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1
Q

Critical info found in checklists, that if not followed, could result in mission failure, serious injury, or death is known as what?

A

Warnings

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2
Q

Serious info found in checklists that could result in mission degradation or equipment damage is known as what?

A

Cautions

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3
Q

Important checklist info that helps explain procedures or provide info is known as what?

A

Notes

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4
Q

Statements found in checklists that direct which steps should be accomplished in a particular situation, presented as if then format are known as what?

A

Lead-ins

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5
Q

Precom should be initiated when?

A

30 minutes after aircraft eta and comms cannot be established.

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6
Q

Excom should be initiatied when?

A

30 minutes after precom initiation

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7
Q

What part of the reporting process should CC and First Sergeants be trained on?

A

System, matrix, releasable info, timing criteria and tenant responsibilities

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8
Q

EMNS notification timing requirements

A

90% within 2 minutes and 100% within 1 hour

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9
Q

OPSEC process

A

Identify critical info, analyze threats, analze vulnerablities, assess risk, apply countermeasures

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10
Q

Who initiates covered wagons?

A

SFS

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11
Q

How are covered wagons reported?

A

voice report

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12
Q

Who cancels covered wagons

A

CC

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13
Q

What all needs to be included in a training script?

A

an emergency management situation
2 EAMs
1 report
minimum 4 situations

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14
Q

How many EA test do you have to fail in 3 months to be decertified?

A

3

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15
Q

What months are exercise scenarios?

A

Jan, Apr, Jun, Aug, Nov

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16
Q

What months are actual scenarios?

A

Feb, May, Jul, Oct, Dec

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17
Q

How many times do you have to be decertified in a 6 month period to be evaluated for removal?

A

2

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18
Q

How many times do you have to be decertified in a 6 month period to be removed from the career field?

A

3

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19
Q

How many days after arrival must orientation and training begin with new arrivals?

A

5 unless taking FTAC immediately before

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20
Q

When must training be received if not present for training meeting?

A

within 5 calender days of returning to duty

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21
Q

If a person is gone from training for 59 days or less when must they review and make up training?

A

Within 10 calender days of returning to duty

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22
Q

Operational and ANG CP will have how many certified controllers on shift at all times?

A

2

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23
Q

Non operational CP will have how many certified controllers on shift at all times?

A

1

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24
Q

Specialized Command and Control Elements may be manned with a minimum of how many controllers?

A

1

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25
What will cause an AFSC to be changed to a 9 series?
Being unable to work rotating shifts for more than 1 year, not maintaining a deployable status for more than 2 continuous periods, not agreeing to work nuclear mission.
26
What all does the superintendent do for a possible retrainee?
Review the member's SURF, last 5 EPRs, Fitness report, and a face-to-face interview.
27
Who does the superintendent forward a retraining package to?
MAJCOM functional manager who forwards it to career field manager for final approval.
28
Minimum requirements to be a superintendent?
Minimum grade of MSgt, 1C371 primary AFSC and 36 months experience.
29
Superintendent job duties (6)
1) ensure all upgrade training requirements are met prior to upgrade 2) ensure all occupational surveys are completed and returned to squadron 3) acquire and maintain mx contracts for systems and conduct and document quarterly review on contracts 4) plan for future cp requirements 5) budget for unfunded requests 6) develop, administer and train a QA program
30
Minimum requirements to be an OIC ops?
1C371 AFSC (normally next senior in rank to super), 18 months experience
31
OIC Ops responsibilites (9)
1) maintain alt cp 2) create duty schedule 3) maintain COMSEC program 4) develop checklists 5) establish cp displays 6) draft OI's 7) maintain CIFs 8) work with training OIC 9) develop, administer, maintain training QA program
32
Minimum requirements to be OIC systems?
1C351/371 AFSC
33
OIC systems requirements? (7)
1) Monitor and maintain cp systems 2) Ensure cp has all required systems 3) Attend training for system programs 4) Develop system briefing and scenarios 5) Coordinate MOA's with local comm squadrons 6) Train EMNS 7) Acquire and maintain system MX contracts
34
Minimum requirements to be OIC training?
Most qualified 1C3X1, at minimum SSgt with 6 months certified experience, completed 7 level upgrade training and minimum 3 years experience in career field.
35
How often must OIC training attend TM course?
Once every 5 years
36
Minimum qualifications to be alt OIC training?
At least 6 months experience and be a 5 level. May be a highly qualified SrA.
37
OIC Training requirements (3)
1) Develop, maintain, and administer training program 2) Assist with upgrade and qualification training 3) Be a WIT member
38
Minimum requirements to be OIC Reports?
Primary AFSC 1C351/371
39
OIC Reports requirements (6)
1) Develop reports checklists 2) Develop monthly OPREP training scenarios 3) Ensure reports function by arms control and other treaties are accomplished 4) Manage assigned treaty reporting 5) Ensure FSR reporting 6) Oversee FSR reporting program
40
Before filling the senior controller position with a 1C351 what must be sent to functional manager?
an email in monthly manning report
41
Min requirements for OIC QA title?
MSgt or above with at least 3 years experience in the career field, has been certified for 1 yr and possesses SEI 853
42
Min requirements to fill 1C3 IG position?
MSgt with 1C371 and previously attended CP MAnager's training course or have prior CP superintendent experience
43
Can an augmentee be any AFSC, officer or enlisted?
Yes
44
What is a computer generated product used to document the management of manpower resources?
Unit Manpower Document
45
How often will CP managers request a unit manpower document?
Quarterly
46
What is the difference between Unit Personnel Management Roster and the Unit Manpower Document?
Roster reflects personnel Document reflects positions
47
How often will CP managers request a unit personnel management roster?
Quarterly
48
Who makes all CFETP changes?
Enlisted Force Council
49
How often does the enlisted force council and Enlisted Development Team meet?
Twice a year
50
How often must OI's be reviewed?
Semiannully
51
How often must checklists be reviewed?
Semiannually
52
What are the 100 - 700 series titled?
100 -EM 200 - Acft 300 - Recall 400 - Security 500 - WX 600 - Nuclear 700 - Misc
53
Maximum number of initial notifications cannot exceed how many per controller?
10
54
How often must back office read and initial CIFs?
Once a week or prior to assuming shift.
55
How long must an emergency lighting system continue to work after a power loss?
2 hours
56
How often must the alt cp be set up?
semiannually, for a minimum of 2 hours
57
How often must alt activations be maintained in a file plan?
min of 2 years
58
Min facility requirements (5)
Generator, emergency lighting, cipher pad or pin badge system with remote unlocking, CCTV, entrance phone
59
What is the primary C2 authentication document?
AKAC
60
GDSS info needs to be entered no less than __ hrs prior to mission departure time?
6
61
What is CLOSE WATCH?
Procedures used to expedite the flow of essential mission info, ensures missions receive special attention
62
PHOENIX Banner supports who?
POTUS
63
PHOENIX silver supports who?
Vice pres
64
PHOENIX copper supports who?
Secret service
65
Which missions are the highest JCS priority mission flown by HQ AMC?
Phoenix banner
66
What are Close hold missions?
Highly sensitive
67
Phoenix Push missions have what?
High level interest
68
Silent Running ops are designed to permit what?
aircraft movement while minimizing transmission of comms
69
Nuclear airlift missions are designed as what?
Close watch
70
What is the baseline template for MAJCOMs to develop their specific training plans?
AF Master Training plan
71
What type of EA tests will conventional units take?
30 question open book
72
All controllers will enter training within how many calender days?
15
73
Controllers failing an EA test must be retested within how many days?
5 duty days from failure
74
How long must written exams be maintained?
12 months from the end of the month they cover
75
EA test will have a minimum of how many questions?
20
76
EA tests for conventional units will consist of how many questions?
10 open-book questions
77
How many significant deviations equal unsat?
5
78
How many minor deviations equal unsat?
10
79
How many significant and minor deviations together equal unsat?
4 significant and 7 minor
80
How soon must a controller know which AEF they are assigned to?
Within 15 days of arrival on station
81
If 3 or fewer controllers return from a deployment what must be filled out?
Deployment critique form
82
How soon must deployment critique forms be filled out?
within 30 calender days of returning to duty.
83
This type of CP is comprised of elements from 2 or more separate MAJCOMs/wings/units from the same component that merge together to share a common facility with each element responsive to the same CP managers.
Consolidated CP
84
This type of CP is comprised of elements from 2 or more separate wings/units from different components (RefAF and Reserve) that share a common facility.
Command Post Association
85
This type of CP is comprised of 2 or more separate wings/units from different components wings/units that share a common facility.
Collocated CP
86
Who exercises C2 of AF forces?
CSAF
87
Who provides positive and effect C2 of AF assets?
AFWATCH
88
What identifies mandatory and minimum requirements for entry into, award and retention of the 1C3 AFSC?
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory

SKT (6 decks)

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