CPT Exam Flashcards
(281 cards)
1
Q
OPT model stages
SSP
A
- Stabilization
- Strength
- Power
2
Q
5 training phases
SSH MSP
A
Stabilization, strength, hypertrophy, max strength, power
3
Q
Phases that have super sets
A
Phase 2 and phase 5
4
Q
Three parts of a neuron
C BAD
A
Cell body
Axon
Dentrites
5
Q
Three joint motions
SSR
A
Spin, slide, roll
6
Q
Skeletal system function
SPM BP SM
A
Shape Protection Movement Blood production Store minerals
7
Q
Layers of muscle
A
Epimysium, Perimysium, Endomysium
8
Q
Slow twitch fibers
A
Type 1,
1: Increased oxygen
2: Smaller
3: less force
4: Slow fatigue
9
Q
Fast twitch fibers
A
Type 2
1: Less oxygenBlood vessels2: larger
3: more force
4: fast fatigue
10
Q
Muscle spindle
A
1: change In length
2: Stretch reflex
3: Cause contraction
11
Q
Golgi Tendon Organ
A
1: attach to tendons
2: senses change in muscle tension
3: Cause relaxation
12
Q
Blood flow in heart: Right Side
No O2
A
Right Atrium: received blood from whole body
Right Ventricle: thin wall pumps to lungs
13
Q
Blood flow in heart: Left Side
O2
A
Left Atrium: receives blood from lungs
Left Ventricle: thick walls pumps blood to body
14
Q
Blood vessels
AACVV
A
Arteries Arterioles Capillaries Venules Veins
15
Q
Blood functions
TRANSPORT:
OWH TO CARRY: H, T, C, FIGHTS
A
1: Transport Oxygen
2: Transport waste
3: Transport hormones
4: Carries heat
5: Regulates temp
6: clotting protects leaving
7: fights disease in Sickness
16
Q
ATP-PC
10- F NO S HIT
A
1: 10-15 sec
2: Fastest
3: No-O
4: Short
5: High intensity
17
Q
Glycolysis
30 C M
A
1: 30-50 sec
2: Use carbs
3: medium duration
18
Q
Oxidative system:
O slow but LD
A
1: Oxidative
2: Slow process
3: Long duration
19
Q
3 oxidative systems:
A sugar K cycle to ETC
A
Aerobic glycolysis
Krebs cycle
Electron transport chain (ETC)
20
Q
Respiratory quotient
A
RQ of .7 =100% fat
RQ of 1 = 100% carbs
21
Q
Sagittal plane: bow to crown:
Examples of other sagittal plane exercises include triceps pushdowns, front lunges, walking/running, vertical jumping, calf raises, and climbing stairs.
A
Motion: Flexion/extension
Axis: Coronal
22
Q
Frontal plane: lateral raises and lateral leg raises,
Abduct lat fle to Iverson and reverse
to what movemet?
A
Motion: Abduction/adduction , Lateral flexion,
Eversion/inversion
Axis: Anterior/posterior
23
Q
Transverse plane: Clamshell. Standing Clamshell. Twisting Lunges. Side Plank with Rotation. Forward Plank Knee to Opposite Elbow.
A
Motion: Internal/external rotation, Left/right rotation, Horizontal abduction/adduction
Axis: Longitudinal
24
Q
Estimated HR:
A
220- age
25
HR training zones:
| Freeway by 10
1: 65% to 75%
2: 76% to 85%
3: 86% to 95%
26
Pronationdistortion tight/overactive muscles:
| GSP AIHB
```
Gastrocnemius
Soleus
Peroneals
Adductors
Iliotibial head
Hip flexor complex
Bicep femoris ( short)
```
27
Pronationdistortion weak/under-active muscles:
AP Ant V GMM Hex
```
Anterior tibialis
Posterior tibialis
Vastus medialis
Gluteus medius/maximus
Hip external rotators
```
28
Lower crossed tight/overactive muscles:
GS HFC ALE
lower back curvature
```
Gastrocnemius Soleus
Hip flexor complex
Adductors
Latissimus dorsi
Erector Spinae
```
29
Lower crossed weak/under active muscles:
| bi shin, but lucy med tran in
```
Anterior tibialis
Posterior tibialis
Gluteus maximus
Lucius Medius
Transverse abdominis
Internal oblique
```
30
Upper Crossed tight muscles:
| UT LSSS LAT tres MAJOR SUB PEC UP AND LOW
```
Upper trapezius
Levator scapulae
Sternocleidomastoid
Scalene
Latissimus dorsi Teres
major Subscapularis
Pec major/minor
```
31
Upper Crossed weak muscles:
Deep C/S serra Ant Mid Trap to Low, 3- Infra S
```
Deep cervical flexors
Serratus
Anterior Rhomboids
Mid trapezius
Lower trapezius
Teres minor
Infraspinatus
```
32
Over head squat- feet turn out tight/overactive muscles:
| BF SLG
Soleus
Lateral gastrocnemius
Biceps femoris (short)
33
Over head squat- feet turn out weak/underactive muscles:
Middle
M g M h GSPop
```
Medial gastrocnemius
Medial hamstring
Grasilis,
Sartorius,
Popliteus
```
34
Overhead squat Knees move in Tight/overactive muscles:
Add C, B Fem, TFL, Vas Lat
Adductor complex
Bicep femoris (short)
Tensor fascia latae
Vastus lateralis
35
Overhead Squat Knees move in weak/underactive muscles:
Gluteus Medius/Maximus Vastus Medialis oblique
36
OHS Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex leans forward tight muscles:
| Calfs, H flex abs complex
Soleus
Gastrocnemius
Hip flexor complex
Abdominal complex
37
OHS Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex leans forward weak muscles:
| AGE
Anterior tibialis
Gluteus maximus
Erector Spinae
38
OHS low back arches tight/overactive muscles:
| H flex ES LD
Hip flexor complex
Errector Spinae
Latissimus dorsi
39
OHS low back arches weak muscles:
G H complex, In
Gluteus maximus
Hamstring complex
Intrinsic core stabilizers
40
OHS arms fall forward tight muscles:
Lat 3s, chest up and down
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Pec major/minor
41
OHS arms fall forward weak muscles:
Mid/lower traps
| RTC
42
OHS what to view:
Anteriorly:
Feet, ankles and knees
Laterally:
LPHC, , shoulder and cervical complex
43
BMI for overweight/Obese:
Overweight:25.0 - 29.99
Obese: 30.0 - 34.99
44
Cumulative injury cycle:
TTIMSpas A ANCMim
1: tissue trauma
2: inflammation
3: muscle spasms
4: adhesions
5: Altered neuromuscular control
6: Muscle imbalance
7: repeat
45
Integrated flexibility continuum:
| CAF
Corrective (SMR and static stretching)
Active (SMR and active isolated stretching)
Functional (SMR and dynamic stretching)
46
Recommended exercise for adults:
150 minutes of moderate intensity or 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic exercise.
47
cardiovascular training for general health:
60% of Max oxygen consumption
48
FITTE Principles:
Frequency Intensity Time Type Enjoyment
49
```
Local stabilization system muscles ( type I slow twitch)
Tran ab
In Ob
Lumbar M
P Floor with D
```
```
Transverse of Abdominis
Internal oblique
Lumbar multi fidus
Pelvic floor muscles
Diaphragm
```
50
Best core exercise for beginner:
Prone ISO Ab: Plank
51
Core musculature:
near/far move
Local stabilization system
Global stabilization system
Movement system
52
Stabilization exercises:
1: Involve no lower body joint movement
2: Balance power include a “hop”
3: Balance strength involve bending at hip or knee
53
Proprioceptively challenging equipment:
1: Floor
2: Balance beam
3: Half foam roll
4: Foam pad
5: Balance disk
6: Wobble board
7: Bosu ball
54
Three phases of plyometric training:
1: Eccentric 2:amortization 3:Concentric/loading
| Loading/time between/unloading
55
Three phases general adaptation syndrome:
1. Alarm reaction
2: Resistance development
3: Exhaustion
56
5 resistance training adaptations:
1. stabilization
2. muscle endurance
3. muscle hypertrophy
4. strength
5. power
57
Resistance training systems:
```
Single set
Multiple set Pyramid
Superset
Drop set
Circuit training Peripheral heart action
Split routine
A vertical loading Horizontal loading
```
58
Acute variables of training:
```
Repetition
Set
Training intensity Rep tempo
Rest interval
Training volume
Training frequency
Training duration
Exercise selection
```
59
ATP recovery:
| 3,4,6,3
20-30 sec = 50%
40sec=75%
60sec=85%
3min=100%
60
Program Design: endurance/stabilization
| Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest
```
Reps: 12 to 20
Sets: 1-3
Intensity: 50% to 70%
Tempo: slow (4/2/1)
Rest: 0-90
```
61
Program Design: Hypertrophy
| Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest
```
Reps: 6 to 12
Sets:3to5
Intensity: 70% to 85%
Tempo: moderate (2/0/2)
Rest: 0-60 sec
```
62
Program Design Max strength:
| Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest
```
Reps: 1-5
Sets: 4-6
Intensity: 85% to 100%
Tempo: fast
Rest: 3 to 5 min
```
63
Program Design: Power:
| Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest
```
Reps: 1-10
Sets: 3-6
Intensity: 35% to 45%
Tempo: fast
Rest: 3-5 min
```
64
Training Zone Targets
Zone 1: builds aerobic base and aids in recovery
Zone 2: increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance
Zone 3: Builds High end work
65
How do you figure out Cardiac Output
heart rate x stroke volume
66
Protein intake:
```
Sedentary = .4g/lb
Strength = .5=.8g/lb
Endurance = .5- .6g/lb
```
67
Amino acids:
20 total 8 essential
68
Recommended macros:
Pro: 10% to 35%
Carb: 45% to 65%
Fat: 20% to 35%
69
Macro calories:
Pro: 4 cal/gram
Carb: 4 cal/gram
Fat: 9 cal/gram
Alcohol: 7 cal/gram
70
Fluid recommendations:
6-12 oz every 15-20 min of exercise
| 16-24 oz / lb post exercise.
71
Common vitamins with adverse effects when consumed in excess:
ZIDA
Zinc
Iron
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
72
5 stages of change:
| PC PAM
```
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance
```
73
SMART goals:
```
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timely
```
74
How do you calculate BMI?
weight x 703 divided by height in inches
75
BMI healthy, over, obese
18-24.9, 25-29.9 and 30+
76
Cholesterol?
Ideal: 200mg Borderline: 239 mg and High Risk 240
77
The kinetic chain (human movement system) is composed of what
components?
Nervous, muscle and skeletal system
78
What are the three primary functions of the nervous system and what
do they do?
Sensory, integrative, motor functions
79
What is a neuron?
functional unit of the nervous system
80
What are the three types of neurons and what do they do?
sensory- respond to touch
interneurons-transmit nerve impulses between neurons
Motor- transmit nerve impulses from brain/spine to muscle
81
What two types of divisions make up the skeletal system? What are they made up of?
Axial/Appendicular
Axial: skull, spine, ribs - 80 bones
Appendicular: Upper/lower ext. shoulder girdles/pelvic
82
What are the function(s) of bones?
leverage and support
83
What are the most common joints associated with human movement?
Synovial joints- 80%
84
Joint motion is referred to as:
Arthrokinematics
85
Which layer of connective tissue lies underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle?
Epimysium
86
Which layer of connective tissue is considered the “deep fascia” and is the outermost layer?
Endomysium
87
ligaments
fibrous connective tissue connect bone to bone; provide static and dynamic stability; proprioception
88
Tendon
attache bone to muscle
89
Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds? sugar
Glycosis
90
What of the following is responsible for movement of bone AROUND a joint?
Torque
91
What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?
Cardiac Output
92
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?
Precursor to hormone production: Lipids form the basis of certain hormones.
93
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?
Altered reciprocal inhibition: when one is muscle is continually contracted or overactive, then the opposing muscle is continually relaxed or underactive, then this principle is said to be altered.
94
What is a side effect of caffeine use?
An increase in urine production.
EXPLANATION
Caffeine is related to methylxanthine compounds which have been recognized as increasing blood flow to the kidneys and having mild to moderate diuretic effect.
95
Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?
30 min: Timing of post activity nutrition is vital to optimal recovery. It is recommended to consume 1.5 g/kg of carbs within 30 minutes of exercise to maximize glycogen replenishment
96
Timing of post activity nutrition is vital to optimal recovery. It is recommended to consume 1.5 g/kg of carbs within 30 minutes of exercise to maximize glycogen replenishment
70%:
Resting metabolic rate is the total number of calories burned when your body is at rest, which accounts for a large portion of total calories. Most studies agree that RMR accounts for approximately 70% of total calories.
97
Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?
Pushing/pulling assessments
98
Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?
Decreased lean body mass
99
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
Reciprocal inhibition
EXPLANATION
Dynamic stretching using active muscles contractions to move the body through range of motion. The active contraction of one muscle will inhibit the functional antagonist. This is called reciprocal inhibition
100
An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this individual?
Action
EXPLANATION
The action stage lasts until a behavior has been consistently practiced for up to six months in most cases. Then, the client will move to the maintenance stage.
101
If a client's knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?
Adductors
EXPLANATION
Knees moving in or knee valgus is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. Possible short/overactive muscles include the adductor complex, TFL, and vastus lateralis (VL). A client that demonstrates the knee valgus compensation should perform foam rolling on one or all of the short/overactive muscles.
102
Which of the following muscles aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?
Pectoralis Minor
103
agonist
prime mover
104
synergist
assist to prime mover
105
stabilizer
stabilizes joint in movement
106
antagonist
relax; allow prime mover to work efficiently
107
What is the agonist muscle in a chest press?
pectoralis major
108
What is the synergist muscle in a chest press?
anterior delt, tricep
109
What is the synergist muscle in an overhead press?
triceps
110
What is a stabilizer muscle in a chest press? ligament
rotator cuff
111
The cardiorespiratory system is made up of which two elements?
cardiovascular and respiratory systems
112
What is the function of the atrium? superior
receives blood from veins to ventricles
113
What is the function of the ventricle?inferior
receives blood from atrium and forces blood to arteries
114
Which chamber of the heart gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
left atrium
115
stroke volume
amount of pumped out of heart with each contraction
116
heart rate
rate at which heart pumps
117
Cardiac ouput
heart rate x stroke volume; overall performance of heart
118
Average resting heart rate for untrained adult
70-80 bpm
119
The average stroke volume of an adult is ____________mL
120
120
How many support mechanisms of blood are there?
_________________
a. What three categories can they be broken down into?
1.
2.
3.
3 mechanisms
| transportion, regulation, protection
121
The largest artery in the body is the?
aorta
122
A closed circuit of hollow tubes that allow blood to be transported to
and from the heart are called:
blood vessels
123
There are three major blood vessels types. List them and describe what they do:
1.
2.
3.
1. arteries: carry blood away from heart
2. capillaries: site for water/chemical exchange
3. veins: carry blood back to heart
124
# Fill in the diagram of the structure of the respiratory pump:
bones: SRV
muscles: DE SSP
expiration: II six pack
bones: sternum, ribs, vertabrae
muscles: diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastod, pectorialis minor
expiration: internal intercostals, abs
125
What is the respiratory pump?
bones, muscles that work together to allow proper respiratory mechanics and help pump blood back to the heart
126
# Define the following anatomical terms:
a. Superior:
b. Inferior:
c. Proximal:
d. Distal:
e. Anterior:
f. Posterior:
g. Medial:
h. Lateral:
i. Contralateral:
j. Ipsilateral:
a. above point of reference
b. below point of reference
c. positioned nearest center of body
d. farthest from point of reference
e. front of body
f. behind
g. position towards middle
h. position towards outside of body
i. opposite of body
j. same side of body
127
The sagittal plane bisects the body into __________________________________
and produces ________________ and __________________ movements.
right to left
flexion and extension
128
The frontal plane bisects the body into __________________________________
and produces ________________ and __________________ movements
posterior/anterior
adduction/abductions, eversion/inversion, lateral flexion
129
Definition of : tonic/metric
tonic: tension
metric: length
130
What is a force-couple relationship?
muscles that work together to produce movement around a joint
131
Arterioles branch out into blood vessels known as what?
capillaries
132
First, second, third class levers?
1. fulcrum in the center: nob of head
2. fulcrum either side; full body calf raise/push up
3. fulcrum in the middle of effort/resistance: bicep curl
133
What does PAR-Q stand for?
Physical Activity Readiness Questionaire
134
Two important areas for the personal trainer to focus on are the
relevant answers provided about a client’s _____________________________
and _____________________________________.
Occupation and general lifestyle traits
135
which two factors make up an individuals speed?
stride rate and stride length
136
During a stretch was is happening to sarcomeres?
Lengthening
137
What is the gastrocnemius responsible for concentrically accelerating?
plantar flexion
138
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?
Gluteous maximus
139
When performing an overhead squat assessment from the anterior
view, which area should the fitness professional focus on?
Feet, ankles, knees
140
Which of the following is considered objective information?
body composition testing
141
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
shark skill test
142
Resting anthropometric measurements include:
height, weight, waist and hip circumference
143
Medication for:
1. high blood pressure
2. congestive heart failure
1. beta blockers
| 2. nitrates
144
How long do you take a pulse for?
60 seconds
145
Typical resting heart rate falls in between _________ and ________ beats per minute
70-80 bpms
146
The average resting heart rate for a male is _________, while the average resting heart rate for a female is _________.
70 male 75 female
147
What is the process (or equation) used for the above method to find a client’s target heart rate?
220- age
148
List the three Training Zones:
Zone 1:
Zone 2:
Zone 3:
1. aerobic/recovery
2. aerobic/anaerobic
3. builds high end work capacity
149
The Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) method is also known as: __
Karvonen method
150
Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heard contracts:
blood pressure
151
Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood:
Diastolic
152
When taking a blood pressure measurement, you would inflate the cuff
to ______ to ______ mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
20-30
153
What are the four skinfold measurement sites?
bicep, tricep, subscapular scapula, Illiac crest
154
Which waist-to-hip ratio puts men and women as risk for a number of diseases?
Women: _______________________ Men: _______________________
woman: 80
men: 95
155
Which cardiorespiratory assessment involves a client walking one mile as fast as she can control?
Rockport Walk test
156
What does submaximal testing allow for?
prediction of Vo2 max
157
What is neuromuscular efficiency?
| its in the name
nervous and muscular system to be able to work properly for optimal movement
158
The alignment and function of all components of the kinetic chain at any given moment is referred to as:
posture
159
The ability of the neuromuscular system to monitor and manipulate movement during functional tasks using the least amount of stress on
the kinetic chain is:
functional efficiency
160
If a client displays lower-crossed syndrome, what muscle is most likely
overactive?
Gluteus Maximus
161
When a client is performing a single-leg squat and their knees move inward, which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
add, bi, T, VL
Adductor Complex, Biceps femoris, TFL, Vastus Lateralis
162
When a client is performing a pushing assessment and their shoulder elevates, which of the following muscles if probably overactive?
Upper Trap, Sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae
163
If a client is performing a single-leg squat assessment and their knees cave in, which two muscles would you conclude are underactive?
butt/quad
Gluteus maximus and Vastus medialis
164
During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean?
SGACHFC
Soleus, gastrocnemius, abdominal complex, hip flexor complex
165
What is the purpose of the Davie’s test?
upper body agility and stability
166
How long do you perform the pushup test?
60 seconds
167
in the Davie’s Test, how many trials do you perform? ______________
How many seconds does the client touch each side? ______________
3 trials for 15 seconds each
168
The Shark Skill test is a progression from what?
single leg squat assessment
169
Your client is performing an overhead squat postural assessment and you notice that their arms fall forward. You can conclude that their
__________ muscle is probably overactive.
back, TM and chest up and down
Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pec major/minor
170
Your client is performing an overhead squat postural assessment and you notice that their feet are turning out. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?
Medial G, HC, GAR, SAR, POP
Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, garcilis, sartorius, popliteus
171
What does the gluteus maximus concentrically accelerate?
Hip abduction and external rotation
172
What does the gluteus minimus concentrically accelerate?
Concentrically accelerates hip abduction and internal rotation
173
What does the TFL concentrically accelerate?
Hip flexion, internal rotation, abduction
174
What does the Latissimus Dorsi concentrically accelerate?
Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
175
The capability of a muscle to be elongated or stretched.
extensibility
176
The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for a full range of motion.
flexibility
177
The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all planes of motion.
neuromuscular efficiency
178
Optimal control of movement through a joint’s entire ROM.
Dynamic ROM
179
How the human movement system seeks the path of least resistance.
relative flexibility
180
What is a muscle imbalance?
alteration of a muscle length surrounding a joint
181
Golgi tendon organs cause a muscle to
relax
182
Occurs when the neural impulses sensing tension are greater than the impulses causing muscle contraction
tension over contraction .
autogenic inhibition
183
Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called:
autogenic inhibition
184
The function of the muscle spindle is to:
prevent muscles being stretched to far to fast
185
occurs when a joint is not working
| properly, and leads to altered joint motion.
arthrokinetic dysfunction
186
is the simultaneous contraction of one
| muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist.
reciprocal inhibition
187
is a neuromuscular phenomenon that
| occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover
synergistic dominance.
188
is caused by a tight agonist muscle
| decreasing drive to its functioning antagonist
altered reciprocal inhibition
189
states that soft tissues model along the
| lines of stress.
Davis's Law
190
Which type of stretching is associated with functional flexibility
Dynamic stretching
191
Corrective Flexibility
Static stretching
192
Which type of stretching is associated with active flexibility?
active isolated stretching
193
The purpose dynamic stretching is:
Increase flexibility with optimal neuromuscular control
194
Increase extensibility of soft tissues through reciprocal inhibition is what kind of stretching?
active stretching
195
This type of stretching focuses on the neural and fascial system of the body
SMR
196
The prisoner squat is an example of what type of stretching technique?
dynamic stretching
197
What is the purpose of active stretching?
extensibility of soft tissues
198
What are the acute variables of the active stretch?
1-2 sets, 5-10 repetitions
199
What is the purpose of dynamic stretching?
increase flexibility with optimal neuromuscular control
200
What are the acute variables of the dynamic stretch?
1-2 sets, 10-15 repetitions, 3-10 exercises
201
Fill in the flexibility continuum diagram:
| CAF
Corrective: static
Activie: active isolated stretching
Functional stretching: dynamic
202
The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity.
Cardiovascular training
203
NASM recommends that a cardiorespiratory warm-up last between
_______ and _______ minutes.
5 to 10 minutes
204
What does FITTE stand for?
Frequency, intensity, time, type, enjoyment
205
The highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion.
maximal oxygen consumption: vO2 max
206
The difference between resting and maximal or peak oxygen consumption.
oxygen uptake reserve
207
The point at which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.
Starbucks
ventilatory threshold
208
The Ventilatory Threshold is associated with what method for prescribing exercise intensity?
talk test
209
What is the goal of a client in a Stage II heart rate training zone?
76-85
210
What is the goal of a client in a Stage I heart rate zone?
65-75
211
Which muscle is a part of the local stabilization system?2
internal oblique
212
What level of core training exercises prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
Core strength
213
What are the characteristics of the muscles that make up the local stabilization system?
type 1, proprioception, postural control
214
What are the characteristics of the muscles that make up the global stabilization system?
transfer loads between upper and lower ext.
215
What are the characteristics of the muscles that make up the movement system?
speed up and speed down.
responsible for concentric for production and eccentric deceleration
216
The hip flexors fall into which core stabilization system?
Movement system
217
The diaphragm falls into which core stabilizing system?
Local
218
Which of the following is an example of a core-stabilization level exercise?
floor bridge
219
is a maneuver used to recruit the local core
| stabilizers by drawing the navel toward the spine.
Draw in maneuver
220
is referred to as a co-contraction of global
| muscles or “bearing down”
bracing
221
It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve the
following functional outcomes, in THIS order:
1. intervertebral stability
2. Lumbopelvic stability
3. movement efficiency
222
Which of the following is an example of a core-strength level exercise?
ball crunch
223
Which of the following is an example of a core-power level exercise?
rotational ball pass
224
List four effects of joint dysfunction:
1. muscle inhibition
2. joint injury
3. swelling
4. altered proprioception
225
balance is what 2 things
static and dynamic
226
Which is the proper progression in balance training?
floor, balance beam, half foam roller, foam pad, balance disk
227
To move efficiently, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized
(isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically)
Integrated performance paradigm
228
What are the three phases of plyometric training?
eccentric, amortization and concentric
229
The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly
agility
230
The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production.
quickness
231
synergistic dominance
when inappropriate muscles take over weak muscles
232
During a hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?
60 seconds
233
In phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise should be
completed?
3-5
234
What is the recommended intensity level for a client in phase 1 of resistance training?
50-70%
235
What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for
a client in phase 2 of the OPT model?
perform a strength exercise followed up with a stability exercise
236
What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance
training for a client in phase 4: Maximal Strength of the OPT model?
85-100% 1-3 min. rest
237
What are the recommended amounts of reps and sets for resistance training for a client in the Power level of the OPT model?
1-5 reps strength
8-10 reps power
3-5 sets
238
What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for a client in phase 4 of the OPT model?
1-3 exerises
239
push up test
push ups for 60 secs , number of push ups should increase over time
240
caffeine regarding training (ergogenic= performance)
doesnt not help for 90 secs or less sprint type effort
241
The adaptation of stabilization endurance is achieved by which of the following?
12-20 reps
| 1-3 sets
242
The goal of hypertrophy training is:
enlarge muscles
243
Approximately what percent recovery of ATP and PC will occur after 60 seconds?
85-90%
244
What type of adaptations are seen with higher volume training?
Cellular adaptations
245
What type of adaptations are seen with low volume training?
Neurologic adaptations
246
What Phases of the OPT model should be used for improving general sports performance?
Phase 1,2,5
247
_ is the amount of physical training performed
| within a specified period.
training frequency
248
is the number of training sessions performed
| in a given time period
training duration
249
is the timeframe of a workout or the length
| of time spent in one phase of training.
length of time
250
High volume work is inversely related to
intensity
251
What is the adaptation yielded from 3-5 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 75-85% intensity?
hypertrophy
252
Name a core exercise to use with a client that has hypertension
standing cable torso iso-rotation
253
Progression for the youth population should be based on:
postural control
254
A condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as
well as an increase in the space between the bones, resulting in POROSITY and fragility?
osteoporosis
255
The use of which training system would be advised for someone with
Chronic Lung Disease? favorite form of exercise
Peripheral heart action
256
A unit of energy and is defined as the amount of heat energy required
to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius.
calorie lower case C
257
Equal to 1,000 calories.
kilocalorie
258
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?
Metabolic syndrome
259
To be absorbed effectively, how should calcium supplements be taken?
with meals, throughout the day
260
How many essential amino acids are there?
20
261
What is the best method of training for a client with obstructive lung
disease? my favorite form of training
peripheral training
262
You have a client with a goal of increasing his lean body mass; which of
the following is the best recommendation for protein intake?
0.5- 0.8 g/lb
263
The most concentrated source of energy in the diet
lipids/fat
264
The chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions:
carbs
265
Name the macronutrient responsible for acting as transport for vitamins
A, D, E, and K.
lipids fat
266
How many liters of water are recommended for an adult male per day?
female
male 15.5 cups 3.7 liters
| female: 11.5 cups 2.7 liters
267
What is the recommended amount of fat that athletes are
| recommended to consume based on their caloric intake?
20-35%
268
Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates
45-65%
269
What is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to be ingested within 30 minutes of exercise in order to maximize recovery?
1.5g
270
Thermic effect of food TEF
6-10%
271
How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise?
6-12 ounces
272
How many ounces for every lb lost after exercise
16-24 ounces
273
What is the recommended number of meals per day for someone with the goal of lean mass gain?
4-6 meals
274
Average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the nutrient requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.
estimated average requirement
275
This vitamin, when taken in excess, can cause permanent damage to sensory nerves.
B6
276
This vitamin, when taken in excess, can result in the calcification of blood vessels and eventually damage the function of the kidneys, heart and lungs.
Vitamin D
277
This vitamin, when taken in excess, can cause birth defects when a woman is taking too much at conception and during early pregnancy.
Vitamin A
278
What is a potential result of consuming too much calcium?
kidney stones, constipation
279
How long do personal trainers have to make a first impression?
20 seconds
280
Physical activity accounts for approximately what percent of TEE?
20%
281
What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal?
20 hours 2.0 CEU's
