encourages the speaker to provide more information
179
What are the two contraindications for the usage of magnesium sulfate?
- Heart block | - Myocardial damage
180
What is MAP?
- Mean Airway Pressure - Effects oxygenation and influences ventilation: too high ventilation may drop due to decreased compliance from overdistension, too low hypoventilation may occur due to atelectasis
181
What is the adult IM dosage of morphine?
5 - 10 mg
182
What is eclampsia?
It is the development of seizures in a woman with severe preeclampsia
183
What are the four contraindications for the usage of ketamine?
- Hypersensitivity - Increased ICP - Seizure disorder - Uncontrolled HTN
184
What is the mechanism of action of meperidine? (3)
- Less potent then morphine; 60 - 80 mg of meperidine roughly equivalent to 10 mg of morphine - CNS depressant, providing both analgesia and sedation - Does not have the hemodynamic properties as morphine but has the tendency for physical depedence and abuse
185
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
Refers to the abnormal implantation of the fertilized eggs outside of the uterus
186
What is erosion?
A depression in the epidermis, caused by tissue loss
187
What is the classification of metoprolol?
Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent
188
What is subcutaneous emphysema?
Crackling sensation caused by air just underneath the skin
189
What is hypertension?
A blood pressure higher than normal
190
What is a pulmonary embolism?
The presence of a blood clot in the pulmonary vascular system
191
What are the three indications for the usage of glucagon?
- Hypoglycemia - Beta blocker overdose - Esophageal foreign body
192
What is nulligravida?
Woman who has not been pregnant
193
What is the adult maintenance dosage of amiodarone?
1mg/min over 6 hours 150mg in 250ml NS infuse at 100ml/hr
194
What is the dosage of etomidate?
0.1-0.3 mg/kg over 15-30 seconds
195
What are myocardial cells?
They are working cells of the myocardium that contain contractile filaments and form the muscular layer of the atrial walls and the thicker muscular layer of the ventricular walls
196
What is hyperpnea?
It is a normal rate, but with deep respiration's
197
How is reflection used as a feedback technique?
To check your understanding and to reassure the speaker, echo her message back to her using your own words
198
What is apnea?
It is an absence of breathing
199
What is a closed fracture?
A broken bone in which the bone ends or the forces that caused the break do not penetrate the skin
200
What is the mechanism of action of tenecteplase?
Converts thrombus-bound plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades the fibrin matrix of the thrombus
201
According to ACLS, if the QRS is equal to or greater than 0.12 seconds, what are the next four steps?
- IV access and 12 lead if available - Consider adenosine only if regular and monomorphic - Consider antiarrhythmic infusion - Consider expert consultation
202
What are four causes of bleeding during pregnancy?
- Abortion - Ectopic pregnancy - Placenta previa - Abruptio placentae
203
What are three indications for the usage of nitroglycerin?
- Possible ischemia due to: - Unstable angina - AMI - Pulmonary edema
204
What are eight contraindications for the usage of enoxaparin?
- Hypersensitivity - Hemophilia - Severe liver damage - Shock - Active bleeding - IM injections - History of heparin induced thrombocytopenia - Do not use concurrently with unfractionated heparin
205
What is hypokalemia?
Lower than normal potassium level in blood
206
What are four causes of tachypnea?
- Fever - Anxiety - Exercise - Shock
207
What is a postpartum hemorrhage?
Is the loss of 500cc or more blood immediately following the delivery
208
What is ascites?
Bulges in the flanks and across the abdomen, indicating edema caused by congestive heart failure
209
What are four examples of central adrenergic inhibitor anti-hypertensives?
- Cloninide (Catapres) - Methyldopa (Aldomet) - Guanabenz (Wytensin) - Guanfacine (Tenex)
210
What are the five indications for the usage of epinepherine?
- Symptomatic bradycardia - Cardiac arrest - Anaphylaxis - Severe asthma - Croup/stridor
211
What is the indication for the usage of pancuronium?
Achieve paralysis to facilitate endotracheal intubation
212
What are the three regulating systems that maintain the body's pH?
- Chemical buffer - Respiratory system - Renal system
213
What are three causes of Kussmaul's respirations?
- Renal Failure - Metabolic Acidosis - Diabetic Ketoacidosis
214
What are five adventitious breath sounds?
- Crackles - Wheezes - Rhonchi - Stridor - Pleural rubs
215
What are six ways auto-PEEP can be corrected?
- Decreasing inspiratory time - Decreasing the respiratory rate - Adjusting the pressure support (PS) flow term up - Increasing flow rate - Bronchodilatory therapy - Increasing PEEP level
216
What is metabolic alkalosis?
It is a condition in which the pH of the tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is a result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations
217
What is the indication of usage for ASA?
Acute coronary syndrome
218
What is spider angioma?
Reddish legs radiate from the red spot
219
What is pressure control ventilator mode?
Uses constant flow of gas, time cycled serves to administer breaths at fixed intervals, pressure limited to pre-set pressure that once reached remains for the duration of the inspiratory time
220
What is an open fracture?
A broken bone in which the bone ends or the forces that caused the break to penetrate the surrounding skin
221
What is the classification of furosemide?
Diuretic
222
What is preeclampsia?
- It is a condition during pregnancy that is characterized by hypertension and protein in the urine - Usually occurs after week 34 and can develop after the baby is born
223
What is Breach of Duty?
An action or inaction that violates the standard of care expected from a paramedic
224
What is the classification of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)?
Anticholinergic
225
What are three active listening skills?
- Facilitation - Reflection - Clarification
226
What are four contraindications for the usage of haloperidol?
- Parkinson's - CNS depression, coma - Underlying correctable causes - Previous history of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
227
According to the Centre for Conflict Resolution, what are five basic styles to approaching conflict?
- Competing/controlling - Avoiding - Accommodating - Compromising - Collaboration
228
What is the classification of lidocaine?
Anti-arrhythmic (Class 1b)
229
What are the three contraindications of the usage of clopidogrel?
- Hypersensitivity - Active pathological bleeding - Reference to local protocols
230
What is the indication for the usage of TXA?
Trauma with all of the following: - Less than 3 hours since time of injury - Systolic BP < 80 mmHg or HR > 110 - Suspicion of significant hemorrhagic blood loss
231
What is the adult dosage of epinepherine for asthma/anaphylaxis?
0.3-0.5 mg IM/SQ 1:1000 or 0.1 mg IV 1:10000
232
What is the pediatric dosage of propofol?
1.0 mg/kg IV
233
What are crackles?
Light crackling, popping, non-musical sounds heard usually during inspiration
234
What is the volume control ventilator mode?
Tidal volume is maintained at the expense of peak airway pressure, increasing the risk of barotrauma
235
What occurs with a cephalopelvic disproportion?
Occurs when the infant's head is too big to pass through the maternal pelvis easily
236
What is the mechanism of action of beta adrenergic blocker anti-hypertensives?
Competes with epinepherine to occupy beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, blood vessels, lungs and CNS
237
What is a vesicle?
Elevated area with a diameter less than 1cm and contains serous fluid
238
What is shoulder dystocia?
Occurs when the infant's shoulders are larger than the head
239
What is the dosage for eclampsia and seizure prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia of magnesium sulfate?
2 - 4 g IV/IO in 100 ml over 10 - 30 min with a maintenance infusion of 1g/hr
240
What is the mechanism of action of vecuronium? (3)
- Skeletal muscle relaxant - Paralyzes skeletal muscle including respiratory muscles - Acts by competitively binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors. The binding of vecuronium decreases the opportunity for acetylcholine to bind to the nicotinic receptor at the post junctional membrane of the muscular neural junction. As a result, depolarization is prevented, calcium ions are not released and muscle contraction does not occur
241
What are the two indications for the usage of adenosine?
- Stable narrow complex tachycardia | - Monomorphic wide complex tachycardia
242
What is a normal QT interval?
Less than 0.38 seconds
243
What is Grey-Turner's sign?
The discoloration over the flanks suggestive of intra-abdominal bleeding
244
What is cor pulmonale?
It is hypertrophy of the right ventricle resulting from disorders of the lungs; CHF secondary to pulmonary hypertension
245
What are four maternal complications during pregnancy and delivery?
- Postpartum hemorrhage - Uterine rupture - Uterine inversion - Pulmonary embolism
246
What is the indication for the usage of meperidine?
Pain relief
247
What is multipara?
Woman who has delivered more than one baby
248
What are Korotkoff sounds?
The sounds of blood hitting arterial walls
249
What is the pediatric IV/IM/SQ dose of naloxone?
0.1 mg/kg 2- 3 min, max 2.0 mg per dose
250
What is bradycardia?
A pulse rate slower than 60
251
What is the second dosage of Amiodarone IV/IO used in ACLS?
150mg
252
What is systole?
Phase of cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract
253
What is the classification of glucagon?
Pancreatic hormone
254
What is pulse pressure?
The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure
255
What is the dosage of clopidogrel for those patients over the age of 75?
75mg PO
256
What is the adult dosage of succinylcholine?
1.5 mg/kg IV, max dose 150 mg
257
What is the adult dosage of diphenhydramine?
25-50 mg IM/IV/IO
258
What is the main antiarrhythmic infusion that ACLS refers to?
Amiodarone
259
What is the normal duration of a QRS complex?
0.11 second
260
What is the mechanism of action of diphenhydramine? (4)
- Competes with free histamine for binding and blocks H1 histamine receptors - Antagonizes the effects of histamine on Histamine (HA) receptors, leading to a reduction of the negative symptoms brought on by histamine - CNS depressant - Has antiemetic properties
261
What is a normal pH?
7.35 - 7.45
262
What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide? (2)
- Antagonizes central and peripheral dopamine receptors, as well as 5HT4 receptor agonistic properties, which raises the threshold of activity in the chemo-receptor trigger zone, resulting in Antiemetic effects - Increases the amplitude and tone of gastric contractions, increases peristalsis and causes accelerated gastric emptying and intestinal tract
263
What are the two contraindications for the usage of dobutamine?
- Untreated hypovolemia | - Vasodilatory shock (septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic)
264
What does the P wave represent?
Atrial depolarization
265
What is the classification of dopamine?
Sympathomimetic
266
What is right ventricular failure?
The right ventricle fails as an effective forward pump, causing back pressure of blood into systemic venous circulation and venous congestion
267
What are three sources of difficult interviews?
- Patient's physical condition - Patient's fear of talking - Patients intentions to deceive
268
What is whispered pectoriloquy?
Abnormal clarity of patient's transmitted whispers
269
How is silence used as a feedback technique?
It gives the patient time to gather her thoughts and add to what has been said
270
What is ischemia?
Decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ
271
What is the pediatric dosage of sodium bicarbonate?
1 mEq/kg slow IVP, repeat 0.5 mEq/kg q 10 min PRN
272
What are wheezes?
Continuous high-pitched musical sounds similar to a whistle
273
What is an epiphyseal fracture?
A disruption in the epiphyseal plate of a child's bone
274
What are six examples of beta adrenergic blocker medications?
- Esmolol (Brevibloc) - Propranolol (Inderal) - Metoprolol (Lopressor) - Nadolol (Corgard) - Timolol (Blocadren) - Atenolol (Tenormin)
275
What is purpura?
Reddish-purple blotches with a diameter more than 0.5cm
276
What is a normal pulse rate?
60-100
277
What is the indication for the usage of propofol?
Induction and maintenance of sedation
278
What is the adult dosage of calcium chloride?
8-16 mg/kg over 3 minutes
279
What does DCAP-BTLS stand for?
- Deformities - Contusion - Abrasions - Penetration - Burns - Tenderness - Laceration - Swelling
280
What is the contraindication for the usage of dopamine?
Untreated hypovolemia
281
What is Parity?
The number of pregnancies carried to full term
282
What is the mechanism of action of pancuronium? (3)
- Skeletal muscle relaxant - Paralyzes skeletal muscles including respiratory muscles - Competitive acetylcholine antagonist on neuromuscular junctions displacing the Ach from its post-synaptic nicotinic Ach receptors and causes no spontaneous depolarization
283
What is the classification of meperidine?
Narcotic analgesic
284
What is petechiae?
Reddish-purple spots with a diameter less than 0.5cm
285
What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads: I, aVL?
Lateral (High)
286
What is the classification of acetylcysteine?
Mucolytic agent
287
What is active listening?
The process of responding to your patient's statements with words or gestures that demonstrate your understanding
288
What is the His-Purkinje system?
The portion of the conduction system consisting of the bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibres
289
What are nine contraindications to the usage of midazolam?
- Hypersensitivity - Narrow-angle glaucoma - Patients in shock with depressed vital signs - Alcoholic coma - Myasthenia Gravis - Acute pulmonary insufficiency - COPD - Pregnancy - Renal failure
290
What is the classification of sodium bicarbonate? (2)
- Alkalinizing agent | - Electrolyte
291
What is the mechanism of action of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors medications?
They reduce blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
292
How is confrontation used as a feedback technique?
Help the patient focus on one particular factor of the interview
293
What is minute ventilation?
The amount of gas, in litres, exhaled by the lungs in one minute - Determining factors: pH, PaCO2, disease states - VE = Vt x RR
294
What is the mechanism of action of enoxaparin?
Potentiates antithrombin III (which inhibits coagulation) and decreases the formation of thrombin
295
What are the three indications for the usage of lidocaine?
- VF/VT - Stable VT with a pulse - Wide-complex tachycardia of unknown origin
296
What is a telangiectasia?
Red, thread like line
297
What are the three indications for the usage of rocuronium?
- Maintain paralysis post intubation after RSI - Maintain patient and crew safety in a combative patient, after patient intubation - To ease ventilation and/or oxygenation of intubated patients
298
What is a normal female systolic blood pressure after menopause?
120-150
299
What is empathy?
Identification with an understanding of another's situation, feelings, and motives
300
What is the adult IV dose of naloxone?
0.4 - 2.0 mg IV q 2 - 3 min
301
What is the pediatric dosage of amiodarone for VF/pulseless VT?
5mg/kg (max 300mg) diluted in 5ml NS rapid IV push. Repeat up to 15mg/kg/24hr
302
What is the dose of lidocaine for a patient with VF/VT?
1.0 mg/kg with subsequent doses of 0.5 mg/kg q 10 min (max 3.0 mg/kg)
303
What is auscultation?
Listening with a stethoscope for sounds produced by the body
304
What is ecchymosis
Reddish-purple blotches with varying sizes
305
What is the function of the acoustic nerve?
Sensory
306
What is a venous star?
Bluish legs that radiate from a blue center
307
What is the adult dosage of D50?
25g IVP, may repeat once
308
What is the adult dose of pancuronium?
0.04 - 0.1 mg/kg IV; repeat dose of 0.01 - 0.02 mg/kg q 20 mins
309
What is the symbol for hydrogen?
H+
310
What are the four types of patients?
- Trauma patient with significant MOI - Trauma patient with isolated injury - Responsive medical patient - Unresponsive medical patient
311
What is the pediatric dosage for glucagon when facing an esophageal foreign body?
0.5 mg IM/IV/SQ (< 20 kg) Max dose 1 mg
312
What is the mechanism of action of dopamine?
Stimulates both alpha and beta receptors: - alpha: increases peripheral vasoconstriction (increases SVR) - beta: increases heart rate, contractility, stroke volume Different effects at different doses: 1-3mcg/kg/min: renal and mesenteric perfusion 3-10 mcg/kg/min: mixed alpha and beta effects 10-20 mcg/kg/min: primarily alpha effects
313
What is the Standard of Care?
The degree of care, skill, and judgement expected under like or similar circumstances from a similarly trained, reasonable paramedic in the same community
314
What is the mechanism of injury?
Combined strength, direction, and nature of forces that injured your patient
315
How is clarification used as a feedback technique?
Ask the speaker to help you understand, when you need to eliminate confusion about what has been said
316
What is a fatigue fracture?
It is a break in a bone that is associated with prolonged or repeated stresses
317
What is the dosage of vecuronium?
0.08 - 0.1 mg/kg
318
What is the mechanism of action of oxytocin?
Selectively stimulates the smooth musculature of the uterus, resulting in increased uterine muscle tone and increased frequency and strength of contractions
319
What is abruptio placentae?
It is the premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall - Poses a life threat to both the baby and the mother - Sudden, sharp, tearing like pain in the third trimester are key indicators
320
What is the classification of diazepam?
Benzodiazepine
321
What is the pediatric dosage for symptomatic bradycardia of atropine?
0.02mg/kg IV q 3-5 min, 0.1 mg minimum dose due to risk of paradoxic bradycardia, max dose 0.5mg for child and 1.0 mg for adolescent
322
What is orthopnea?
The difficulty in breathing while lying supine
323
What are three types of joint injury?
- Sprain - Subluxation - Dislocation
324
What is depolarization?
The movement of ions across a cell membrane, causing the inside of the cell to become more positive; an electrical event expected to result in contraction
325
What is a fasicle?
A small bundle of nerve fibers
326
What is NIPPV ventilator mode?
- Non Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation - Consists of any form of ventilatory support without ETT. Provides two levels of pressure (I to E) and the Pt's airway, that is triggered by the pt and/or the ventilator
327
What is somatic pain?
It is a type of nociceptive pain that is also referred to as skin, tissue, or muscle pain, the nerves that detect somatic pain are located in the skin and deep tissues
328
What is the pediatric dosage of fentanyl?
0.5 - 1 mcg/kg IVP over 3 - 5 min, max 100 mcg
329
What is disinfecting?
Cleaning with an agent that can kill some microorganisms on the surface of the object
330
What is nonmalfeasance?
The obligation not to harm the patient
331
What are the elements of Negligence?
Duty to Act Breach of that Duty Actual Damages Proximate Cause
332
What is scoliosis?
Lateral curvature of the spine
333
What is hemoptysis?
Coughing up blood
334
What is referred pain?
It is pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source
335
What is the dosage of lorazepam for seizures and/or status epilepticus?
0.05 mg/kg slow IV push; total single dose 4 mg, repeat q 10-15 minutes to a max of 8 mg
336
What is the adult dosage of rocuronium?
0.6 - 1.2 mg/kg IV, repeat q 30 min at 0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg PRN
337
What respiratory sound signals a potentially life-threatening airway obstruction?
Stridor
338
What is hyperkalemia?
Higher than normal potassium level in blood
339
What are two contraindications to the usage of rocuronium?
- Hypersensitivity | - Unable to ventilation the patient with BVM
340
What are the four contraindications to the usage of metoclopramide?
- Hypersensitivity - GI bleed, mechanical obstruction or perforation - Pheochromocytoma, as it may lead to a HTN crisis - Seizure disorder
341
What is nullipara?
Woman who has yet to deliver her first child
342
What are three indications for the usage of morphine?
- Pain relief - AMI/ACS - CHF
343
According to ACLS, what defines symptomatic tachycardia?
- Hypotension - Altered mental status - Signs of shock - Ischemic chest discomfort - Acute heart failure
344
What is the pediatric dosage of dobutamine?
5 mcg/kg/min
345
What is the pediatric IV dosage of meperidine?
0.5 mg/kg
346
What is H2CO3?
Carbonic acid
347
What is the polarized state?
The period after repolarization of a myocardial cell (also called the resting state) when the outside of the cell is positive and the interior of the cell is negative
348
What is hematuria?
Blood in the urine
349
What are six indications for the usage of midazolam?
- Procedural sedation - Sedation for RSI/RSS - Maintenance of sedation post-intubation - Anticonvulsant therapy - Combative or violent patients - MSK injuries in combination with analgesics
350
What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?
Attaches to cholinergic (nicotinic) receptors of the motor end plate and produces depolarization (may cause fasciculations). Subsequent blockade of impulse transmission is produced as succinylcholine is not rapidly hydrolysed by acetylcholinesterase
351
What is a greenstick fracture?
It is a partial fracture of a child's bone
352
What are normal PaCO2 values?
35 - 45 mmHg
353
What is the dosage of enoxaparin for a patient greater than the age of 75?
- 0.75 mg/kg (max 75 mg) SQ (lateral abdomen) | - No IV dose
354
What is the indication for the usage of ketorolac?
Moderate to severe pain
355
What is the mechanism of action of dobutamine? (6)
- Stimulates the B1 receptors in the heart resulting in increased cardiac output - Increases contractility without inducing marked tachycardia (positive inotrope) - Increases stroke volume - Some increase in heart rate (positive chronotrope) - Decreased systemic vascular resistance - Reduces ventricular filling pressure
356
What is the adult dosage of dobutamine?
2.5-5mcg/kg/min IV, titrating to SBP of greater than 90
357
What is cardiac output?
The amount of blood pumped into the aorta each minute by the heart; defined as the stroke volume multipled by the heart rate
358
What is the dosage of lorazepam for cardioversion?
1 - 2 mg slow IVP until desired effect
359
What is the function of the renal system when maintaining the acid-base balance?
- Maintain's balance by absorbing or excreting acids and bases - Kidney's can produce HCO3- to replenish lost supplies - When blood is acidic, kidney's reabsorb HCO3- and excrete H+ - When blood is alkaline, the kidney's excrete HCO3- and retain H+
360
What are ions?
Electrically charged particles
361
What are five examples of calcium channel blocker medicaitons?
- Diltiazem (Cardizem) - Nicardipine (Cardene) - Nifedipine (Procardia/Adalat) - Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) - Amlodipine (Norvasc)
362
What is tachypnea?
An increased respiratory rate
363
What are the seven mechanisms of action of amiodraone?
- prolongs the cardiac action potential and refractory period - inhibits alpha and beta adrenergic stimulation resulting in the relaxation of vascular smooth muscle and decreases peripheral vascular resistance - Class I: blocks Na channels, Class II: inhibits sympathetic stimulation, Class III: blocks K channels, Class IV: blocks Ca channels (weakly)
364
How is norepinepherine mixed?
4 mg in 250 ml of D5W
365
What is Nonfeasance?
A breach of duty by failure to perform a required act or duty
366
What is justice?
The obligation to treat all patients fairly
367
What is the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin? (2)
- Relaxes vascular smooth muscle, there by dilating the veins and arterioles, causing blood pooling, which reduces preload - Reduces left ventricular systolic wall tension, which decreases afterload
368
What are five areas of neurological exam?
- Mental status and speech - Cranial nerves - Motor system - Sensory system - Reflexes
369
What is PS?
- Pressure support - Utilized to overcome the WOB (work of breathing) caused by ETT diameter or the pt has difficulty taking a breath - Pressure support assists with the WOB by augmenting the Pt's inspiratory breath
370
What is muscle fatigue?
A condition in which a muscle's ability to respond to stimulation is lost or reduced through overactivity
371
What are the ten contraindications for the usage of succinylcholine?
- Penetrating eye injuries - Narrow angle glaucoma - Personal or family history of malignant hyperthermia - Pseudocholinesterase deficiency (prolonged paralysis) - Burns greater than 24 hours old - Spinal cord injuries in the acute phase. Greatest risk is 7 - 10 days post injury - Multiple trauma after the acute phase. Greatest risk is 7 - 10 days post injury - Hyperkalemia - Neuromuscular disease - Crush injury
372
What is the mechanism of action of ketorolac? (3)
- Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis producing peripherally mediated analgesia, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects - At analgesia doses, little anti-inflammatory or antipyretic activity seen - Acts peripherally vs narcotics, which act upon the CNS, therefore, no CNS depression
373
What is an abortion?
It is the termination of pregnancy prior to the 20th week of gestation
374
What are the eleven types of fractures?
- Closed - Open - Hairline - Impacted - Transverse - Oblique - Comminuted - Spiral - Fatigue - Greenstick - Epiphyseal
375
What is the indication for the usage of hydromorphone?
Moderate to severe pain
376
What are five causes of bradypnea?
- Sleep - Drugs - Metabolic disorder - Head injury - Stroke
377
What is the classification of ASA?
- Anti-platelet - NSAID - Antipyretic
378
What is the classification of succinylcholine?
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
379
What is hypotension?
A blood pressure lower than normal
380
What are the three indications for the usage of sodium bicarbonate?
- Wide complex tachycardia or arrest from TCA OD - Acidosis - Cardiac arrest due to suspected pre-existing hyperkalemia or ASA OD
381
What are the three indications for the usage of dimenhydrinate?
- Nausea/vomiting associated with Meniere's disease - Nausea/vomiting - Relief or prevention of motion sickness and vertigo
382
What is the adult dosage for organophosphate poisoning of atropine?
2 mg IV push q 5 mins titrating dose until symptoms decrease
383
What is the classification of nitroglycerin? (3)
- Antianginal - Vascular smooth muscle relaxer - Vasodilator
384
What is the mechanism of action of epinepherine? (3)
- Stimulates alpha and beta receptors - increases heart rate - increases AV conduction - increases force of myocardial contractility - increases vasoconstriction (increases SVR) - Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle - Increases coronary and cerebral blood flow
385
What does OPQRST-ASPN stand for?
- Onset of problem - Provocation/Palliative factors - Quality - Region/radiation - Severity - Time - Associated Symptoms - Pertinent Negatives
386
What is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blocker medication?
Blocks the flow of calcium ions through the cell membrane
387
What is atrial kick?
Blood pushed into the ventricles because of atrial contraction
388
What is Tort?
A civil wrong committed by one individual against another
389
What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
Sudden shortness of breath at night
390
What is Te?
- Expiratory time | - Adequate amount of time that is required to allow the lungs to empty, thus allowing proper oxygenation
391
What is the second dosage of adenosine?
12mg rapid IV push
392
What is kyphosis?
Exaggerated thoracic concavity (hunchback)
393
What is the systolic blood pressure?
The force of blood against arteries when the ventricles contract
394
What is the classification of lorazepam?
Benzodiazepine
395
What is the mechanism of action of morphine? (2)
- Binds with opioid receptors to block the response to and perception of pain - Causes peripheral venous vasodilation (decreases SVR)
396
What is hyperthermia?
Increase in the body's core temperature
397
What is the contraindication of D50?
Hyperglycemia
398
What is a tumour?
Elevated solid, diameter greater than 2cm, may be the same color as the skin
399
What is a patch?
An irregular flat maccule with a diameter greater than 1cm
400
What is the classification of epinepherine? (2)
- Sympathomimetic | - Adrenergic
401
What is online medical direction?
Occurs when a qualified physician gives direct orders to a prehospital care provider by either radio or telephone
402
What is intermittent claudication?
Intermittent calf pain while walking that subsides with rest
403
What is a limb presentation?
This is when an arm or leg is the presenting part of a deliver
404
What is a lichenification?
A thickening and hardening of the epidermis with emphasized lines on the skin, resembling a lichen
405
What are six elements of patient history?
- Preliminary data - Chief complaint - Present illness/injury - Past history - Current health status - Review of systems
406
How much fluid is given in the remaining 16 hours of a burn when using the Parkland burn formula?
Remaining 50%
407
What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads: II, III, aVF?
Inferior
408
What is the classification of diphenhydramine? (2)
- Antihistamine | - Anticholinergic
409
What is the first dosage of Amiodarone IV/IO used in ACLS?
300mg bolus
410
What are pacemaker cells?
The specialized cells of the heart's electrical conduction system, capable of spontaneously generating and conducting electrical impulses
411
What is a pleural friction rub?
The sound of squeaking or grating sound of the pleural linings rubbing together
412
What is the classification of tranexamic acid?
Anti-fibrinolytic
413
What are the two mechanism of actions of adenosine?
- Slows AV nodal conduction | - Inhibits re-entrant pathways
414
What is the mechanism of action of dexamethasone? (3)
- A synthetic steroid chemically related to the natural hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex - Potent anti-inflammatory properties - reduces cerebral edema (mechanism and extent is unclear)
415
What is Cullen's sign?
The discoloration around the umbilicus (occasionally the flanks), suggestive of intra-abdominal hemorrhage
416
Where do chemical buffers appear? (3)
- Blood - Intracellular fluid - Extracellular fluid
417
What is a thrill?
Vibration or humming felt when palpating the pulse
418
What is the order of focused history and secondary assessment for major trauma patients?
- Primary assessment - Rapid trauma assessment - Packaging - Rapid transport and ongoing assessment
419
What are the six indications for the usage of magnesium sulfate?
- Seizures due to eclampsia - Seizure prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia - Torsades de Pointes - Hypomagnesemia - Refractory VF - Status asthmaticus/severe bronchospam
420
What is the mechanism of action of ketamine? (2)
- NMDA receptor antagonist | - Produces a dissociative state by direct action on the cortex and limbic system
421
What is eupnea?
It is a normal breathing rate and pattern
422
What is nocturia?
Excessive urination at night
423
What ion affects pH in the body?
Hydrogen
424
What is the mechanism of action of angiotensin II receptor blocker medications?
Reduces blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II stimulation and inhibiting Aldosterone release
425
What is the cylinder factor of a D tank?
0.16
426
What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?
It reduces the velocity of electrical impulses by blocking the Na channels of the heart cell thus reducing automaticity and excitability of the conduction system
427
What does APGAR stand for?
- Appearance - Pulse rate - Grimace - Activity - Respiratory effort
428
What is the SL dosage of nitroglycerin?
0.4 mg q 5 min
429
What is Civil Law?
The division of the legal system that deals with noncriminal issues and conflicts between two or more parties
430
What is multigravida?
Woman who has been pregnant more than once
431
What is rhonchi?
Continuous sounds with a lower pitch and a snoring quality
432
What is a pustule?
Elevated area, diameter less than 1cm and contains purulent fluid
433
What is respiration?
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs and at the cellular level
434
What are the three stages or labour?
- Stage One: Dilation - Stage Two: Expulsion - Stage Three: Placental
435
What is apneustic respirations?
It is a prolonged inspiratory phase with shortened expiratory phase
436
What is the quality of respiration?
The depth and pattern of breathing
437
What are the four contraindications for the usage of ketorolac?
- Hypersensitivity to ASA or NSAID - Asthmatics due to bronchospastic activity - Renal impairment - Pt's at risk for bleeding
438
What are the twelve cranial nerves?
- Olfactory - Optic - Oculomotor - Trochlear - Trigeminal - Abducens - Facial - Acoustic - Glossopharyngeal - Vagus - Accessory - Hypoglossal
439
What is the adult IV dosage of morphine?
2 - 5 mg q 5 - 10 minutes PRN, max 20 mg
440
What is a SAMPLE history?
- Symptoms - Allergies - Medications - Past medical history - Last oral intake - Events leading up to the incident
441
What is the function of the facial nerve?
Sensory & motor
442
What is the classification of vecuronium?
Neuromuscular-blocking agent (non-depolarizing)
443
What is permeability?
The ability of a membrane channel to allow passage of electrolytes once its open
444
What is the adult dosage of amiodarone for VF/pulseless VT?
300mg diluted in 20ml NS, repeated with 300mg
445
What is the function of the accessory nerve?
Motor
446
What is grand multiparity?
Woman who has delivered more than seven children
447
What is the dosage of lorazepam for acute anxiety?
0.5 - 1 mg IV/SL prn
448
What is a comminuted fracture?
It is a fracture in which a bone is broken into several piece's
449
What is the classification of morphine?
Narcotic analgesic
450
What occurs when multiple births are presenting?
Multiple babies are cooking in the oven
451
What is referred pain?
Pain that is felt at a location away from its source
452
What is the indication for the usage of vecuronium?
To achieve paralysis to facilitate endotracheal intubation
453
What is blood pressure?
The force exerted by the circulating blood volume on the walls of the arteries
454
What is left ventricular heart failure?
It occurs when the left ventricle fails as an effective forward pump, which causes back pressure of blood into pulmonary circulation, often resulting in pulmonary edema
455
What is the index of suspicion?
Your anticipation of possible injuries based upon your analysis of the event
456
What is SIMV ventilator mode?
- Synchronous Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation | - Set rate but pt can breath spontaneously at own Vt
457
What is the mechanism of action of fentanyl? (2)
- Binds to opiod receptor sites, altering perception of and emotional response to pain - Rarely causes a histamine release
458
What is arteriosclerosis?
A chronic disease of the arterial system characterized by abnormal thickening and hardening of the vessel walls
459
What is diastole?
The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the atria and ventricles relax between contractions and blood enters these chambers; when the term is used without reference to a specific chamber of the heart, the term implies ventricular diastole
460
What are the two pediatric dosages of adenosine?
- 0.1mg/kg rapid IV push (max 6mg) | - 0.2mg/kg rapid IV push (max 12mg)
461
What is the pediatric IV dosage of morphine?
0.1 mg/kg IV q 5 - 10 minutes, max 2.5 mg per dose
462
What is the indication for the usage of succinylcholine?
Rapid sequence induction
463
What is blood pressure?
The force of blood against the arterial walls as the heart contracts and relaxes
464
What are three causes of Biot's respirations?
- Spinal meningitis - Multiple CNS causes - Head injury
465
What is the three step dosage of acetylcyseine?
- 150mg/kg in 250ml NS over 15 min - 50mg/kg in 500ml NS over 4 hours - 100mg/kg in 1000ml NS over 16 hours
466
What are three examples of angiotensin II receptor blocker medications?
- Losartan (Cozaar) - Candesartan (Atacand) - Valsartan (Diovan)
467
What is the adult dosage of metoclopramide?
10 mg IV/IM/SQ q 4 - 6hr
468
What is diastolic blood pressure?
The force of blood against arteries when ventricles relax
469
What is the classification of tenecteplase?
Fibrinolytic
470
What is the age limit for the usage of etomidate?
Not to be used in patients less than 10 years of age
471
What is the function of the abducens nerve?
Motor
472
What is concordance?
ST segments and T waves that deflect in the same direction as the terminal (last) waveform of the QRS complex in a bundle branch block
473
What is palpation?
Using your sense of touch to gather information
474
What is the cylinder factor of an M tank?
1.56
475
What is an acid?
It is a substance that donates H+ to the base
476
What is the classification of dexamethasone?
Corticosteriod
477
What is the Parkland burn formula as used for pediatrics?
0.5ml x patient weight in Kg x BSA burned
478
What is the classification of ketorolac?
NSAID
479
What are the six P's in evaluating a limb injury?
- Pain - Pallor - Paralysis - Paresthesia - Pressure - Pulses
480
What is the indication for the usage of tenecteplase?
STEMI
481
What is the pediatric dosage for glucagon when facing hypoglycemia?
0.5 mg IM/IV/SQ (< 20kg)
482
What is placenta previa?
Occurs as the result of abnormal implantation on the lower half of the uterine wall, resulting in partial or complete coverage of the cervical opening Presents with painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester
483
What is the adult dosage of amiodarone for VT/WCT (stable)?
150mg in 50ml NS over 10 min
484
What are the two indications for the usage of Atrovent?
- Bronchial asthma | - Bronchospasm associated with COPD
485
What is one cause of apneuistic respirations?
- Lesion on the brain stem
486
What are the three lab values needed to analysis an ABG?
- pH - PaCO2 - HCO3-
487
What is the classification of thiamine?
Vitamin B1
488
How is empathy used as a feedback technique?
Lets your body language show that you understand so that the patient feels accepted and more open to talking
489
What is the pediatric IM dosage of morphine?
0.1 mg/kg, max 5 mg per dose
490
What is the function of the trochlear nerve?
Motor
491
What is repolarization?
The movement of ions across a cell membrane in which the inside of the cell is restored to its negative charge
492
What is the primary assessment?
Pre-hospital process designated to identify and correct life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation problems
493
What happens in the third stage of labour?
Begins immediately after the birth of the infant and ends with the delivery of the placenta
494
What is the adult MDI dosage of Atrovent?
2 - 4 puffs q 20 minutes x3
495
What is a uterine inversion?
It occurs when the uterus turns inside out after the delivery and extends through the cervix
496
What is AC ventilator mode?
- Assist/control - Synchronized, senses spontaneous breaths but with mandatory minimum set rate, all breaths are a full assisted ventilators breath
497
What is the dosage of dexamethasone?
- 8-12mg IVP is common | - 4 - 24mg IVP is usual IV/IM
498
What is licensure?
The process by which a regulatory agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the public's protection
499
What does AVPU stand for?
Alert Verbal stimuli Painful stimuli Unresponsive
500
What is a muscle spasm?
It is an intermittent or continuous contraction of a muscle
501
What is a lesion?
Any disruption in normal tissue
502
What is a normal respiratory rate?
12-20
503
What are the two indications for the usage of thiamine?
- Coma of unknown origin, especially if alcohol may be involved - Delirium tremens
504
What is a normal male systolic blood pressure?
120-150
505
What is the pediatric dosage of D50?
0.5-1g/kg slow IVP, dilute 1:1 with sterile water (NS can be used if no sterile water is available) forming D25W
506
What are three causes of apnea?
- Decreased patient effort - Head injury - Stroke
507
What is the mechanism of action of thiamine?
Combines with ATP to form thiamine pyrophosphate, a coenzyme required for carbohydrate and fat metabolism
508
What are seven ways to build trust and rapport?
- Use the patient's name - Address the patient properly - Modulate your voice - Use a professional but compassionate tone - Explain what you are doing and why - Keep a kind, calm expression - Use an appropriate style of communication
509
What is Constitutional law?
It is law based on the Canadian Constitution
510
What is a keloid?
An elevated scar with irregular shape and is larger than the original wound
511
How much blood may be lost from a pelvic fracture?
2000 ml
512
What is pH?
It reflects the overall H+ concentration in the body fluids
513
What is Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
It is gradual increases and decreases in respirations with periods of apnea
514
What are the three contraindications for the usage of adenosine?
- Poison/drug induced tachycardia - Polymorphic wide complex tachycardia - Hypersensitivity
515
What is the mechanism of action of furosemide? (2)
- Loop diuretic, inhibits reabsorption of sodium (and other electrolytes) and water - Initially causes vasodilation, increasing venous capacitance (decreases SVR) then diuresis
516
What is involuntary consent?
Consent to treatment granted by the authority of a court order
517
What is capillary hemangioma?
Irregular red spot
518
What are five examples of alpha adrenergic blocker anti-hypertensive medication?
- Mini-pres (Prazosin) - Cardura (Doxazosin) - Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline) - Phentolamine (Regitine) - Ergotamine (Ergomar)
519
What is the pediatric nebulized dosage of salbutamol?
2.5 mg
520
What is the classification of dobutamine?
Sympathomimetic
521
What are the three types of pain?
- Somatic - Visceral - Referred
522
What is the dosage of thiamine?
100 mg IV/IM
523
What is beneficence?
The principle of doing good for the patient
524
What is tachypnea?
Rapid breathing
525
What are the Purkinje fibers?
They are fibers found in both ventricles that conduct an electrical impulse through the heart
526
What is target ETCO2 after a ROSC in ACLS?
35-40 mmHg
527
What is the classification of naloxone?
Narcotic analgesic
528
What are the seven steps of the primary assessment?
1. Form a generalized impression 2. Stabilize cervical spine as needed 3. Assess baseline level of response 4. Assess airway 5. Assess breathing 6. Assess circulation 7. Assign priority
529
What are the two indications for the usage of metoclopramide?
- Nausea and/or vomiting | - Migraine headache
530
What is the pediatric dosage of succinylcholine?
1.5 mg/kg IV, max dose 150 mg
531
What is the atropine dosage for symptomatic bradycardia?
0.5mg q 5 mins, max of 3mg
532
What is the pediatric dosage of rocuronium?
0.6 - 1.2 mg/kg IV, repeat q 30 min at 0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg PRN effect may prolong in peds
533
What is the duty to act?
A formal contractual or informal legal obligation to provide care
534
What is the mechanism of action of atropine?
Atropine sulfate is a potent parasympatholytic. It inhibits actions of acetylcholine at postganglionic parasympathetic receptor sites. Blocked vagal effects result in increased heart rate and enhanced AV conduction with limited or no inotropic effects
535
What is the epicardium?
Also known as the visceral pericardium; the external layer of the heart wall that covers the heart muscle
536
What is the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid? (2)
- Competitively inhibits activation of plasminogen (via binding to the kringle domain), thereby reducing conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (fibrinolysin), an enzyme that degrades fibrin clots, fibrinogen, and other plasma proteins, including the procoagulant factors V and VIII - TXA also directly inhibits plasmin activity, but higher doses are required than needed to reduce plasmin formation
537
What is extrinsic PEEP?
Purposely applied during ventilations via BVM or mechanical ventilator
538
What is Criminal Law?
The division of the legal system that deals with wrongs committed against society or its members
539
What is pulse rhythm?
The patter and equality of intervals between beats
540
What are the three regulating systems that maintain the bodies pH?
- Chemical buffers - Respiratory system - Renal system
541
According to ACLS, what defines symptomatic bradycardia?
- Hypotension - Altered mental status - Signs of shock - Ischemic chest discomfort - Acute heart failure
542
What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron? (4)
- Affects both peripheral and central nerves - Reduces the activity of the vagus nerve, which deactivates the vomiting center in the medulla oblongata - Blocks serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone - Has no effect on dopamine receptors and therefore dose not cause extrapyramidal symptoms
543
What is a normal body temperature?
37 celcius
544
What is the induction dose for ketamine?
0.5 - 2 mg/kg IV
545
What is the indication of acetylcyseine?
To prevent or lessen hepatic injury that may occur after ingestion of a hepatotoxin dose of acetaminophen
546
What is the adult IM dosage of meperidine?
50 - 100 mg
547
What is sterilizing?
The use of chemical or physical method, such as pressurized steam, to kill all microorganisms on an object
548
What is the indication for the usage of diphendydramine?
Allergic and anaphylactic reactions involving respiratory difficulties, edema or severe itching
549
What is the mechanism of action of sodium bicarbonate?
Reacts with H+ ions to form water and CO2
550
What is the endocardium?
The innermost layer of the heart that lines the inside of the myocardium and covers the heart valves
551
What is CPAP ventilator mode?
- Continuous Positive Airway Pressure | - Used to maintain lung volume and improve oxygenation, by delivering a predetermined level of pressure
552
What is cardiac action potential?
A five-phase cycle that reflects the difference in the concentration of charged particles across the cell membrane at any given time
553
What are two causes of Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
- Increasing ICP | - Brain stem injury
554
What is the classification of ondansetron?
Anti-emetic
555
What is a scope of practice?
It is a range of duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform
556
What is Legislative Law?
Law created by such law-making bodies as federal/provincial/territorial assemblies
557
What is the pediatric MDI dosage of salbutamol?
2 - 3 puffs
558
What is the function of the chemical buffers? (3)
They are substances that combine with excess acids or bases, They act immediately to maintain pH The most efficient pH-balancing forces
559
What are four reasons for failing to communicate?
Prejudice Lack of privacy External distractions Internal distractions
560
What is the adult dosage for glucagon when facing hypoglycemia?
1 mg IM/IV/SQ
561
What does it mean to encode?
To create a message
562
What are three examples of peripheral adrenergic inhibitor medications?
- Guanadrel sulfate (Hylorel) - Guanethidine monosulfate (Ismel) - Reserpine (Serpasil)
563
What is an accessory pathway?
An extra bundle of working myocardial tissue that forms a connection between the atria and ventricles outside the normal conduction system
564
What is antepartum?
Time interval prior to deliver of the fetus
565
What is the pediatric IM dosage of meperidine?
1 mg/kg (max 100mg)
566
What is the mechanism of action of rocuronium?
Prevents acetylcholine from binding to receptors at the muscle and end plate, blocking depolarization
567
What does a low PaCO2 represent?
Hyperventilation
568
What is the classification of propofol?
Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent
569
What is a spiral fracture?
It is a curving break in a bone as may be caused by rotational forces
570
What is crust?
Reddish, brown, black, tan, or yellowish dried blood, serum or pus
571
What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads: V5, V6?
Lateral (Low)
572
What does the T wave represent?
Ventricular repolarization
573
What is the classification of atropine?
- Parasympatholytic | - Anticholinergic
574
What are nine common peripheral pulse sites?
- Temporal - Carotid - Brachial - Radial - Ulnar - Femoral - Popliteal - Dorsalis pedis - Posterior tibial
575
What is a scale?
An elevated area of excessive exfoliation, varying in thickness, shape, and dryness and ranges in color from white to silver or tan
576
What is an example of a renin blocker medicaiton?
- Aliskiren (Tekturna)
577
What are the three components of Beck's triad?
- Hypotension - Distended neck veins - Distant, muffled heart sounds
578
What are the five components of scene assessment?
- BSI - Scene safety - Location of all patients - MOI - Nature of illness
579
What are protocols?
The policies and procedures for all components of an EMS system
580
What is the mechanism of action of alpha adrenergic blocker anti-hypertensives?
Inhibits action of alpha receptors in vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation
581
What is the mechanism of action of peripheral adrenergic inhibitor medications?
Reduces vascular wall tone through reduction of sympathic nervous system stimulation of blood vessels
582
What is hypocalcemia?
Lower than normal calcium level in blood
583
What is the adult MDI dosage of salbutamol?
4 - 6 puffs
584
What are the three indications for the usage of metoprolol?
- SVT - AMI - Unstable angina
585
What is visceral pain?
It is a type of pain that results from the activation of nociceptors of the thoracic, pelvic or abdominal viscera (organs). These organs are highly sensitive to distension, ischemia and inflammation
586
What are the two indications for the usage of ketamine?
- Induction and maintenance of general anesthesia | - Analgesia and sedation
587
What is implied consent?
Consent for treatment that is presumed for the patient who is mentally, physically, or emotionally unable to grant consent
588
How quick does the renal system work when acting as a buffer system?
Hours to days
589
What are the two contraindications for the usage of norepinepherine?
- Dehydration, patient should be fluid resuscitated prior to initiation of norepinepherine - Systolic BP > 90mmHg
590
What is the classification of magnesium sulfate? (4)
- Electrolyte - Anticonvulsant (toxemia) - Anti-arrhythmic (TDP, TCA OD) - Uterine relaxant
591
What is a nodule?
Elevated firm spot with a diameter between 1-2cm
592
What is the dosage of clopidogrel for those patients under the age of 75?
300mg PO
593
What is polyuria?
Excessive urination
594
What is the function of the trigeminal nerve?
Sensory & motor
595
What is the adult dose for seizures using midazolam?
5 mg IN
596
What is fibrinolysis?
The dissolving of a blood clot; occurs naturally by plasmin or by a class of medications called fibrinolytics
597
What is the function of the oculomotor nerve?
Motor
598
What is stridor?
Predominant inspiratory wheeze associated with laryngeal obstruction
599
What is the universalizability test?
Asks whether you would want this action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances
600
What is plaque?
Superficial papule with a diameter greater than 1cm and a rough texture
601
What are the four contraindications of amiodarone?
- Hypersensitivity - Bradycardia - 2nd and 3rd degree heart block - Sinus node dysfunction
602
What is abandonment?
Termination of the paramedic-patient relationship without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue
603
What is egophony?
Abnormal change in tone of patient's transmitted voice sounds
604
What are the CAGE questions?
- Cut down - Annoyed - Guilty - Eye-opener
605
What is the mechanism of action of magnesium sulfate? (3)
- Reduces striated muscle contractions, causing vasodilation - Blocks peripheral neuromuscular transmission by reducing Ach released at the end-plate by motor nerve impulse - Minimizes recurrences of seizures in the toxic state
606
What are ethics?
The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession
607
How does the respiratory system act as the second line of defence against acid-base imbalances? (4)
- The lungs regulate carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood, which combines with H20 to form H2CO3 - Chemoreceptors in the brain sense pH changes and vary the rate and depth of respirations to regulate CO2 levels - Faster, deeper breathing eliminates CO2 from the lungs and less H2CO3 is formed, rising pH - Slower, shallow breathing reduces CO2 excretion, causing pH to fall
608
What are the two indications for the usage of ondansetron?
- Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting | - Nausea and vomiting
609
What is the diastolic pressure?
Blood moves peripherally, thus pressure falls until the next systole
610
What is the Parkland burn formula as used for adults?
4ml x pt weight in kg x BSA burned
611
What is the mechanism of action of diazepam? (4)
- Improves the action of gamma amino butyric acid, which depresses the CNS at the limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic levels, producing anti-anxiety effects - Anticonvulsant: slows the spread of irritable foci in the cortex, thalamus and limbic areas of the brain - Skeletal muscle relaxant: inhibits polysynaptic afferent pathways - Induces amneisa
612
What is the mechanism of action of ASA?
It inactivates the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme which decreases the production of prostaglandins in the tissue, blocking the pain receptors sensitivity and decreases inflammation. Due to the inactivation of COX, thromboxane A2 production is also inhibited, which is responsible for platelet aggregation
613
What is the adult dosage of fentanyl?
0.5 - 2 mcg/kg IVP over 2 minutes, max single dose 200mcg (usually states at 25-100 mcg q 5 min)
614
What are the two indications for the usage of acetaminophen?
- Treatment of mild pain | - Reduction of fever
615
What is the pediatric dosage for dopamine?
5-20 mcg/kg/min IV
616
What is discordance?
ST segments and T waves that deflect in the opposite direction as the terminal (last) waveform of the QRS complex in a bundle branch block
617
What does it mean to decode?
To interpret a message
618
What is the dose of ondansetron?
4 - 8 mg IV/IM
619
What is the adult dosage of hydromorphone?
1.0 - 2.0 mg SQ
620
What are Actual Damages?
Refers to compensatable physical, psychological, or financial harm
621
What is artifact on the EKG?
Distortion of the tracing by electrical activity that is noncardiac in origin
622
What is prenatal?
Time interval prior to birth
623
What is bradypnea?
It is a decreased respiratory rate
624
What is the classification of metoclopramide?
Antiemetic
625
What does a high PaCO2 level indicate?
Hypoventilation
626
What are Good Samaritan Law's?
Laws that provide immunity to certain people who assist at the scene of a medical emergency
627
What is a precipitous delivery?
Is a delivery that occurs after less than three hours of labour
628
What is the Babinski response?
The big toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out when the sole is stimulated
629
What is dicrotic notch?
Closure of the aortic valve following ventricular systole. Occurs as the pressure in the LV falls below that of the aorta Indicates the onset of diastole
630
What is the contraindication of dexamethasone?
Hypersensitivity
631
What is HCO3-?
Bicarbonate
632
What is the classification of rocuronium?
Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
633
What is preload?
The force exerted by the blood on the walls of the ventricles at the end of diastole
634
What is the pediatric dosage of lorazepam for pediatric patients?
0.05 mg/kg max 2 mg
635
What is a macule?
A flat spot, color varies from white to brown or red to purple with a diameter less than 1cm
636
What does it mean to be libel?
The act of injuring a person's character, name or reputation by false statements made in writing or through mass media with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements
637
What is the pediatric dosage of acetaminophen?
10-15mg/kg q 4-6 hr PRN PO
638
What is HEENT?
- Head - Eyes - Ears - Nose - Throat
639
What is the mechanism of action of etomidate? (3)
- creates an ultra short acting sedative/hypnotic effect - a non-barbiturate hypnotic that acts at the level of the reticular-activating system to produce anesthesia. Appears to depress CNS function via GABA - Like the barbiturates and propofol, etomidate does not induce analgesia. Etomidate induces unconsciousness within one circulation time. Recovery is rapid as a result of extensive redistribution and rapid metabolism
640
What is the mechanism of action of midazolam? (4)
- Binds to specific sites on gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) type A receptors within the brain, potentiating the effects of GABA - Is 3 - 4 times more potent then diazepam - Amnestic properties - Muscle relaxant
641
What is a scar?
Fibrous, varying depth and the color varies from white to red
642
What is hypercalcemia?
Higher than normal calcium level in blood
643
What is the mechanism of action of vasodilator anti-hypertensive medications?
It relaxes the smooth muscles in the blood vessel walls to cause peripheral dilation
644
According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for narrow regular tachycardia?
50-100J
645
What happens in the first stage of labour?
The onset of true labour contractions and ends with complete dilation and effacement of the cervix
646
What is ethnocentrism?
Viewing of your own life as the most desirable, acceptable, or best, and acting in a superior manner to another culture's way of life
647
What is the absolute refractory period?
Corresponds with the onset of the QRS complex to the approximate peak of the T wave; cardiac cells cannot be stimulated to conduct an electrical impulse no matter how strong the internal electrical stimulus
648
What are three contraindications to the usage of fentanyl?
- Hypersensitivity - Systolic BP < 90mmHg - MOA inhibitor therapy in the last 14 days
649
What is the mechanism of action of propofol?
Inhibits GABA activity in the brain
650
What is the mechanism of action of lorazepam? (3)
- Most potent of the benzodiazepines, enhances the neurotransmitter GABA at the limbic and sub-cortical levels - Has a shorter half-life than diazepam - Induces amnesia
651
What are four things pH regulation influences?
- Speed of cellular reaction - Cell function - Cell permeability - Integrity of the cell structure
652
What is medical direction?
Medical policies, procedures, and practices that are available to providers either online or offline
653
What are five factors that affect MAP?
- Increase in PEEP - Increase in PIP - Increase in inspiratory time (Ti) - Decrease in expiratory time (Te) = increased RR - Increase in expiratory flow rate
654
What is the mechanism of action of Atrovent? (3)
- Causes bronchodilation by competitive inhibition of cholinergic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle - Blocks the action of acetylcholine, which inhibits parasympathetic stimulation, thus decreasing bronchial secretions - Dries respiratory tract secretions
655
What is the pediatric dosage for glucagon when facing a beta blocker overdose?
0.5 mg IM/IV/SQ (< 20 kg) Max dose 1 mg
656
What is the adult dosage of diazepam?
2.0-10 mg IV q 5- 15 min max 20 mg
657
What is the adult dosage of ketorolac?
30 - 60 mg IV/IM q 4 - 6 hrs max 120 mg/day
658
What are four characteristics of the P wave?
- Smooth and rounded - No more than 2.5mm in height - No more than 0.11 second in duration - Positive in leads I, II, aVF, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6
659
What is the mechanism of action of central adrenergic inhibitor anti-hypertensives?
Inhibits vasoconstriction by stimulating cardiovascular center in the brain, decreasing the outflow of sympathic nervous system
660
What is Misfeasance?
A breach of duty by performance of a legal act in a manner that is harmful or injurious
661
What is primipara?
Woman who has given birth to her first child
662
What are the immediate three steps to identify and treat the underlying cause of tachycardia?
- Maintain patent airway; assist breathing if necessary - Oxygen (if hypoxemic) - Cardiac monitor to ID rhythm, monitor blood pressure and oximetry
663
What is uterine rupture?
It is the actual tearing, or rupture, of the uterus
664
What is the adult dosage of magnesium sulfate for patients with TDP/Hypomagnesemia/Refractory VF?
1 - 2 g in 10 ml NS/D5W IV/IO, rate 1 g/min
665
What are the five contraindications to the usage of metoprolol?
- Severe heart failure/CHF - History of bronchospastic airway disease - Concurrent use of beta blockers or calcium channel blockers - 2nd and 3rd degree heart block - Bradycardia with HR < 60
666
What is crepitus?
Crunching sounds of unlubricated parts in joints rubbing against each other
667
What is the dose of lidocaine for a patient with VT with a pulse? (2)
- Bolus: 1.0 mg/kg with subsequent doses of 0.5 mg/kg q 10 min (max 3.0 mg/kg) - Infusion: 1 - 4 mg/min
668
According to ACLS, if the QRS is equal to or less than 0.12 seconds, what are the next five steps?
- IV access and 12 lead if available - Vagal maneuvers - Adenosine (if regular) - Beta or calcium channel blocker - Consider expert consultation
669
What is the adult dosage of epinepherine for bradycardia?
Infusion 2.0-10.0 mcg/kg/min
670
What is the pediatric dosage of amiodarone for PSVT/WCT?
5mg/kg (max 150mg) in 50ml NS 100ml/hr over 20-60 min. Repeat max 15mg/kg/24hr
671
What are the three contraindications for the usage of atropine?
- Symptomatic tachydysrhymia - Hypothermic bradycardia - 2nd degree type 2 and 3rd degree heart block
672
What is the epinepherine infusion dosage for ROSC in ACLS?
0.1-0.5 mcg/kg/min
673
What is the dosage of enoxaparin for a patient less than 75 years of age?
- 1 mg/kg (max 100mg) SQ (lateral abdomen) | - 30 mg IV
674
What is I:E?
- Ratio of inspiratory to expiratory time | - Measured in seconds
675
What does decerebrate mean?
Arms and legs extended
676
What are six characteristics of the skin to assess?
- Color - Moisture - Temperature - Texture - Mobility and turgor - Lesions
677
What are the indications for the usage of fentanyl? (3)
- Moderate to severe pain - Adjunct to RSS/RSI - Ischemic chest pain
678
What is informed consent?
It is consent for treatment that is given based on full disclosure of information
679
What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?
Motor
680
What is the adult dosage of acetaminophen?
500-1000mg q 4-6 hr PRN PO
681
What is a cyst?
Elevated, palpable area containing liquid or viscous matter
682
What is venous return?
The amount of blood flowing into the right atrium each minute from the systemic circulation
683
How quick does the chemical buffer system work?
Seconds to minutes
684
What is the first dosage of adenosine?
6mg rapid IV push
685
What is the pain and sedation dose for ketamine?
0.1 - 0.5 mg/kg IV, titrate to effect
686
What is resistance?
Frictional forces due to anatomical structures, conducting airways and tissues of the lungs
687
What is a hairline fracture?
It is a small crack in a bone that does not disrupt the total structure
688
What is the adult dosage for symptomatic bradycardia of atropine?
0.5-1.0mg IV push, q 3-5 mins, max 3mg
689
What are the order of priorities for scene safety?
1. You 2. Your crew 3. Other responding personnel 4. Your patient 5. Bystanders
690
What is primigravida?
First pregnancy
691
What are the two indications for the usage of oxytocin?
- Post-partum hemorrhage | - Normal postpartum, after delivery of placenta
692
What is a muscle strain?
It is an injury resulting from overstretching of muscle fibres
693
What is the classification of D50?
Carbohydrate
694
What are the seven indications for the usage of diazepam?
- Seizures/Status epilepticus - Seizures in pre-eclampsia uncontrolled by magnesium - Premedication before cardioversion/pacing - Skeletal muscle relaxant - Acute anxiety states - Acute alcohol withdrawal including delirium tremens - Cocaine overdose
695
What is offline medical direction?
Refers to medical policies, procedures, and practices that medical direction has set up in advance of a call
696
What is the adult IM/SC dose of naloxone?
2.0 mg
697
What is the normal ratio of HCO3 to H2CO3?
20:1
698
What is angina pectoris?
Chest discomfort of sudden onset that occurs when the increased oxygen demand of the heart temporarily exceeds the blood supply
699
What is the dosage of metoprolol?
5 mg IV q 5 - 10 minutes, up to 3 doses. Titrate to HR 60 - 80. If HR > 100 consider a fluid bolus to ensure hypovolemia is not the cause
700
What is autonomy?
A competent adult patient's right to determine what happens to his own body
701
What is an ulcer?
Red or purplish depression ranging into the dermis, caused by tissue loss
702
What is the dosage for the use of haloperidol?
2 - 5 mg IV/IM PRN
703
What is the contraindication for the usage of diazepam?
Hypersensitivity
704
What is dyspnea?
The sensation of having difficulty with breathing
705
What is the classification of calcium chloride?
Electrolyte
706
What is the normal range of blood pH?
7.35 - 7.45
707
What is dysmenorrhea?
Menstrual difficulties
708
What is the adult dosage of dimenhydrinate? (2)
25-100 mg IM q 4hr PRN | 12.5 - 50 mg IV q 4hr PRN
709
What is the pediatric dosage of pancuronium?
0.1 mg/kg
710
What are the two indications for usage of dopamine?
- Cardiogenic shock with BP < 70mmHg | - Shock states with hypotension (without hypovolemia)
711
What is a wheal?
Pink, irregular spot varying in size and shape
712
What is the mechanism of action of dimenhydrinate?
Blocks histamine and ACH receptors in the vomiting center as well as the pathway between the inner ear and the vomiting center that can cause nausea and vomiting - Similar chemical composition to that of diphenhydramine
713
What is the classification of hydromorphone?
Narcotic analgesic
714
What are two contraindications for the usage of morphine?
- Hypersensitivity | - Hypotension (BP < 100)
715
What are the three indications for the usage of enoxaparin?
- STEMI - PE - DVT
716
What is certification?
The process by which an agency or association grants recognition and the ability to practice to an individual who has met its qualifications
717
What is the dosage of norepinepherine?
0.5 - 30.0 mcg/min, titrate to effect
718
What are the 8 D's of stroke care?
- Detection - Dispatch - Delivery - Door - Data - Decision - Drug - Disposition
719
What is ejection fraction?
The percentage of blood pumped out of a ventricle with each contraction
720
What happens in the second stage of labour?
Begins with the complete dilation of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the fetus
721
What is Kussmaul's respirations?
It is periods of tachypnea and hyperpnea
722
What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads: V1, V2?
Septal
723
What are the three contraindications for the usage of furosemide?
- Sulfonamide allergy - Electrolyte imbalance - Hypotension/hypovolemia (SBP <100 mmHg)
724
What is subluxation?
It is the partial displacement of a bone end from its position in a joint capsule
725
What is a transverse fracture?
It is a break that runs across a bone perpendicular to the bone's orientation
726
What are the four indications for the usage of dexamethasone?
- Anaphylaxis - Acute exacerbation of COPD/asthma - Cerebral edema - Various inflammatory properties
727
What is the pediatric dosage of calcium chloride?
5mg/kg over 3 minutes
728
What are three quick ways to test ethics?
Impartiality test, Universalizability test, Interpersonal Justifiability test
729
What is the function of the vagus nerve?
Sensory & motor
730
What is the dosage of oxytocin?
20 - 30 units IV infusion in 100 m NS @ 250 ml/hr (titrated to uterine response and severity of bleeding)
731
What is the interpersonal justifiability test?
Asks whether you can defend or justify your actions to others
732
What is the mechanism of action of acetaminophen? (2)
- Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis which produces an analgesic effect - Acts on the hypothalamic heat regulating center
733
What are the immediate five steps to identify and treat the underlying cause of bradycardia?
- Maintain patent airway; assist breathing as necessary - Oxygen (if hypoxemic) - Cardiac monitor to identify rhythm; monitor blood pressure and oximetery - IV access - 12 lead if available; don't delay therapy
734
What is the dosage of TXA?
1 g mixed with 100 ml NS over 10 minutes IV/IO | 1 g mixed with 500 ml at 60 ml/hr with buretrol or pump (8 hours)
735
What is the mechanism of action of D50 (2)?
- Increases blood sugar levels | - Hypertonic solution producing a transient movement of water from interstitial space into the venous system
736
What is postpartum?
Time interval after deliver of the fetus
737
What is the cylinder factor of a G tank?
2.41
738
What is an infectious disease?
Any disease caused by the growth of pathogenic microorganisms, which may be spread from person to person
739
What is the dosage of ASA?
160-325mg PO (chewed)
740
What is the adult dose for combative/violent patients using midazolam?
2.5 mg IV or 5 mg IM, max 10 mg
741
What is consent?
It is the patient's granting of permission for treatment
742
What is the IV infusion dosage of nitroglycerin?
5.0 mcg/min, increasing to 10.0 mcg/min until desired effect reached
743
What is the adult dose for sedation using midazolam?
0.05 mg/kg IV, max 5 mg
744
What is the indication of D50?
Hypoglycemia
745
What is the adult dosage of sodium bicarbonate?
1 mEq/kg slow IVP, repeat 0.5 mEq/kg q 10 min PRN
746
What is the myocardium?
The middle and thickest layer of the heart; contains the cardiac muscle fibers that cause contraction of the heart as well as the conduction system and blood supply
747
What is meconium staining?
Occurs when the fetus passes feces into the amniotic fluid
748
What are the four indications for the usage of lorazepam?
- Seizures - Status epilepticus - Premedication before cardioversion - Acute anxiety states
749
What is the adult dosage of epinepherine for VF/VT/PEA/asystole?
1.0 mg IV q 3-5 min 1:10000
750
What is inspection?
The process of informed observation
751
What does SOAP stand for?
- Subjective - Objective - Assessment - Plan
752
What is the mechanism of action of acetylcysteine?
It protects liver cells by maintaining or restoring glutathione levels or by acting as an alternate substrate conjugation and detoxification of acetaminophens reactive metabolite
753
What does the partial pressure of arterial CO2 (PaCO2) represent?
The level of CO2 in the blood
754
What is a base?
It is a substance that can accept or bind to H+
755
What is the indication for the usage of salbutamol?
Bronchoconstriction
756
What is the doseage of Epinepherine IV/IO used in ACLS?
1mg q 3-5mins
757
What are the two indications of usage for clopidogrel?
- Acute coronary syndrome (Non-STEMI/UA) | - STEMI
758
What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?
Sensory & motor
759
What is the adult nebulized dosage of salbutamol?
5.0 mg
760
What is empathy?
It is to identify with and understand the circumstances, feelings, and motives of others
761
What is Cushing's triad?
- Irregular respirations (impaired brain stem) - Bradycardia - Systolic hypertension (widening pulse pressure)
762
What is a breech presentation?
It is the term to describe the presentation in which the buttocks and/or feet present first
763
What is the classification of midazolam?
Benzodiazepine
764
What is the dosage of furosemide?
0.5 - 1 mg/kg slow IVP (Dose typically 20 - 80 mg) q 30 minutes prn, max dose 2 mg/kg
765
What is the function of the optic nerve?
Sensory
766
What is expressed consent?
It is verbal, nonverbal, or written communication by a patient that she wants to receive medical care
767
What is Negligence?
Deviation from accepted standards of care recognized by law for the protection of others against the unreasonable risk of harm
768
What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads: V3, V4?
Anterior
769
What is common law?
It is law derived from society's acceptance over time of customs and norms
770
How much fluid is given in the first 8 hours of a burn when using the Parkland burn formula?
50% of the determined amount via the Parkland burn formula