Cpd Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

What does the Information Asset Security Policy provide?

A

Basis for maintaining proper operation and control

Key elements include scope, monitoring, governance, compliance, and privacy.

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2
Q

What are the key elements of the Information Asset Security Policy?

A
  • Scope
  • Monitoring and governance
  • Compliance and privacy
  • Regular updates and accessibility
  • Issue-specific policies (e.g., change management)

These elements ensure that information is properly managed and protected.

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3
Q

What is the role of Identity & Access Management?

A

Establishes user accountability and prevents unauthorized access to information systems

It ensures the right access to the right people.

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4
Q

What are the types of Physical Access Controls?

A
  • Badges
  • Security personnel
  • Guard keys
  • Locks
  • Biometrics
  • Video cameras
  • Alarm systems
  • Log register

These controls restrict entry/exit to secured areas.

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5
Q

What does Logical Access Control manage?

A

Protects information assets through job functions of users

It includes various types like mandatory, discretionary, and role-based access control.

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6
Q

Define Authentication in the context of access control.

A

Proving subjects are who they claim to be

It is checked against credentials stored in a database or directory.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of a Firewall?

A

Perimeter security for networks

It controls the flow of traffic in and out of the network.

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8
Q

What are the main functions of Firewalls?

A
  • Block access to particular sites
  • Limit traffic to relevant addresses and ports
  • Record and monitor communications
  • Encrypt packets sent within an organization

Firewalls can be hardware or software-based.

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9
Q

What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A

Extends the corporate network securely via encrypted packets

It uses public IP infrastructure for communication.

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10
Q

What are the advantages of using a VPN?

A
  • Cost-efficient
  • Increases the span of corporate network
  • Secure connection to the network

However, it may also introduce risks like malware and poor configuration.

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11
Q

What is Data Classification?

A

Inventory management of information assets to provide the required level of security

It involves identifying assets and determining the protection needed based on sensitivity.

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12
Q

What are the two main types of encryption?

A
  • Symmetric encryption
  • Asymmetric encryption

Symmetric uses a single key; asymmetric uses a public-private key pair.

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13
Q

What is Hashing?

A

Transformation of text into a fixed width length called the Digest

It ensures integrity and authenticity of the data.

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14
Q

What is the role of Digital Signatures?

A

Authenticate the origin of an encoded message

It uses the sender’s private key for encryption and public key for decryption.

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15
Q

What is Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

A

Helps overcome limitations of public key systems by confirming authenticity

It involves a trusted third party known as a Certification Authority.

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16
Q

Fill in the blank: The principle of _______ ensures that users have only the access necessary to perform their job functions.

A

least privilege

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17
Q

True or False: Asymmetric encryption uses the same key for both encryption and decryption.

A

False

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18
Q

What is the purpose of Data Loss Prevention?

A

Prevent loss/misuse of sensitive data or access by unauthorized users

It involves classification of data and determining violations.

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19
Q

What are the common uses of Asymmetric Encryption?

A
  • Digital signatures
  • Secure email
  • Blockchain
  • HTTPS web browsing

It uses two complementary keys for encryption and decryption.

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20
Q

What are common techniques for securing network infrastructure?

A
  • Personnel training
  • Segregation of Duties (SoD)
  • Monitoring access
  • Data encryption
  • Device hardening

These measures help protect communication networks.

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21
Q

What is the role of a Certification Authority in PKI?

A

Confirm authenticity during message transfer

It identifies the holder of the public key and signs it.

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22
Q

What is the difference between Symmetric and Asymmetric encryption?

A
  • Symmetric: Uses one key
  • Asymmetric: Uses a public-private key pair

Symmetric is faster but less secure; Asymmetric is more secure but slower.

25
What does COBIT stand for?
Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies.
26
What is the COBIT Framework?
A framework for IT Governance and Management.
27
What are the objectives of COBIT?
Align IT with business goals, ensure risk management and compliance, support value creation from IT investments, and improve IT service delivery.
28
What was COBIT 1.0 focused on?
Auditing.
29
What major update did COBIT 2019 introduce?
Updated for Digital Transformation.
30
What is one principle of COBIT?
Meeting stakeholder needs.
31
What are the components of COBIT?
Framework, Processes, Enablers, Goals Cascade.
32
What are the domains of COBIT?
Evaluate, Direct and Monitor (EDM), Align, Plan and Organize (APO), Build, Acquire and Implement (BAI), Deliver, Service and Support (DSS), Monitor, Evaluate and Assess (MEA).
33
What is the relevance of COBIT in audits?
Ensures IT control and compliance, provides audit checkpoints, maps risk with control objectives, and supports compliance with ISO 27001.
34
What does ISO/IEC 27000 family focus on?
International standards for Information Security Management.
35
What is the key objective of ISO/IEC 27000?
Establish and maintain an Information Security Management System (ISMS).
36
Which standard in the ISO 27000 series is certifiable?
ISO/IEC 27001.
37
What is a core concept in ISO/IEC 27001?
ISMS – Framework for managing information security.
38
What does the PDCA cycle stand for?
Plan-Do-Check-Act.
39
What is the main goal of an ISMS?
Protecting information assets.
40
What is the primary focus of ISO/IEC 38500?
IT governance and oversight.
41
What are the six principles of good IT governance?
Responsibility, Strategy, Acquisition, Performance, Conformance, Human Behavior.
42
What does the 'Evaluate' function in ISO 38500 involve?
Reviewing current and future IT use.
43
What is the Information Technology Act, 2000?
Provides legal recognition for electronic transactions, digital signatures, and cybercrime laws in India.
44
What is a key provision of the IT Act?
Legal recognition of digital signatures (Section 3).
45
What was introduced in the 2008 amendments to the IT Act?
Defined new offenses such as cyber terrorism, identity theft, and phishing.
46
What is one benefit of the IT Act in the Indian context?
Boosted digital economy and fintech growth.
47
What is the primary objective of the IT Act 2000?
Provide legal recognition to electronic transactions.
48
What is emphasized in surveillance and data privacy enforcement?
Proportionality
49
What are the benefits of the IT Act in the Indian context?
Boosted digital economy and fintech growth, enabled paperless governance and online filings, created accountability for cyber offences, laid legal foundation for data protection laws and digital India.
50
What is the primary objective of the IT Act 2000?
Provide legal recognition to electronic transactions ## Footnote Options: A. Promote foreign investment, B. Provide legal recognition to electronic transactions, C. Control content on internet, D. Regulate telecom licenses
51
Which section of the IT Act was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015?
Section 66A ## Footnote Options: A. Section 65, B. Section 66B, C. Section 66A, D. Section 72A
52
Which rule deals with sensitive personal data or information under the IT Act?
IT SPDI Rules 2011 ## Footnote Options: A. IT Rules 2000, B. CERT-In Rules, C. IT Intermediary Guidelines 2021, D. IT SPDI Rules 2011 (Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules 2011)
53
The IT Act 2000 was based on which international model law?
UNCITRAL Model Law ## Footnote Options: A. OECD Cyber Guidelines, B. UNCITRAL Model Law, C. Budapest Convention, D. ISO 27001
54
Which body has the power to adjudicate cyber incidents under the IT Act?
Cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal ## Footnote Options: A. NASSCOM, B. Cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal, C. SEBI, D. RBI