CPT Practice Exam Flashcards
1
Q
What is a prospect?
A
An individual who has been identified as a potential client
2
Q
You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy?
A
Inadequate carbohydrate intake
3
Q
What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension?
A
Standing cable hip extension
4
Q
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?
A
The group feels distinct from other people.
5
Q
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
A
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
6
Q
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?
A
Maintenance
7
Q
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?
A
Quadriceps
8
Q
Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool?
A
Sandbags
9
Q
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
A
Cable machines
10
Q
What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?
A
Proprioception
11
Q
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
A
Type I
12
Q
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
A
Posterior
13
Q
What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model?
A
Hypertrophy
14
Q
What are the basic two types of disease?
A
Chronic and acute
15
Q
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
A
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
16
Q
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
A
Stabilization-focused exercise
17
Q
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
A
Posterior chain
18
Q
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?
A
About 3,500
19
Q
What is a common cause of chronic hypertension?
A
Excess weight
20
Q
Which common cause of death is the most preventable?
A
Obesity
21
Q
What is stroke volume?
A
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
22
Q
How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?
A
4
23
Q
Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?
A
Palmitic acid
24
Q
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
A
Type I
25
What are the two components of a sarcomere?
Actin and myosin
26
Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?
Autonomic nervous system
27
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
28
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
29
What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?
Sprains and plantar fasciitis
30
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
31
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
Platelets
32
Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?
Shoulder/military press
33
What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?
Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
34
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
35
At what BMI threshold does a person’s chance for obesity-related health problems increase?
30
36
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?
Medicine ball chest pass
37
Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Motivation
38
What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women?
Coronary heart disease
39
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Hip abductors
40
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?
Type II
41
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function?
Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
42
Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?
120/80 mm Hg
43
Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury?
Golgi tendon organs
44
How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?
In a neutral position
45
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?
When goals are not adjusted
46
What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body?
Medial
47
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Neuron
48
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
Resistance training
49
If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do?
The correct answer is: Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
50
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Sagittal
51
What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?
A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
52
Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes?
Insulin Resistance
53
What is the main role of a personal trainer?
Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
54
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
55
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Intensity
56
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble board
57
Which of the following is an open-ended question?
What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
58
Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down?
Increase breathing rate
59
What is glycogen?
The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
60
If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed?
Reach to their knee
61
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Anterior pelvic tilt
62
Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends?
Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.
63
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
64
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Two-arm push press
65
hat is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?
Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
66
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered movement patterns
67
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
68
According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations are considered “surface level”?
Endurance
69
Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress?
The release of endorphins
70
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
PAR-Q+
71
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Stabilize vertebral segments
72
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
Develop an appropriate aerobic base
73
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Self-myofascial techniques
74
A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases?
Phase 1
75
Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement?
Single-leg squat
76
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?
Static posture
77
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?
Strength machines
78
A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.
79
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
80
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Volume
81
When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
Sympathetic Nervous System
82
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Dynamic balance
83
Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell?
Mitochondria
84
Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?
I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
85
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?
Torque
86
What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete?
The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.
87
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
A, D, E, and K
88
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
89
Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?
Remodeling
90
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle static stretching
91
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?
Rapid amortization phase
92
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
Motivational interviewing
93
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
94
Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase?
Muscular endurance
95
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Cross-country runner
96
What is homeostasis?
A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
97
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"?
Sinoatrial node
98
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
Lower trapezius
99
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Arthrokinematics
100
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
Self-monitoring
101
What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell?
With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.
102
What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?
A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence
103
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Plyometric training
104
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
Static stretching
105
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
106
The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Macronutrient metabolism
107
Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Ball squat, curl to press
108
In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5?
Underweight
109
What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure?
Hypertension
110
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Brachial artery
111
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
Ankle sprains
112
A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?
Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.
113
If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?
165 minutes per week
114
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?
Osteokinematics
115
Having poor body image is most likely to be associated with which of the following?
Low self-esteem
116
Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
Parasympathetic nervous system
117
How is osteopenia best described?
The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
118
What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
0.85
119
Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?
Females
120
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Alveolar sacs
121
Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?
Increases intensity while decreasing volume
122
An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
123
Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways?
Self-monitoring
124
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
9
125
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
An RPE of 5 to 6
126
What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?
First class
127
What is an important step after conducting an interview with a potential employer?
Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email
128
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
129
Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective?
20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
130
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
131
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
132
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
133
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
Lower crossed syndrome
134
Balance is best described as which of the following?
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
135
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
136
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Transverse plane box jump-down
137
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
Increased ventricular filling
138
What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?
Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
139
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
Retraction
140
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
141
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
142
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
