Cough Flashcards

1
Q

how long is acute cough?

A

less than 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the differentials for acute cough, not in distress?

A

ID: URTI, Pneumonia, COVID, Croup
Non-ID: Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the differentials for acute cough, in distress?

A

COVID
Bronchiolitis
Pneumonia
Asthma, BAIAE
Foreign body
Laryngotracheitis
Epiglottitis
Tracheitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is acute upper respiratory tract infection?

A

Common cold
“rhinitis”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the etiopathogenesis of common colds?

A
  • Children have an ave of 6-8 colds per year
  • Infection is primarily due to viral exposure
  • Patho: PND, hypersensitivity of afferent sensory nerves
    secondary to inflammatory mediator release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the etiology of common colds?

A

Rhinovirus (>50%), coronavirus, RSV, human
metapneumovirus, adenovirus, parainfluenza
- Mechanism of spread:
§ Direct hand contact
§ Inhalation of small particle aerosols
(influenza, coronavirus)
§ Deposition of large-particle aerosols form
sneezing that land on nasal or conjunctival
mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of common colds?

A

CM:
1. Infants: nasal discharge, fever
2. Sore throat, sneezing, nasal obstruction, rhinorrhea,
irritability, dec. appetite
3. Cough - usually begins after nasal sx and may persist
for another 1-2 w after resolution of other sx
4. Fever – influenza, RSV, metapneumo, adeno
5. Colds x 1 w
6. Sx onset usually 1-3 days after viral infection
7. Swollen erythematous nasal turbinates – acute rhinitis
8. Mildly erythematous pharynx – acute nasopharyngitis
9. Anterior cervical LNE or conjunctival injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Diagnosis of URTI/Common colds?

A
  • Usually clinical
  • r/o sinusitis, foreign body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management of common colds?

A
  1. supportive – inc OFI; topical nasal saline or saline nasal
    irrigation to reduce sx
  2. herbal meds – strong evidence for: Andrographis
    paniculata, ivy/primrose/thyme
  3. honey – superior to usual care, as good as
    dextromethorphan (1-2 tsp 3-4x/d)
  4. Dextromethorphan – of all antitussives, has shown to
    reduce acute cough. For dry cough
  5. non-Rx cough and colds meds should not be used for
    <6yo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give complications of common cold

A

complications:
1. otitis media
2. sinusitis
3. pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Case:
General Data: A 3 year old boy consulted at the Pediatric
Emergency Room due to difficulty of breathing
History of Present Illness
5 days PTA, nonproductive cough with post tussive vomiting and
colds.
2 days PTA, noted with low grade fever (T38.0c) with increasing
frequency of coughing episodes, difficulty of breathing and
wheezes relieved by salbutamol nebulization at home.
On day of admission, during the night, patient was awakened
from sleep due to difficulty of breathing with chest indrawing and
wheezing not relieved by salbutamol nebulization hence
consulted at the PER.
Other pertinent Data:
Past Medical History: (+) recurrent wheezing triggered by dust,
smoke relieved by salbutamol nebulizations. Patient has been
having daytime symptoms of cough (3x/week) and nocturnal
awakening (>2x/month)
(+) previous history of atopic dermatitis
Family Medical History: (+) Bronchial Asthma – Mother and
siblings; (+) Allergic Rhinitis – Father

Birth and Maternal History: Born preterm 33 weeks by PA to a
then 29 G3P2 (2002) mother via SVD at a local hospital. Admitted
at NICU for 1 month for prematurity and neonatal sepsis,
subjected to NCPAP and then sent home as a grower on room air.
Physical Examination:
Seen awake, hunched forward in respiratory distress
HR 150 RR 52 Temp 38.0c O2sats 85% on room air Weight 13.5 kg
(Z score: normal)
Pink conjunctive, anicteric sclera, dusky and dry lips, slightly
sunken eyeballs, no cervical lymphadenopathy (+) alar flaring
Equal chest expansion, (+) subcostal retractions, tight air entry, (+)
expiratory wheezes all over
Laboratory:
CBC: Hgb 125 Hct .39 WBC 18.0 Seg 31% Lymphos 69% PC 455
Chest Radiograph

A

Answer Key:
Primary working impression and basis:

Primary working impression and basis:
BRONCHIAL ASTHMA in acute exacerbation (10 pts)
􀀀 Recurrent/episodic airway hypereactivity
􀀀 Triggers
􀀀 Reversed by SABA inhalation
􀀀 Personal History of Atopy – Atopic Dermatitis
􀀀 Familial History of Atopy – Bronchial Asthma and
Allergic Rhinitis
􀀀 PE: tight air entry, (+) expiratory wheezes
PNEUMONIA (VIRAL)/BRONCHIOLITIS or PCAP C (10 pts)
􀀀 Hx: Fever, cough, colds
􀀀 Ask about Immunization History
􀀀 PE: tachypneic, with desaturations, alar flaring,
retractions, wheezes and crackles
􀀀 CBC: leukocytosis with lymphocytic predominance
􀀀 CXR: hyperaerated lungs with streaky/hilar infiltrates
are more suggestive of viral etiology
Differential Dx
FOREIGN BODY (10 pts)
􀀀 Age predilection: between 8 months – 4 years
􀀀 Acute onset – Was there choking or wheezing of
sudden onset
􀀀 PE: unilateral wheeze/ bilateral or stridor
􀀀 CXR: radiopaque foreign body/ unilateral atelectasis
GERD (10 pts)
􀀀 Is the wheezing associated with feeding?
􀀀 Are there choking or coughing during feeding/ milk
intolerance?
􀀀 Recurrent bouts of pneumonia?
􀀀 Poor response to asthma medications?
􀀀 PE: poor weight gain/ failure to thrive
CONGENITAL (10 pts)
1. Vascular rings
2. Tracheomalacia
􀀀 Age at onset of wheezing (symptoms often present at
birth)

􀀀 Does the wheezing get better or worse on changing
position?
􀀀 Noisy breathing during crying or URTI
􀀀 Poor response to asthma medications
BRONCHOPULMONARY DYSPLASIA (10 pts)
􀀀 History of prematurity
􀀀 Subjected to oxygen and pressure support at NICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you diagnose
asthma in children less
than 5yo (5 pts)

A

CLINICAL
􀀀 Hx of Recurrent cough/
wheezing
􀀀 With a known trigger
(exercise,
allergens,smoke)
􀀀 Personal Hx of Atopy:
Atopic dermatitis/
eczema, allergic rhinitis
􀀀 Family Hx of asthma in
1st degree relatives
􀀀 Clinical improvement
with therapeutic trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If it the patient were 8
years old, how do you
go about with the
diagnosis of asthma (5
pts)

A

HISTORY OF CHARACTERISTIC SX +
EVIDENCE OF VARIABLE AIRFLOW
LIMITATION
CLINICAL CRITERIA:
􀀀 >1 Sx (wheeze, shortness
of breath, cough, chest
tightness)
􀀀 Sx worse at night or
early morning
􀀀 Sx vary over time and
intensity
􀀀 Triggers: viral infections
(colds), exercise,
allergen, changes in
weather, laughter or
irritants
VARIABLE AIRFLOW LIMITATION
􀀀 Bronchodilator
reversibility test: inc in
FEV1 >12% predicted
(GINA); >15% (PCMCA)
􀀀 Excessive variability in
twice daily PEF over 2
weeks: diurnal PEF
variability >13% (GINA);
>20% (PCMCA)
􀀀 Inc in lung function after
4 weeks of anti
inflammatory
􀀀 Positive exercise
challenge test: fall in
FEV1 of >12% predicted
or PEF >15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How would you classify
the exacerbation? (1
pt) Basis? (2 pts)

A

SEVERE
􀀀 Breathless at rest,
hunched forward
􀀀 RR>30
􀀀 Use of accessory
muscles and retractions
􀀀 HR>120
􀀀 O2sats <90%
􀀀 cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How would you classify
the severity of this
patient’s asthma
according to Philippine
Consensus for the
Management of
Childhood Asthma
(PCMCA)? (1 pt) Basis?
(2 pts)

A

MILD PERSISTENT
􀀀 Daytime symptom >1x/
week but less than daily
􀀀 Nightime symptoms
>2x/month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In exacerbation, what
are the initial
treatment plan? (4 pts)

A

􀀀 Inhaled SABA +
ipratropium neb
q20mins x 3 doses
􀀀 Systemic corticosteroids
􀀀 Oxygen
supplementation to
maintain O2sats 94-98%
􀀀 Correct dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How would you
address the
Pneumonia? (4pts)

A

SUPPORTIVE
􀀀 Antipyretics
􀀀 Adequate hydration
􀀀 Oxygen support as
needed
􀀀 Rest
􀀀 Close Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the home
medications for the
patient? (5 pts)

A

􀀀 Oral corticosteroids (1–2
mg/kg/day to a
maximum of 40 mg) for
3–5 days in children
􀀀 Low dose inhaled
corticosteroids (ICS) 200
– 400ucg/day
􀀀 Inhaled SABA PRN
􀀀 LABA or slow release
theophylline
􀀀 Add on: Antileukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What parameters are
you going to look for in
order to say that the
patient can be safely
discharged from the
hospital? (4 pts)

A

PE is normal or near
normal
􀀀 No nocturnal
awakenings
􀀀 PEFR >80% predicted
􀀀 Sustained response to
inhaled SABA (at least 4
hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Discharge Instructions
(3 pts)

A

􀀀 Identify and avoid
trigger that precipitated
that attack
􀀀 Review inhaler
technique (for 3yo use
pressurized MDI plus
dedicated spacer with
face mask)
􀀀 Emphasize follow up
with the physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Recommendations for
follow up after an
exacerbation? (2 pts)

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Recommendations for
follow up after an
initiation of treatment?
(2 pts)

A

􀀀 1-3 months after starting
therapy and 3 – 12
months thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is bronchiolitis and its etiology?

A

Acute inflammation of the small airways in children
<2yo resulting in bronchioalveolar obstruction with
edema, mucus, and cellular debris à atelectasis à
V/Q mismatch
- Constellation of clinical s/sx including a viral URT
prodome followed by increased respiratory effort and
wheezing in children <2yo
- Most common RTI in infants
- RSV (50-80%), human metapneumovirus, rhinovirus,
adenovirus, coronavirus, enterovirus, parainfluenza,
influenza
- More common in boys, non-breastfed, crowded areas,
maternal smoking hx during pregnancy
- Common during rainy months in tropics (winter in
temperate)
- Self-limited, diagnosed clinically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of bronchiolitis?

A

CM:
1. Coryzal prodrome lasting 1-3 d followed by persistent
cough, tachypnea, with wheezing/crackles
2. LG fever, rhinorrhea, cough
3. Improvement by 5th-7th d
4. Tachypnea, wheezing (first time)/crackles, retractions
(severe)
5. Hyperresonance to percussion
6. Prolonged expiratory phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do we diagnose bronchiolitis?

A
  • Usually clinical
    1. CXR – hyperinflation with patchy atelectasis,
    peribronchial infiltrates. NOT routinely indicated if
    uncomplicated
    2. ABG – if severe, assess acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the cornerstone of management in bronchiolitis?

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give management of bronchiolitis

A
  1. Based on severity
    a. Mild – home mgt. Inc OFI, bronchodilator
    not recommended
    b. Severe – ventilatory & O2 support (cool
    humidified O2 for hypoxemic px), hydration,
    Ribavirin
    - Not recommended: bronchodilators, chest PT, CS, abx,
    epi
  2. Admission:
    a. Marked respiratory distress (nasal flaring,
    retractions, tachypnea, dyspnea, cyanosis)
    b. Age <12 w
    c. Toxic appearance, poor feeding,
    dehydration, lethargy
    d. Apnea
    e. O2 sat <92%
    f. Hx of prematurity
    g. Comorbidity CV, pulmo, neuro, immune
    h. Unreliable caregivers
  3. Mgt if hospitalized: nebulized hypertonic saline (3%)
    2.5-3ml prn
  4. Prevention
    a. Palivizumab (monoclonal Ab) for <2yo w/
    CHD
    b. Hand hygiene
    c. Exclusive bf x 6 mos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Pneumonia?

A

inflammation of lung parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Give the etiology of Pneumonia

A

Etiology:
1. Neonates (0-28d) – GBS, E.coli, Listeria, S.pneumonia,
HiB
2. 3w-3mos – RSV, parainfluenza, chlamydia trachomatis,
M.pneumoniae, S.pneumoniae, Hib, S.aureus
3. 4m-4yo – RSV, S.pneumoniae, HiB, M.pneumoniae
4. >5yo – M.pneumoniae, S.pneumoniae, Chlamydia
pneumoniae (atypical PN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia across all age groups?

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of pneumonia across all age groups?

A

S. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Give the pathogenesis of Pneumonia

A
  • Trauma, anesthesia, and aspiration increase the risk of
    pulmonary infection
  • Viral PN: results from spread of infection along the
    airways + direct injury of the respiratory epithelium à
    airway obstruction from swelling, abn secretions, and
    cellular debris à atelectasis, interstitial edema, VQ
    mismatch à significant hypoxemia
  • Bacterial PN: bacteria colonizes trachea and enter
    lungs, or from direct seeding of lungs after bacteremia
    Mycoplasma – viral MOA à inhibits ciliary action, cellular
    destruction à airway obstruction
    S.pneumoniae – local edema allowing bacterial proliferation and
    spread into adjacent lung portions à focal lobar involvement
    GAS – diffuse infection with interstitial PN. Necrosis of
    tracheobronchial mucosa, formation of large amounts of exudate,
    edema, and local hemorrhage, extension into the interalveolar
    septa à involvement of lymphatic vessels and pleural
    involvement
    S.aureus – confluent bronchoPN (unilateral), extensive
    hemorrhagic necrosis, irregular areas of cavitation in the lung
    parenchyma à pneumatocoeles, empyema, bronchopleural
    fistulas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of pneumonia?

A

CM:
1. Clinical triad: fever, cough, tachypnea
2. Abdominal pain – lower lobe PN
3. Tachypnea – most consistent
4. Early – diminished BS, scattered crackles and rhonchi
5. Late – dullness on percussion, chest lag/asymmetrical
chest on affected side (from consolidation/pleural
effusion)
6. Respiratory failure – retractions, head bobbing,
cyanosis, grunting, apnea, changes in sensorium
7. Recurrent PN - >2 episodes in a single year or >3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 2016 Pneumonia classification?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you diagnose pneumonia and other laboratory tests?

A

Dx:
1. CXR (PAL) – lung infiltrates. Complications such as
pleural effusion or empyema
- Viral PN: hyperinflation with bilateral interstitial
infiltrates and peribronchial cuffing
- Pneumococcal, atypical PN: confluent lobar
consolidation
- Bacterial: pleural effusion, lobar consolidation
2. Pulse oximetry
3. GS, C/S of sputum, nasopharyngeal aspirate, pleural
fluid &/or blood – definitive Dx for bacterial PN
4. BCS – only (+) in 10% of pneumococcal PN. Not
recommended for non-severe OPD cases.
Recommended for severe, clinical deterioration,
complicated PN
5. Chest UTZ -if suspecting multi-lobar consolidation,
necrotizing PN, lung abscess, pleural effusion, air leak
6. ABG
7. CBC – WBC N or elev (viral: <20K, bact 15-40K),
lymphocyte predominance (viral), granulocyte
predominance (bact)
8. CRP, ESR procalcitonin (marker of bacterial pathogen)
– elev in pneumococcal PN
9. PCR (+) – for M.pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In Pneumonia, when is antibiotics recommended?

A

PCAP A or B – abx administered if:
a. >2yo
b. With HG fever without wheeze
PCAP C – empiric abx may be started if any of the ff is present:
a. Elevated serum CRP, PCT, WBC >15k, Lpc-2
b. Alveolar consolidation on CXR
c. Persistent HG fever without wheeze
PCAP D – refer to specialist

PCAP A/B
1. Complete HiB vax: Amoxcillin 80-90 mkd q12 po x 5d
2. No/incomplete HiB vax: Co-amoxiclav 80-90 mkd po
q12/ Cefuroxime 20-30 mkd po q12
3. Allergy: Azithromycin 10mkd po x 3d or 10mkd po on
D1 then 5mkd po on D2-4/ Clarithromycin 15mkd po
q12 x 7d
4. If non-responsive to initial tx (48-72h):
Shift Amoxicillin to Co-amoxiclav 90mkd po q12
If started on Co-amox, Admit for IV abx + macrolide po

PCAP C
5. Complete HiB vax: Penicillin G 200,000 U/k/d IV q6
Ampicillin 200mkd q6 IV
6. No HiB vax: Ampicillin-Sulbactam 100mkd q6 /
Cefuroxime 10mkd IV 18/ Ceftriaxone 100mkd q12 IV

PCAP D: refer to Pulmo/ ID
Atypical PN, >5yo/adolescents
- Azithromycin 10mkd OD x 3 d
Clarithromycin 15mkd BID x 10d
Erythromycin 50mkd po q6-8 po
7. Adolescent: FQ: Ciprofloxacin 20-30mkd po q12.
Caution for <18yo. Reserve for complicated cases.
Why? Due to possible arthrotoxicity.
8. >15yo:
Ampicillin-sulbactam 100-200 mkd IV q6h
Cefuroxime 20-30mkd po, 75-150 mkd q8 IV
carbapenem + macrolide/FQ
Ceftriaxone 2g IV OD x 7d + Azith 500mg ODx5d
Staphylococcal: Clindamycin 10-30mkd po q6-8h, 25-
40mkd IV q6-8h
9. MRSA: Vancomycin 45-60 mkd q6-8h IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Complications of pneumonia?
How do we prevent it?

A

Complications:
From direct spread/bacteremia
- Pleural effusion/empyema – S.aureus, S.pneumonia,
S.pyogenes – most common
- Pericarditis
- Meningitis
- Suppurative arthritis
- Osteomyelitis

  • Vaccines: influenza, PCV13
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality with foreign body aspiration?

A

Choking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Epidemiology of FB aspiration?

A

Epidemiology:
- Choking – leading cause of morbidity and mortality in
<4yo
- Most common: food, coins, balloons, toys
- Food: peanuts, carrot, apple, dried beans, popcorn,
sunflower, watermelon seeds, hard candy, chewing
gum, hotdog, grapes (globular-shaped)
- AAP: recommends children <5yo should avoid hard
candy, gum; raw fruits and vegetables to be cut into
smaller pieces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the pathophysiology of foreign body aspiration?

A

Due to underdeveloped ability to swallow food, smaller
diameter airway more prone to obstruction, less force
of air during coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of foreign body aspiration?

A

CM:
1. Initial event: violent paroxysms of coughing, choking,
gagging, new-onset wheezing
new-onset wheezing
2. Asymptomatic interval: FB lodged, reflexes fatigue, sx
subside.
Most treacherous stage. Account for delayed dx.
3. Complications:
Complete airway obstruction – most serious
complication. Sudden respiratory distress followed by
inability to speak/cough
Erosion, infection: fever, cough, hemoptysis, PN,
atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is foreign body diagnosed?

A

Dx:
- Clinical dx
1. Bronchoscopy – done ASAP once with strong suspicion
- Usually R bronchus (58%), larynx or trachea (10%)
2. CT scan – define radiolucent FB (fish bone)
3. PA and lateral neck XR – if tracheal
4. PA & lateral CXR – If bronchial. Obstructive
emphysema, air trapping, shift of mediastinum
towards opposite side
- The hallmark of an aspirated foreign body is a lung
volume that does not change during the respiratory
cycle
- due to the check valve mechanism, where air enters
the bronchus around the foreign body but cannot exit,
the affected lung will usually appear overinflated and
hyperlucent, with concomitant rib flaring and a
depressed ipsilateral hemidiaphragm
- interrupted bronchus sign: disruption of the air column
in the main bronchi
- the majority of foreign bodies are radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do we manage foreign body?

A

Mgt:
1. referral to Pulmonology for prompt endoscopic
removal of FB
2. Heimlich maneuver – if laryngeal FB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in children?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most common viral etiology of LTB

A

Parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the pathogenesis of LTB?

A

Acute inflammatory disease of the larynx (within the
subglottic space)
- The infection causes inflammation of the larynx,
trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and lung parenchyma.
Obstruction caused by swelling and inflammatory
exudates develops and becomes pronounced in the
subglottic region. Obstruction increases the work of
breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

most common site of LTB?

A

subglottic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of LTB?

A
  1. URTI and LG fever 1-3 d prior to upper airway
    obstruction (prodrome 1-7d)
  2. “barking cough”
  3. Hoarse voice
  4. Sx worse at night
  5. Coryza & rhinorrhea
  6. N to moderately inflamed pharynx
  7. Slight tachypnea
  8. Inspiratory stridor (on exertion if mild, at rest for modsevere)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do we diagnose croup/LTB?

A
  1. Clinical
    Westley croup score

2.Neck xray: steeple sign/subglottic narrowing

  1. Endoscopy-definitive; deep red mucosa and subglottic edema
  2. CBC- usually nonspecific. WBC N or low with lymphocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the finding in neck xray in LTB?

A

Steeple sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the diagnostics and management of LTB?

A

Dx:
1. Clinical
2. Neck XR – steeple sign/subglottic narrowing: the
narrowing of airway lumen alters the appearance of
tracheal air column, which resembles a church steeple
or a steeply pitched roof.
- Do not correlate with ds severity
3. Endoscopy – definitive; deep red mucosa and
subglottic edema
4. CBC – usually nonspecific. WBC N or low with
lymphocytosis.
Mgt:
1. Admission criteria:
a. Severe ds: poor air entry, altered
consciousness
b. Deterioration after initial medical
management
c. Severe dehydration
d. Fx suggesting secondary bacterial infection
2. Discharge criteria:
a. No stridor at rest
b. N O2 sat
c. Good air exchange
d. No cyanosis
e. N level of consciousness
f. Able to tolerate fluids by mouth
3. Mild: Dexamethasone 0.6mkdose,
Budesonide 2mg neb
4. Moderate to severe:
a. Dexamethasone 0.6mkdose
b. Humidified oxygen (if O2sat <92%)
c. NPO
d. Nebulize epinephrine x 15 min
(0.5ml/kg/dose using 1:1000 dilution, max
5ml)
5. Impending respiratory failure:
a. High O2 using nonrebreathing mask
b. Dexamethasone
c. ET intubated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is acute epiglottitis?

A

medical emergency; serious, acute, rapidly progressive infection of supraglottic structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the etiology of acute epiglottitis?

A

HiB in unvaccinated children
S.pyogenes, S. pneumoniae, S. aureus in vaccinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the pathophysiology of epiglottitis?

A

Pathophysio
- Hib infection of the epiglottis leads to acute onset of
inflammatory edema, beginning on the lingual surface
of the epiglottis where the submucosa is loosely
attached. Swelling significantly reduces the airway
aperture. Edema rapidly progresses to involve the
subglottic structures (aryepiglottic folds, arytenoids,
and entire supraglottic larynx). The tightly bound
epithelium on the vocal cords halts edema spread at
this level. Frank airway obstruction, aspiration of
oropharyngeal secretions, or distal mucous plugging
can cause respiratory arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of acute epiglottitis?

A

CM:
1. Acute onset (4-12h) of HG fever, severe sore throat,
dyspnea, rapidly progressing respiratory obstruction
2. Dysphagia, drooling, hyperextended neck to maintain
airway, muffled voice, sniffing dog or tripod position
3. Double set-up PE (risk of airway obstruction and
respiratory arrest: direct visualization of inflamed
cherry-red epiglottis (Hib) or pale and edematous
epiglottis (Streptococcus)
4D’s: Dysphagia, Dysphonia, Drooling, Distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how do we diagnose acute epiglottitis?

A

Dx:
1. C/S – blood, epiglottic surface, CSF
2. CBC – leukocytosis with neutrophilia
3. ABG – respiratory acidosis
4. Lateral neck XR – thumb/ thumbprint/ leaf sign:
thickened free edge of the epiglottis, which causes it to
appear more radiopaque than normal, resembling the
distal thumb
5. Fiberoptic laryngoscopy – direct visualization of cherry
red epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the management for acute epiglottitis?

A

Mgt:
1. Intubation/tracheostomy under double set-up – 1st
priority. Ave 1-3 d
- Extubate when air leak develops around tube
2. Abx x 7-10d
1st line: Ceftriaxone 50-75 mkd IV q12/24
2nd line: Ampicillin-Sulbactam 100mkd IV q6 x 10d
Alt: Cefotaxime 100-200 mkd IV q6-8h
Meropenem 60mkd IV q8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the prophylaxis for epiglottitis?

A

Prophylaxis:
Rifampicin 20mkd po OD x 4 d for all household members with:
1. Any contact <4yo incompletely immunized
2. Any contact <12 mo w/o any primary vaccination
3. All immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the complications of epiglottitis?

A

meningitis, otitis media, PN, cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial tracheitis?

A

S. aureus

Others: MRSA, S.pneumonia, S.pyogenes,
M.catarrhalis, nontypeable H.influenzae, anaerobes
- Age: 6mos-8yo (peak 5-7yo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the pathophysiology of bacterial tracheitis?

A

Site: trachea
- mucosal damage or impairment of local immune
mechanisms due to a preceding viral infection, an
injury to the trachea from recent intubation, or trauma
may predispose the airway to invasive infection with
common pyogenic organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of bacterial tracheitis?

A
  1. Slow onset with sudden deterioration. Often follow
    viral URTI
  2. Brassy cough, hoarse voice
  3. HG fever and toxicity can occur immediately or after a
    few days of apparent improvement
  4. Stridor, neck pain
  5. Can lie flat, does not drool, no dysphagia
  6. Mucosal swelling at the level of the cricoid cartilage
    with copious thick, purulent secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the diagnostics of bacterial tracheitis?

A

Dx:
1. Clinical – r/o epiglottitis
2. Neck XR – ragged/hazy tracheal column,
pseudomembrane detachment from soft tissues in the
trachea (lateral view)
3. Bronchoscopy – subglottic narrowing, diffuse erythema
and mucopurulent exudates that may partially occlude
the airway.
4. Blood C/S, CBC – N or elev WBC, inc in immature cells
on diff count

64
Q

How do we manage bacterial tracheitis?

A

Mgt:
1. Vancomycin/clindamycin + 3rd gen cephalosporin
(Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime)
Vancomycin 40-46 mkd IV q6-8
Clindamycin 25-40 mkd IV q6-8
Ceftriaxone 50-75 mkd IV q12-24
Cefotaxime 100-200mkd IV q6
2. Intubation (50-60%)

65
Q

What is the etiopathogenesis of ASTHMA?

A
  • A reversible, obstructive, airway disease involving both
    the small & large airways with increased residual lung
    volumes and decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
66
Q

What is the pathophysiology of asthma?

A
  • 3 components of an asthma attack:
    § Bronchospasm
    § Airway edema
    § Increased mucus production
  • Hypersensitivity or susceptibility to exposures/triggers
    lead to airway inflammation, airway
    hyperresponsiveness, edema, basement membrane
    thickening, subepithelial collagen deposition, smooth
    muscle and mucous gland hypertrophy, and mucus
    hypersecretion –> airflow obstruction
67
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of asthma?

A

CM:
1. Wheezing, SOB, chest tightness, cough
2. Sx worsen with certain “triggers” (viral infection,
weather changes, exercise, allergen, emotions, stress)
3. Responds to bronchodilators
4. (+)FHx of asthma or atopy

68
Q

How do we diagnose asthma?

A

Asthma Predictive Index (API) – >4 wheezing episodes per year + 1
major criteria or 2 minor criteria
- Major criteria: Physician diagnosed atopic dermatitis in
the child, physician diagnosed asthma in a parent,
sensitization to an inhalant
- Minor criteria: wheeze apart from cold, eosinophilia,
sensitization to food
Perform spirometry/PEF with BD reversibility test
Daily diurnal PEF variability = twice daily PEF [(day’s highest-day’s
lowest]/mean of day’s highest and lowest) x 100, averaged over
one week

69
Q

How do we diagnose asthma in less than 5 years old?

A

Diagnosis in Children <5yo:
- PFT not done due to inability to correctly perform
maneuvers
- Clinical. CXR to r/o structural abnormality
- Fx suggestive of asthma:
§ Recurrent or persistent non-productive
cough worse at night
§ Recurrent wheezing during sleep or
exposure to triggers
§ Reduced activity
§ Therapeutic trial with low dose ICS & prn
SABA results in clinical improvement in 2-3
mos & worsening when tx is stopped.
Asthma severity is assessed retrospectively, q2-3 mos of
treatment.

70
Q

What are the FEV1 findings in Asthma?

A

Low FEV1 – (<60% predicted) identifies patients at risk of asthma
exacerbations, independent of Sx
N or near N FEV1 – consider alternative causes
Persistent BD reversibility – increase in FEV1 >12% and >200ml
from baseline = uncontrolled asthma
Spirometry – cannot be readily obtained in children <5yo
After starting ICS Tx, FEV1 improves then reaches a plateau after
2mos –> personal best FEV1 (highest FEV1) should be recorded
- Better predictor in clinical practice
- Personal best PEF is reached after 2 weeks
Excessive variation in PEF suggests poor asthma control, high risk
of exacerbation.

71
Q

How do we manage asthma?

A

2020 GINA Updates
1. Maximum daily dose for formoterol is 48mcg (w/
beclomethasone) and 72mcg (w/ budesonide)
2. Use of ICS for step 1 in children 6-11yo
3. Definition of low, medium, and high dose ICS revised to
reflect clinical use
4. Alert on risk of monteleukast adverse effects
(aggression, insomnia, anxiety, hallucinations,
depression, suicide)
5. Assessment criteria for severe attack in children <5yo
revised
A. Pharmacologic therapy

  • 3 Main categories:
    1. Controller medications – reduce airway
    inflammation, control sx, reduce exacerbations
    and decline in lung function
    2. Reliever/rescue medications – prn relief of
    breakthrough sx (worsening asthma/
    exacerbations. Short term prevention of exercise
    induced bronchoconstriction.
    3. Add-on therapies for severe asthma – considered
    if with persistent sx despite optimized tx.
    SMART regimen – Single Maintenance and Reliever Tx
    Asthma treatment is a continuous cycle:
  • Assess, adjust treatment, and review response
    Assess for common problems:
  • Inhaler technique
  • Adherence
  • Persistent allergen exposure and comorbidities
72
Q

Please review GINA guidelines!

A
73
Q

When should be we see asthma patients?

A

Ideally, patients should be seen 1-3 months after starting
treatment and q3-12 months thereafter.
After an exacerbation, a review visit within 1 week should be
scheduled.
After starting initial controller, review response after 2-3 mos (or
according to urgency)
- Consider stepping down:
§ once good control has been achieved and
maintained for 3 months, low risk for
exacerbations.
- Consider Stepping up:
§ Uncontrolled sx, exacerbations or risk
1. Sustained step-up (for at least 2-3 mos)
2. Short term step-up (for 1-2 weeks) – for viral infections
or seasonal allergen exposure.
Find the patient’s lowest treatment that controls both sx and
exacerbations.
B. Non-pharmacologic therapy
1. Cessation of smoking for patients, parents or
caregivers
2. Healthy diet and regular exercise, weight
reduction
3. Avoidance of triggers/allergens, pollution
4. Avoidance of meds that may make asthma worse
(aspirin, NSAIDs, beta-blockers)
5. Immunizations (Influenza, pneumococcal vax)
6. Provide written asthma action plan

74
Q

What are the interim guidelines for COVID?

A

Interim guidance during COVID-19 pandemic
1. Continue ICS and OCS as prescribed
2. All patients should have asthma action plan
3. Avoid use of nebulizers if possible
a. Viruses can be transmitted up to 1 m
b. Use MDI with spacer instead
4. Avoid spirometry
5. Follow infection control recommendations for other
aerosol generating procedures

75
Q

What is the definition of status asthmaticus?

A

Definition:
- Acute or subacute deterioration in sx control that is
sufficient to cause distress or risk of health
- CM:
§ Increase in wheeze or SOB
§ Inc in coughing, esp at night
§ Lethargy or reduced exercise tolerance
§ Impairment of daily activities
§ Poor response to reliever medication

76
Q

What is the management of patients with status asthmaticus?

A

Mild:
1. SABA (2 puffs by pMDI + spacer or 2.5mg by nebulizer
q20min for 1 hour)
2. Oxygen (target sats 94-98%)
3. Prednisone 1-2mg/kg po x 3-5d (max 20mg for <2yo,
30mg for 2-5 yo) – if with recurrence of sx in 3-4 hrs
4. If worsening at 1 hour, transfer to high level ICU
Severe:
1. Transfer to high level care/ICU
2. O2 by face mask (1L/min) target sats 94-98%
3. Give
inhaled SABA 2-6 puffs q20min for first hour, additional
2-3 puffs per hour
ipratropium bromide 2 puffs of 90mcg (or 250mcg by
nebulizer) q20min for 1 hour only
systemic CS methylprednisolone 1mg/kg q6 on day1
Consider MgSO4 nebulized isotonic 150mg 3 doses in
the first hour if >2yo
4. Refer to specialist

77
Q

Management of exacerbations of </=5yo

A
78
Q

Management of exacerbations of >5yo

A
79
Q

Disposition of patients with asthma exacerbation

A

Disposition
Assess for discharge
- Sx improved not needing SABA
- PEF improving and >60-80% of personal best or
predicted
- O2sat >94% at room air
- Resources at home adequate
Arrange for discharge
- Reliever: continue prn
- Controller: start/ step up
- Prednisolone 1-2mkd po continue for 3-5d
- Follow up w/in 2-7d
Follow-up
- Reliever: reduce prn
- Controller: continue higher dose for short term (1-2
weeks) or long-term (3 months) depending on reason
for exacerbation
- Risk factors: check and correct modifiable risk factors
that may have contributed to the exacerbation
- Review asthma action plan

80
Q

What is the definition of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?

A

Respiratory distress – s/sx of abnormal respiratory pattern
Respiratory failure – inability of the lungs to provide sufficient
oxygen (hypoxic RF) or remove CO2 (ventilatory RF) to meet
metabolic demands

81
Q

What is the pathophysiology of ARDS?

A

Pathophysio
- Hypoxic RF results from intrapulmonary shunting and
venous admixture or insufficient diffusion of oxygen
from alveoli into pulmonary capillaries. From small
airway obstruction, inc barrier to diffusion (interstitial
edema/fibrosis), alveolar collapse (ARDS, PN,
atelectasis, pulmo edema)
- Hypercarbic RF is caused by decreased minute alveolar
ventilation (TV x RR) from centrally mediated d/o’s of
respiratory drive, inc dead space ventilation or
obstructive airway ds.

82
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of ARDS?

A
  1. Nasal flaring, tachypnea, chest wall retractions, stridor,
    grunting, dyspnea, wheezing
  2. Lethargy, poor cry – signs of exhaustion, hypercarbia,
    impending respiratory failure
  3. Rapid and shallow breathing – indicates decreased lung
    compliance (PN, pulmonary edema)
  4. Slow and deep breathing – indicates obstructive lung
    disease (asthma, croup)
  5. Grunting – decreased FRC (PN, pulmonary edema) and
    peripheral airway obstruction (bronchiolitis)
  6. Hallmark of extrathoracic airway obstruction –
    inspiratory stridor, suprasternal, intrathoracic and
    subcostal retractions
  7. Hallmark of intrathoracic airway obstruction –
    prolongation of expiration and expiratory wheezing
  8. Alveolar interstitial ds – rapid, shallow respirations,
    chest wall retractions, grunting
83
Q

How do we diagnose ARDS?

A

Dx:
1. Pulse oximetry – most common. Indirectly measures
arterial Hgb-O2 saturation
- Usual target: >95%
2. Capnography (end-tidal CO2 measurement) –
determine effectiveness of ventilation and pulmonary
circulation
3. ABG – determine acid-base status
4. CXR – to ID etiology of RF

84
Q

New Berlin Definition of ARDS

A

[put table here]

85
Q

How do we manage patients with ARDS?

A

Goal: ensure patent airway and provide necessary support for
adequate oxygenation of blood and removal of CO2
1. Oxygen administration – least invasive, most tolerated
- Nasal cannula
FiO2% O2 delivered = 21% + [(nasal cannula flow x 3)]
- Simple mask: 5-10 lpm
- Partial rebreather and nonrebreather mask
- NIPPV: helps aerate partially atelectatic or filled alveoli,
prevent alveolar collapse at end exhalation, and
increase FRC
- CPAP: high flow nasal cannula delivering 4-16 lpm
- Intubation
- BiPAP: provided positive pressure during exhalation
and inspiration, best for obstructive lung disease
2. ET intubation
- When hypoxemia or significant hypoventilation
persists despite above.
ET internal diameter/size = (age/4)+4
ET depth/length = (age/2) + 12
3. Mechanical ventilation
- Apply PEEP to prevent alveolar de-recuitment, small
TV, high RR
- Indication: PaO2 <60 torr while breathing >60% oxygen
- PaCO2 >60torr
- pH <7.25
- clinically fatigued, impending exhaustion
- goal: provide sufficient O2 and ventilation to ensure
tissue viability until disease resolves and minimize
complications
4. Weaning
- Spontaneous breathing trial (SBT): most objective
means of assessing extubation readiness
- Patient should be awake, with intact airway reflexes,
capable of handling oropharyngeal secretions, and
stable hemodynamic status.
- With adequate gas exchange:
§ PaO2 >60mmHg while receiving FiO2 <0.4
and PEEP <5
- If extubatable, shift to CPAP at PEEP 5
- Dexamethasone 0.5mkdose q6 x4 prior to extubation –
minimizes risk of postextubation airway obstruction

86
Q

What is subacute cough?

A

cough of 2-4 weeks duration

87
Q

What are the diseases classified as subacute cough?

A

Bronchitis
TB
Chlamydia pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Rhinosinusitis

88
Q

What is the etiology of acute bronchitis?

A

Etiology
- Usually viral: influenza, parainfluenza, C.diphtheriae

89
Q

What is the pathophysiology of acute bronchitis?

A
  • Tracheobronchial epithelium is invaded by the
    infectious agent that leads to activation of
    inflammatory cells and release of cytokines à
    Inflammation of the large and medium-sized airways of
    the lungs
90
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of acute bronchitis?

A
  • Natural course: 2-3 weeks
  • Often follows a viral URTI
    1. Nonspecific URTI sx
    2. After 3-4 d, frequent dry, hacking cough
    3. After several days, sputum becomes purulent from
    leukocyte migration
    4. Chest pain exaggerated by coughing
    5. Mucus gradually thins within 5-10 days and cough
    abates
    6. Early signs: LG fever, nasopharyngitis, conjunctivitis,
    rhinitis
    7. Late signs: coarse BS, crackles, scattered wheezing
91
Q

Modified Diagnostic Criteria of Protracted Bacterial Bronchitis
2016 (PBB)

A
  1. Chronic wet cough > 4 weeks
  2. No s/sx of other causes of wet/productive cough
  3. Resolution of cough after a 2-week course of
    appropriate oral abx
92
Q

How do we diagnose acute bronchitis?

A

Dx:
Mainly clinical
- r/o pneumonia: (-)tachycardia, tachypnea, N chest PE
1. CXR – N or increased bronchial markings

93
Q

What is the management of acute bronchitis?

A

Self-limited. No abx.
1. Rest and inc OFI
2. Humidifiers – shorten course
3. Non-Rx cough and cold meds should not be used in
<2yo, and cautioned in 2-11 yo
4. Dextromethorphan – antitussive, for dry cough >4yo.
5. Paracetamol, ibuprofen – for fever/pain
6. PBB – DOC is co-amoxiclav 20-40 mkd q8-12 po x 14d
or up to 4 wks.

94
Q

PTB

A

please see separate deck

95
Q

Causes atypical/nonbacterial pneumonia

A

Chlamydia pneumonia

96
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Chlamydia pneumonia?

A

The bacteria cause illness by damaging the lining of the
respiratory tract including the throat, windpipe, and
lungs.

97
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Chlamydia pneumonia?

A

CM:
1. Mild to moderate fever, malaise, cough, pharyngitis
2. Rales and wheezing

98
Q

How do we diagnose Chlamydia pneumonia?

A

Dx:
1. CXR: worse than clinical appearance. Mild diffuse
involvement, or lobar infiltrates with small pleural
effusion
2. C/S: optimum site is nasopharynx
3. Microimmunofluorescence (MIF): only currently
acceptable serologic test. Serum IgM and Ig G.
4. CBC – N WBC, elev eosinophil
5. Elev ESR/ CRP

99
Q

Treatment for Chlamydia pneumonia

A

Tx:
1. Macrolides: Erythromycin 40mkd BIDx10d,
Clarithromycin 15mkd BID x 10d,
Azithromycin 10mkd on D1, then 5mkd for d2-5
Coughing may persist for weeks even after tx.

100
Q
  • Causes tracheobronchitis and pneumonia (CAP)
  • Most common species causing respiratory infection in
    school-age children and young adults (3-15yo).
A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

101
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Mycoplasma Pneumoniae?

A

Pathophysio:
- M.pneumoniae target the cells of the ciliated
respiratory epithelium (bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli)
–> ciliostasis and eventual sloughing of cells à
cytolytic injury from production of H2O2 and CARDS
toxic
Community-acquired respiratory distress
syndrome (CARDS) toxin associated with
more severe/fatal ds
§ Severe in immunodeficient pxs
(hypogammaglobulinemia), sickle cells ds

102
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of Mycoplasma?

A

CM: “walking pneumonia”
1. Gradual onset of headache, malaise, fever, sore throat
2. Followed by LRT sx: hoarseness, nonproductive cough
3. Cough: clinical hallmark of infection. Usually worsens
during the 1st week, then gradually resolves within
2wks. Can last to 4 wks
4. Wheezing
5. Generally recover w/o complications
6. N PE, or only dry rales
7. Coryza, GI sx
8. Others: pharyngitis, sinusitis, croup, bronchiolitis

103
Q

how do we doagnose Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Dx:
1. CXR: interstitial or bronchopneumonia, usually LL.
Bilateral diffuse infiltrates, lobar pneumonia, or hilar
LNE
2. CBC: N WBC and diff count
3. ESR elev
4. PCR – best method w/ serology
5. C/S – classic “mulberry” colonies
6. Serologic test IgG and IgM – IgM appear after 1st week,
then until 6-12mos. IgG >4x on D10-3wks is diagnostic.
7. Cold hemagglutinins

104
Q

what is the treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Tx:
1. ABX – Erythromycin 35-50mkd q6/8
Clarithromycin 15mkd po q12
Azithromycin 10mkd OD po x 3d
doxycycline 100mg BIDx7-14d
2. CS – for extrapulmonary infection

105
Q

What are the complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Complication:
1. CNS disease – most common extrapulmonary site of
infection.
- Encephalitis, transverse myelitis, aseptic meningitis,
GBS, ataxia, Bell palsy, peripheral neuropathy, acute
disseminate encephalomyelitis
- Occurs 3-23d (mean 10d) after onset of respi sx
- Dx: CSF N or mild mononuclear pleocytosis
§ CSF PCR – from throat swan
§ MRI – focal ischemic changes,
ventriculomegaly, diffuse edema,
multifocal white matter inflammatory
lesions consistent with postinfectious
demyelinating encephalomyelitis
2. Derma – MP urticaria, EM, SJS, Gianotti-Crosti
syndrome, erythema nodosum
3. Hema – hemolysis with (+) Coomb’s test and minor
reticulocytosis 2-3 weeks after sx onset,
thrombocytopenia, aplastic anemia, coagulation
defects
4. Arthritis – mono, poly, migratory arthritis
5. Others – hepatitis, pancreatitis, acute GN, pericarditis,
myocarditis, RF-like syndrome

106
Q

Etiology of rhinosinusitis

A

Etiology:
- S.pneumoniae (30%)
- Nontypeable H.influenzae (20%)
- M.catarrhalis (20%)
- Anaerobes and S.aureus (uncommon)

107
Q

What is the pathophysiology of rhinosinusitis?

A

Pathophysio:
- Anything that impairs mucociliary transport or causes
nasal obstruction (URTI, AR, smoking)
- Sinusitis typically follows a viral URTI à mucosal
thickening, edema, inflammation of the paranasal
sinuses which block sinus drainage and mucociliary
clearance of bacteria favoring bacterial overgrowth

108
Q

What are the classifications of rhinosinusitis?

A

Classification:
1. Acute - <30d
2. Subacute - 1-3mos
3. Chronic - >3mos

109
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of rhinosinusitis?

A

CM:
1. Nasal congestion, purulent nasal discharge (x3-4d),
fever (>39C), cough >10d w/o improvement
2. Maxillary tooth discomfort and pain or pressure
exacerbated by bending forward
3. Headache and facial pain (rare in children)
4. Erythema and swelling of nasal mucosa with purulent
nasal discharge
5. Sinus tenderness (adolescents)
6. Transillumination: opaque sinus that transmit light poorly

110
Q

What are the complications of rhinosinutis?

A

Complications:
1. Periorbital cellulitis
2. Orbital cellulitis
3. Meningitis
4. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
5. Brain abscess
6. Pott puffy tumor (osteomyelitis of frontal bone)
7. Mucocoeles (chronic inflammatory lesions in the
frontal sinuses that expand and displace the eye)

111
Q

What are the diagnostics for rhinosinusitis?

A

Dx usually clinical
1. Paranasal XR – not diagnostic. Cannot determine
etiology, not recommended in otherwise healthy
children
- Air-fluid level
- Opacification of sinuses
- Mucosal thickening
2. Sinus aspirate culture – only accurate method of dx,
but impractical
3. CBC – usually N

112
Q

How do we manage rhinosinusitis?

A

Mgt:
1. ABX: DOC amoxicillin 45mkd BIDx10d (or 7d after
resolution of sx)
- W/ allergy: cefuroxime 20-30mkd q12 po
- Cefixime 8mkd q12-24 po
- Co-amoxiclav 80-90 mkd for children w/ risk factors:
§ Prev. abx in the past 1-3mos
§ Daycare
§ <2yo
§ Failure to respond to amox within 72h
§ Severe sinusitis
- NAGCOM:
1st line: Co-amoxiclav 45-50 mkd po q12 x 10-14d
2nd line: Co-amoxiclav 90 mkd q12 x 10-14d/
Cefuroxime 30mkd q12 x 10d
Allergy: Clarithromycin 15mkd q12/ Cefuroxime 30mkd
q12 x 10d
2. Refer to ENT – if nonresponsive to abx.

113
Q

How long is considered chronic cough?

A

> 4 weeks

114
Q

What are the differentials for chronic cough?

A

Pertussis, GERD, TEF, Tracheal vascular ring, laryngeal cleft, laryngomalacia

115
Q

What is the etiology of pertussis?

A

Etiology:
- Bordetella pertussis, Bordetella parapertussis
- Exclusive pathogen of humans
- Natural hx or vax does not provide lifelong immunity

116
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pertussis?

A

Pathophysio
- Bordetella pertussis à pertussis toxin = tracheal
cytotoxin à local epithelial damage –> respi sx
- Only colonizes ciliated epithelium

117
Q

Incubation period of pertussis

A

7-10 days (4-21days)

118
Q

Clinical manifestations of pertussis and stages?

A

CM:
1. Catarrhal stage (1-2 w) – nonspecific sx of LG fever,
colds, congestion, sneezing, lacrimation, conjunctival
suffusion
- Most infectious period
2. Paroxysmal stage (2-6 w) – coughing marks the onset
(starts as dry, intermittent and irritative hack)
- Cough evolves into paroxysms (hallmark) of 5-10 rapid
coughs ending in a high-pitched whoop (forceful
inspiratory gasp) “whooping cough”
§ Inspired air traverses the still partially
closed airway
- Cyanosis during paroxysmal coughing, posttussive
vomiting, and exhaustion, conjunctival hemorrhage,
petechiae on upper body
- Child looks well in between paroxysms
3. Convalescent stage (>2weeks) – number, severity, and
duration of cough episodes diminish
Infants (<3mo) – apnea w/ or w/o cough, with gagging, gasping,
apnea, cyanosis, apparent life-threatening event

119
Q

how do we diagnose pertussis?

A

Usually clinical
1. C/S or PCR – posterior nasopharyngeal swab
2. Paired serology
3. CBC – leukocytosis (15-100K cells/uL) with absolute
lymphocytosis is characteristic in the catarrhal stage,
thrombocytosis
4. CXR – perihilar infiltrate or edema (butterfly

120
Q

how do we manage pertussis?

A
  1. Macrolides
    Erythromycin 40mkd po q6 x 14 d not preferred for
    <1mo
    Clarithromycin 15mkd po q12
    Azithromycin 10 mkd po x 5d – preferred agent in all
    age groups
    40mkd po q6 x 14 d not preferred for
    <1mo
    Clarithromycin 15mkd po q12
    Azithromycin 10 mkd po x 5d – preferred agent in all
    age groups
    § for infants <1mo. Due to hypertrophic
    pyloric stenosis with eryth or clarith
  2. Aspiration precautions
  3. Salbutamol – not recommended. Fussing may trigger
    paroxysms
  4. Droplet precautions and isolation immediately upon dx
    and until 5d after initiation of tx
  5. Admission criteria:
    a. Infants <3mos old
    b. Severe 3-6 mos old
    c. Patients with significant complications
121
Q

what are the complications of pertussis?

A

Complications
1. Seizures
2. Encephalopathy
3. Death
4. Apnea
5. Secondary infections (OM, PN)
6. Conjunctival

122
Q

How do we prevent pertussis?

A

Prevention:
1. Household contacts & close contacts (daycare) also
treated with macrolides
2. Immunization DPT
3. Droplet and standard precautions, isolation – for 5d
after starting tx, or 3wks w/o tx

123
Q

Most common esophageal disorder in children of all
ages

A

GERD

124
Q

What is GERD?

A

Most common esophageal disorder in children of all
ages
- GER is physiologic. Passage of gastric contents into the
esophagus.
- GERD is pathologic: frequent or persistent episodes
with complications (esophagitis, respiratory symptoms,
FTT, feeding refusal)
- 41% of infants aged 3-4mos spit up most of their
feedings
- <5% of infants age 13-14mos spit up most of their
feedings

125
Q

What is the pathophysiology of GERD?

A

Pathophysio:
- LES is supported by the crura of the diaphragm at the
GE junction which have valve-like functions and forms
the anti-reflux barrier
- Transient LES relaxation (TLESR) is the major
mechanism allowing reflux to occur à Retrograde
movement of gastric contents across the lower
esophageal sphincter (LES) into the esophagus
- Gastric distention is the main stimulus for TLESR
(straining, coughing, large volume hyperosmolar
meals)
- GERD is when regurgitation of contents causes
complications or contributes to tissue damage or
inflammation

126
Q

Epidemiology of GERD?

A

Infant reflux at first few mos of life, peaks at 4mos,
resolves at 12mos & nearly all at 24 mos
- Autosomal dominant genetic predisposition

127
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of GERD?

A
  1. Infants – regurgitation, excessive crying/irritability,
    vomiting, food refusal, persistent hiccups, abnormal
    posturing (Sandifer syndrome), impaired QOL
  2. Children – impaired QOL, vomiting, esophagitis,
    persistent/chronic cough, aspiration PN, wheezing, ear
    infections, stridor, heartburn
  3. Adolescents – impaired QOL, esophagitis, dysphagia,
128
Q

What is the Rome Criteria?

A

vs. Infant Regurgitation – Rome IV criteria
- Must include both of the ff in otherwise healthy infants
3wks-3mos of age:
§ Regurgitation 2 or more times/d for 3 or
more weeks
§ No retching, hematemesis, aspiration,
apnea, FTT, feeding/swallowing difficulties,
or abN posturing
If there is repetitive regurgitation or vomiting during the first 1-2
WOL, exclude infections, anatomical anomalies, and metabolic
disorders
Onset of sx after the age of 6 mos or persistence of sx beyond 12
mos raises the possibility of alternative diagnosis to infant GER

129
Q

What are the alarm symptoms of GERD?

A

Regurgitation started <2 weeks of life or >6mos or persistent after 18mos of life
bilious, nocturnal or persistent vomiting
chronic or bloody diarrhea
hematemesis
dysuria
seizures
dysphagia
recurrent pneumonia

130
Q

What are the alarm signs of GERD?

A

abnormal (general or abdominal, neurological, respiratory PE
abdominal distention
fever
failure to thrive/weight loss
abnormal muscle tone
bulging fontanel or excessive increase of head circumference or micro/macrocephaly
abnormal psychomotor development

131
Q

What do you request for GERD?

A
  1. Empiric anti-reflux therapy – trial of high dose PPI
    Omeprazole 1mkd po od
    Lansoprazole 15mg po OD
  2. Barium study of UGIT – r/o anatomical cause
  3. Esophageal pH monitoring – gold standard. Document
    reflux episodes
  4. Esophageal manometry – dysmotility, check LES
    pressure
  5. Endoscopy – erosive esophagitis, strictures, Barrett
    esophagus. May biopsy, dilate reflux-induced
    strictures.
  6. Gastroesophageal scintigraphy – using 99m-Tc
  7. Intraluminal impedance – dx GERD and understand
    esophageal function, non-acid reflux
  8. Laryngotracheobronchoscopy – visualize airway signs
    of GERD
132
Q

How do we manage GERD?

A
  1. Lifestyle modification – foundation of tx
    a. Infants:1st line: continue BF, avoid overfeeding,
    adjust frequency and volume
    Thicken formula 1 tbsp dry rice cereal per 1
    oz MF, commercially thickened MF
    prone or left lateral position when awake,
    or upright carried position
    2nd line: elimination of cow milk in maternal
    diet in BF infants
    2-4 wks of extensively hydrolyzed proteinbased
    or amino acid based formula
    3rd line: refer to pedia GI
    OR 4-8 wks trial of acid suppression (PPI,
    H2RA if PPI not available)
    b. Avoid acidic/spicy food, juice, alcohol,
    caffeinated and carbonated drinks
    c. Hypoallergenic diet
    d. Weight reduction
    e. Avoid smoking
    f. Positioning: elevate head during sleep, left
    lateral decubitus
  2. PPI – current standard of care
    Omeprazole 1mkd po od for upto 8wks
    Lansoprazole 15mg po OD
    Esomeprazole 10mg (<12yo), 20mg (>12yo) od po
  3. Others: antacids, H2 blockers, prokinetic agents
    (metoclopramide)
  4. Fundoplication – for intractable GERD, refractory
    esophagitis & strictures, CPD
133
Q

What is TEF?

A

Abnormal connection (fistula) between the esophagus
and trachea

134
Q

What are the types of TEF?

A

Types of TEF
1. Type A (80%) – isolated EA, pure EA w/o TEF
2. Type B (<1%) – EA with proximal TEF
3. Type C (87%) – EA with distal TEF
- Most common type
- Esophagus ends blindly 10-20cm from the nares
- Upper esophagus ends in a blind pouch. The distal
esophagus communicates with the posterior trachea
4. Type D (<1%) – EA with double TEF
5. Type E (4%) – isolated TEF

135
Q

What are the risk factors of TEF?

A

Risk factors:
1. Advanced maternal age, European
2. Obesity, poor, smoking

136
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of TEF?

A

CM:
1. At birth – frothing/bubbling at mouth and nose;
respiratory distress, cough, cyanosis
2. Infant – unable to handle secretions with subsequent
salivation and aspiration of pharyngeal contents due to
esophageal obstruction, requires frequent suctioning
3. Feeding exacerbates sx à regurgitation, aspiration

137
Q

How is TEF diagnosed?

A

Dx:
1. Inability to pass NGT or OGT in NBs + early-onset
respiratory distress
2. CXR – coiled NGT/OGT in the esophageal pouch, airdistended
stomach
3. 50% with associated anomalies (VATER/VACTERL):
Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Trachea, Esophagus,
Renal/Radial, Limb syndrome

138
Q

Management of TEF

A

Mgt:
1. Supportive
a. Maintain a patent airway
b. Pre-operative proximal pouch
decompression to prevent aspiration of
secretions
c. ABX for PN
ampicillin 50mg/kg or benzylpenicillin
50,000 U/kg q6h x 5 d + Gentamicin
7.5mg/kg OD x 5d
d. Prone positioning to reduce regurgitation &
esophageal suctioning
2. Surgery – surgical ligation of TEF and primary end-toend
anastomosis of the esophagus via right-sided
thoracotomy

139
Q

Prognosis of TEF

A

Prognosis :
>90% survival rate
Complications: GERD, delayed gastric emptying

140
Q

What is tracheal vascular ring?

A
  • Usually occur in 1st year of life
  • At birth, acute respiratory distress
  • Congenital vascular encirclement of the trachea and
    esophagus
  • Double aortic arch: MC sx’c vascular ring
141
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of tracheal vascular rings?

A
  1. Asymptomatic, wheezing, stridor, recurrent URTI
    and/or dysphagia
  2. Hyperextended neck to alleviate respiratory distress
  3. Exacerbated by neck flexion
  4. Reflex apnea during feeding
142
Q

How do we diagnose TEF?

A

Dx:
1. CXR – evaluate pulmo pathology and sidedness.
compression of the trachea and hyperinflation or
atelectasis of some of the lobes of either lung
2. Echocardiogram – ID anatomy
3. Contrast CT angiogram – define anatomy
4. Bronchoscopy – best method to define degree and
extent of stenosis/ tracheal compression

143
Q

How do we manage tracheal vascular rings?

A

Mgt:
1. Tracheal resection of short segment stenosis/slide
tracheoplasty for long segment stenosis

144
Q

What is tracheomalacia?

A

Insufficient tracheal cartilage to maintain airway
patency throughout the respiratory cycle
- Usually infants, M:F 2:1

145
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of tracheomalacia?

A

CM:
1. Low-pitched monophasic wheezing during expiration,
loudest at trachea
2. Persistent respiratory congestion

146
Q

How is tracheomalacia diagnosed?

A

Dx:
1. Flexible/rigid bronchoscopy – gold standard. Observe
airway collapsing and opening
2. PFT – dec. peak flow, flattening of flow-volume loop
3. MRI/MRA, CT – reveal abnormal shape of the trachea
as the apposition of the walls, “expiratory frown
shapes”

147
Q

What is management of tracheomalacia? Progosis?

A

Mgt
1. Expectant observation. Usually resolves by 3yo.
2. Postural drainage to clear secretions
3. Nebulization: ipratropium bromide
Don’t give Salbutamol – decrease airway tone à
exacerbate loss of airway patency
4. CPAP

Prognosis:
Excellent – improves as child grows due to increase in airway
diameter (resolved at 3yo)

148
Q

What are laryngeal clefts?

A
  • Result when the septum between the esophagus and
    trachea fail to develop fully, leading to a common
    channel defect between the pharyngoesophagus and
    laryngotracheal lumen, making laryngeal closure
    incompetent during swallowing/reflux.
149
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of laryngeal cleft?

A

CM:
1. Stridor, choking, cyanosis, aspiration of feedings,
recurrent chest infections

150
Q

How do we diagnose laryngeal clefts?

A
  1. laryngoscopy – visualize laryngeal cleft and esophagus.
151
Q

Treatment of laryngeal clefts

A

surgical repair

152
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

A

Most common congenital laryngeal anomaly
- Most common cause of stridor in children

153
Q

What is the pathogenesis of laryngomalacia?

A

Patho:
- Due to decreased laryngeal tone leading to supraglottic
collapse during inspiration

154
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of laryngomalacia?

A

CM:
1. Stridor – low pitched, inspiratory, exacerbated by
exertion – crying, agitation, feeding
2. Sx at first 2 weeks of life, increasing in severity for 6
mos

155
Q

How do we diagnose laryngomalacia?

A

Dx:
1. Flexible laryngoscopy – gold standard. Laryngeal
cartilage collapsing on inspiration. Directly assess the
dynamic collapse of the supraglottic airway during
awake respiration.
2. CXR – visualize swallowing mechanism. Modified
barium swallow for infants

156
Q

What is the treatment of laryngomalacia?

A

Tx:
1. Expectant observation – most sx resolve spontaneously
as child and airway grows
2. Surgery – supraglattoplasty if with severe respiratory
distress, FTT.