CPEE Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the role of NO in VSM relaxation

A
  • Activates Guanylyl Cyclase which creates cGMP
  • cGMP activates myosin light chain phosphatase which takes a phosphate off of myosin light chain
  • Dephosphorylated myosin light chain leads to relaxation of VSM and vasodilation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drugs are the Organic Nitrates

A

-Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide dinitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nitroglycerin

A
  • Prodrug converted to NO by ALDH2 (inhibited by alcohol and some decrease in activity among asian population)
  • ALDH2 deactivation by NO leads to tolerance
  • Primary effect is venous dilation –> decreased preload
  • Reverses ST segment depression but no survival benefit in MI
  • Orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia, flushing headaches
  • Sublingual tablet for fast relief (fast effect short duration of action)
  • Patch or oral formulation for prophylaxis (longer duration of action and slower acting)
  • DON’T TAKE WITH ED drugs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Isosorbide Dinitrate

A
  • Prodrug that is converted to isosorbide mononitrate which contributes to its efficacy.
  • Longer duration of action that NTG
  • Used when NTG and Beta blockers or CCB aren’t effectively controlling Angina.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Calcium Channel Blocker Drugs

A
  • Dihydropyridines: Nifedipine

- Non-dihydropyridines: Verapamil and diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers action

A
  • Block inward flow to Calcium through voltage gated L-type Channels
  • Verapamil and diltizem work at nodal tissue (decrease heart rate) as well as cardiac and VSM
  • Dilators on coronary and peripheral VSM –> decrease in preload
  • Prophylaxis (due to long duration of action) to reduce NTG consumption.
  • Useful in Vasospasm seen in Prinzmetal angina.
  • Efficacy in treating angina = to beta-blockers, but no survival benefit.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nifedipine

A
  • Dihydropyrimidine
  • Causes reflex tachycardia so it shouldn’t be used
  • Less depression of myocardial contractility and minimal effects on SA node
  • CYP 3A4 (avoid grapefruit juice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Diltiazem and Verapamil

A
  • Same action as Nifedipine with added SA and AV node effects (decreased heart rate and contractility)
  • less potent vasodilators
  • Diltiazem produces less cardiac depression and is generally tolerated better than Verapamil.
  • DONT USE IN SICK SINUS SYNDROME OR AV NODAL BLOCK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adverse effects of Nifedipine, Diltiazem and Verapamil

A
  • Bradyarrhythmias (VER and DIL)
  • Reflex Tachy (NIFE)
  • Cardiac Depression (VER and DIL)
  • Flushing with peripheral edema (NIFE)
  • Constipation in geriatrics (Ver)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Beta-Blockers

A

-Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Propranolol

A
  • Beta blocker
  • Decreases: HR, Contractility, Systemic BP
  • Works by decreasing afterload
  • Decreases mortality by decreasing sudden cardiac death
  • Goal is to get resting HR at 55bpm and upper limit is 110 bpm
  • Not useful in Prinzmetal due to unopposed alpha 1 activity
  • Reduces frequency and severity of stable angina attacks
  • Can precipitate acute M.I. after sudden withdrawl
  • Don’t use with B1 agonists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ranolazine

A
  • Antianginal effects w/o changing heart rate or Blood pressure
  • Stops Calcium overload in ischemic myocytes by inhibiting sodium influx which is later exchanged for calcium
  • Prophylaxis against angina
  • Used for refractory angina because it prolongs QT interval.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1st line Antihypertensives

A

Thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, CCBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3rd line Antihypertensives

A

Beta blockers, Loop diuretics, Alisikiren, Alpha 1 blockers,, vasodilators, Centrally acting alpha-2 agonists, Reserpine, Aldosterone antagonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thiazide

A
  • Chlorthalidone
  • Anti hypertensive not hypotensive
  • Initially increase renal secretion of Na+ and H20 but TPR increases due to sympathetic reflex and activation of RAAS
  • Later on decrease TPR, probably lack of sodium –> altered Na/Ca exchange in VSM
  • No change in HR or CO
  • Low dose mono therapy for stage I (10-15mmHg 4-6 weeks after onset of therapy)
  • reduce Na retention caused by vasodilators
  • Partially effective in volume dependent HTN
  • Hypokalemia, Hyperuricemia, ED
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Loop Diuretics

A
  • Furosemide
  • mostly malignant HTN and volume dependent patients w/ renal disease
  • Ototoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RAS System drugs

A
  • Captopril (ACE inhibitor)
  • Losartan (ARB)
  • Eplerenone (Aldosterone agonists)
  • Aliskiren (Renin inhibitors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ACE inhibitor

A
  • Captopril
  • Inhibits Ang I –> Ang II conversion decrease TPR
  • Antihypertensive (effective even in patients with normal PRA)
  • First dose phenom
  • Doesnt interfere with cardiovascular reflexes or bronchial asthma.
  • Reduce risk of HTN associated cardiovascular mortality
  • hyperkalema, cough, angioedema, teratogenicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ARBs

A
  • Losartan
  • AT1 receptor antagonists
  • Alternative for patients who don’t like ACEI
  • No cough or angioedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Aldosterone antagonists

A
  • Eplerenone
  • selective aldosterone antagonist (more selective in this regard than spironolactone)
  • Promotes Na and H2O excretion in kidney
  • Prevent reverse cardiac remodeling
  • Used for additional decrease in BP in Pts taking ACEI or ARB
  • HYPERKALEMIA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Direct Renin inhibitor

A
  • Aliskiren
  • Blocks angiotensinogen –> ATI
  • Used alone or in combo
  • hyperkalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers

A

Nifedipine, Verapamil, Diltiazem

  • Blocks voltage gated L-Ca channels in VSM –> decrease TPR
  • Ver and Dil slow HR
  • First line for mild to mod HTN
  • Nif used for PAH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vasodilators

A

Nitroprusside, Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Epoprostenol, Bosentan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nitroprusside

A
  • Decomposes to release NO w/ enzyme (no tolerance)
  • Arterial and venous dilation
  • Immediate effect with short DOA (unstable and light sensitive in solution)
  • Produces CN- that is metabolized in liver by rhodanase (thiosulfate antidote)
  • Hypertensive emergencies, hypotensive during surgery, need to give furosemide to avoid edema
  • Excessive vasodilation and hypotension, cyanide, hypothyroidism (thiocynate accumulations)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Hydralizine
- ARTERIOLAR dilation to decrease TPR - High first pass metabolism, NAT-2 inactivates drugs (slow acetylators) - SEVERE HTN 3rd line, HTN crisis - Combo w/ isosorbide dinitrate for CHF/HTN in AA - Reflex tachy, lupus like syndrome in slow acetylators
26
Minoxidil
- Arterial Dilation via K+ efflux --> membrane hyperpolarization - Reflex increase in HR and contractility - Prodrug, liver --> minoxidil sulfate - Seldom used unless extreme HTN due to side effects - Rogaine - Edema due to Na and H2O retention (diuretic), Pericardial effusion, Reflex tachycardia (beta blocker), Hypertrichosis
27
Prostacyclin
- Epoprostenol - Mimics endogenous PGI2 on VSM, binds to GPCR and stimulates cAMP synthesis - Vascular relaxation, suppresses VSM growth, inhibits platelet agg. - used in PAH to increase short term survival - Flushing, headache, nausea, increased risk of bleeding
28
Endothelin-1 Antagonist
- Bosentan - Endothelin 1 is endothelial derived vasoconstrictor peptide (POTENT) - induces inflammation, fibrosis, and prolif of VSM, levels elevated in PAH - Antagonist at ETa and ETb receptors - PAH treatment but use limited due to toxicity
29
Sympatholytics
-Clonidine and methyldopa
30
Centrally acting Alpha 2 adrenergic agonists
- Clonidine - Decrease sympathetic outflow, pre-synaptic alpha 2a receptors in medulla decreased CO and TPR - produces compensatory sodium and H2O retention - Antihypertensive for patients who haven't responded to other drugs - Sedation, dry mouth, sex dysfunction, postural hypotension - abrupt withdrawal symptom
31
Methyldopa
- -> Methyl-NE - similar to clonidine but no rebound effect, hemolytic anemia - use during pregnancy
32
Beta-Blockers
- Propranolol, metoprolol, atenolol (last 2 are cardioselective) - Reduces CO (initial decrease in BP) - Inhibits beta-1 mediated release of renin - CNS reduces sympathetic outflow - no longer recommended unless there is a specific indication (MI, CHF, SIHD) or intolerance to first line agents - Less effective in AA and geriatrics - Brady, bronchoconstriction, reduced exercise capacity, sex dysfunction
33
Alpha Blockers
- Terazosin - Block Alpha 1 on VSM - Salt and water retention - Used as antiHTN add on - first dose effect, reflex tachy, nasal congestion, inhibition of eject
34
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors: MOA and effects
- Atorvastatin (Lipitor) - Compet inhib of HMG CoA reductase (rate limiting step in cholesterol synth) - Increase LDL hepatic receptors --> increased removal of LDL - enhance clearance and production of LDL precursors (VLDL IDL) - 20-55% dec LDL - 20% dec Triglycerides - 5-10% incr HDL - 1st line hypercholesterolemia due to elevated LDL
35
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors: Potential cardioprotective effects, PK, drug interactions, Adverse effects
-Cardioprotective effects: Dec C-Reactive protein -Anti inflam -Enhance NO synth -Stabilize plaque -Reduce lipoprotein agg -reduce plate agg Pharmkinects: Orally, at night, extensive 1st pass metabolism, excreted by liver into bile Drug interactions: Other statins Adverse effects: GI irritation, headache and rash, hepatotoxicity, myopathy (creatine phosphokinase) NO PREGNANCY!
36
Fibric Acids: MOA and effects
- Fenofibrate - agonists at PPAR-alpha - Inc. FA Oxidation - Inc. act of lipoprotein lipase - Reduce expression ApoC-III --> inc. clearance of VLDL - ApoA-I and ApoA-II expression --> inc. HDL levels - Inhib of coag and incr. fibrinoylsis - Total effects: Dec. VLDL lowering Triglycerides and incr. HDL
37
Fibric Acids: Uses, PK, Drug interactions, and adverse effects
- Fenofibrate - Uses: - Type III hyperlipoproteinemai - Severe Hypertriglyceridemia (risk for pancreatitis) - Hypertriglyceridemia with low HDL - PK: absorbed rapidly and efficiently, T1/2 1-20 hrs, excreted as glucuronides - Interactions: warfarin effects may be incr., w/ statins myositis and myopathy - Adverse Effects: GI disturbances, skin rash, utricaria, hair loss, myalgias, fatigue and headache - NO PREGNANCY RENAL AND HEPATIC FAILURE
38
Bile Acid Binding Resins
- Colesevelam - Prevents bile acid reabsorption in the intestines --> incr. breakdown of hepatic cholesterol to bile acids - Also increases hepatic LDL receptors like statins, but accompanied by increase in HMG CoA activity - Lower LDL levels (10-20%) with a small increase in HDL levels (5%) - Familial or primary hypercholesterolemia w/ very high LDL usually used with Statin - Not absorbed after oral administration stays in GI tract - Bloating, dyspepsia, and Constipation, steatorrhea
39
Niacin: MOA
- Inhibits lipolysis of TGs in adipose tissue which reduces hepatic TG synthesis - Inhibits both the synthesis and esterification of FA's which leads to decrease of TG synthesis. Dec. TG synthesis --> dec. Hepatic VLDL production --> decreased LDL - Decreases fractional clearance of HDL ApoA-I (makes HDL)
40
Niacin: Effects, uses, PK, and Adverse effects
- Effects: rapidly lowers TG levels, more gradual lowering of LDL levels, increases HDL - Uses: Hypertriglyceridemia and elevate LDL, useful in patients with Hypertriglyceridemia and low HDL - PK: Readily absorbed in all part of intestinal tract, short T1/2, metabolized in the liver and excreted unchanged - Adverse effects: Myopathy, flush, GI disturbances, Hepatic toxicity, ulcer, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia - Pregnancy, hepatic disease, ulcer, arthritis
41
Ezetimibe (Zetia)
- Inhibits intestinal absorption of cholesterol, reabsorption of cholesterol excreted in bile, inhibits cholesterol transport protein NPC-1L1 - Primary effect is to reduce LDL levels - Primarily used with Statins but study shows no more efficacy than solo statins - Orally, feces, 22% conjugated in liver glucuronidation - + Fibrinates = increase Ezetimibe levels increase levels of cholelithiasis - + Niacin incr. levels which incr. risk of myopathies - + Warfarin = incr. prothrombin time - Diarrhea
42
Drugs used for altered automaticity
-Na+ and Ca+ channel blockers (Reduce phase 4 depolarization rate and reduce excitability)
43
Drugs used for EAD
-Reduce K+ channel blockers or and Na+ and Ca+ channel blockers (increase rate of repolarization or suppress depolarization)
44
Drugs for DAD
-Na+ or Ca+ channel blockers (reduce Ca+ overload)
45
Reentry Fast tissue
-Na+ channel blockers (Decrease excitability and prolong refractory period) K+ channel blocker (prolong APD and prolong refractory period)
46
Reentry Slow tissue
-Ca+ Channel blockers (decrease excitability and prolong refractory period)
47
Class IA antiarrhythmics
Na+ channel blockers with 1-10 second dissociation. - Moderate reduction in rate of depolarization and conduction velocity in normal cells - Prolong refractory period and APD (K+ effect) - Widen QRS and QT - Low [K+] leads to increased pro arrhythmic effects
48
Quinidine
- Class IA - Blocks Na+ and K+ channels - Alpha adrenergic blockade - Anticholinergic - Maintain Sinus rhythm in A fib and A flutter - Suppresses supraventricular and ventricular tachycardias - Prolongs QT --> incr. risk of torsades - Incr. levels of digoxin
49
Procainamide
- Class IA - N-Acetyl procainamide blocks K+ but not Na+ channels which prolongs QT leading to Torsades - Lupus like syndrome in slow acetylators
50
Disopyramide
- Class Ia - Stronger anti-cholinergic effects than quinidine - Neg. Inotropic effects (Bad in CHF)
51
Class Ib Antiarrhythmics
- Na+ channel blockers - Fast dissociation (less than 1 second) - Minimal phase 0 and conduction velocity reduction in normal cells. (Functions more on ischemic cells
52
Lidocaine
- Class Ib - Selective for ventricular over atrial cells - Acute IV therapy for ventricular arrhythmias after MI (Not effective against Atrial arrhythmias - Seizures with rapid IV administration - Depression of Cardiac function - Local anesthetic
53
Class IC
- Very long dissociation (greater than 10 seconds) - marked effect on rate of phase 0 depolarization and conduction in normal cells - small effect on APD and refractory period - Widens QRS and prolongs PR and QT intervals
54
Flecainide
- Class Ic - Blocks Na+ channels (selective for cells with a high rate but also blocks cells with a normal rate more than class Ia and Ib - Blocks K+ channels (prolongs refractory periods) - Suppresses Suprvent tachyarrhythmias - Life threatening vent arrhythmias - increases mortality in patients recovering from MI - Blurred vision - Proarrhythmic especially in the presence of severe heart disease - Blocks Ca + channels and suppresses LV function
55
Propafenone
- Class IC - Beta-adrenergic blockade - flecainide and propafenone are metabolized by CYP2D6 but only propafenone levels are increased in the blood in slow CYP2D6 metabolizers
56
Class II
- Beta Blockers - Metroprolol - Blocks Beta-1 adrenergic receptor regulated activity of Ca++ and K+ channels in myocardium - Blocks sympathetic influence on cardiac automaticity - Blocks sympathetic induced EAD and DAD - Increases refractory period at AV node (incr. PR interval) - Decreases mortality after MI (only other drug amiodarone) - SA and AV node block - Sudden withdrawal may worsen angina and arrhythmias - Decrease vent. function
57
Class III
``` -K+ Channel blockers (prolong APD) MECHANISM: -Blocks K+ leading to prolonged refractory period -Blocks Na+ channels Decreased excitability -Blocks Ca++ channels -Prolongs PR, QRS and QT intervals USES: -Refractory vent tachycardia or fib -Maintain sinus rhythm in a fib SIDE EFFECTS: Pulmonary fibrosis with long-term use Thyroid dysfunction (Hypo or Hyper) Other: Lipophilic long half life Many drug interactions due to inhibition of CYP 3A4 2C9 and P-glycoprotein ```
58
Sotalol
- Class III K+ Channel blocker - Non-selectiv Beta blocker that also blocks K+ channels - Approved for patients with vent tachy, severe a flutter, or a fib - Torsades in overdose
59
Dofeltilide
Class III K+ channel blocker - Potent and pure K+ channel blocker (no extra cardiac effects) - Restricted distribution to main sinus rhythm in patient w/ A fib - Torsades
60
Class IV
-Ca++ Channel blockers -Verapamil MECHANISM: -Blocks Ca++ Channels and decreases slow tissue automaticity and excitability -Effects similar to Beta-blockers -Depresses AV node conduction USES: -Control vent rate in atrial flutter fib -Supravent tachy due to AV node reentry EFFECTS: -Depresses Cardiac force of contraction (NO CHF) -Constipation most common side effect OTHER: -Interaction with other drugs that inhibit AV and SA node (beta blockers and digoxin)
61
Adenosine
``` MECHANISM: -Stimulates A1 GCPR --> Dec cAMP -Activate K channels in SA and AV leading to Hyperpolarization -Reduces AV node Ca++ currents -Increases PR interval USES: -Acute termination of AV node reentry -WPW syndrome (don't use with A FIB) Effects: -Relatively safe due to short action, brief asystole -Flushing and metallic taste Other: -IV -Inactivated by adenosine deaminase -interaction with caffeine ```