CPTP 4.24-26 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

usual cause of AF in young

A

structural problem - valvular, heart muscle abnormality, cardiomyopathy, pericarditis

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2
Q

non cardiac causes of AF

A

acute infections (pneumonia), electrolyte depletion, lung cancer, intrathoracic pathology (e.g. pleural effusion), PE, thyrotoxicosis

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3
Q

Valvular abnormality that predisposes to AF

A

mitral stenosis - get left atrial dilation which predisposes to AF

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4
Q

4 types of AF

A

acute, paroxysmal, persistent, permanent

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5
Q

what is paroxysmal AF

A

2 or more episodes less than 48h duration.

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6
Q

what is persistent AF

A

longer than 7 days - but can be terminated with tx

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7
Q

mx of patient in AF who’s CV status is unstable

A

electrical cardioversion - synchronised DC shock.

remember heparin for thromboprophylaxis

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8
Q

is an alcoholic with cardiomyopathy and AF likely to be successfully treated with cardioversion?

A

no

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9
Q

is patient with mitral stenosis and dilated LA likely to be successfully treated with cardioversion?

A

no

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10
Q

if electrocardioversion is planned what must happen prior to this

A

anticoagulated 6w before cardioversion

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11
Q

who is suitable for rhythm control

A

AF with reversible cause
heart failure caused by AF
new onset AF
atrial flutter (suitable for ablation strategy)

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12
Q

initial monotherapy to AF patients who need rate control

A

beta blocker or rate limiting CCB

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13
Q

when is digoxin monotherapy considered

A

non paroxysmal AF patients that are sedentary

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14
Q

what should not be offered for LT rate control

A

amiodarone

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15
Q

if rate control monotherapy does not control sx?

A

consider rhythm control if eligible. if not but sx not controlled combination therapy with 2 of: a beta blocker, diltiazem, digoxin

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16
Q

what is diltiazem

A

rate limiting CCB

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17
Q

beta blockers is first line for rate control, but who is prescribed CCBs instead

A

asthmatics, COPD, PVD, tachy-brady syndrome

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18
Q

which beta blockers used

A

any except sotolol. cardioselective preferable

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19
Q

why not sotolol

A

increased risk of sudden death in IHD patients (QT prolongation)

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20
Q

chronic adverse effect of beta blockers

A

fatigue

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21
Q

are amlodipine and nifedipine good drugs in AF

A

no. CCBs must be non-dihydropyridine. diltiazem or verapamil (l type calcium channel inhibition)

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22
Q

verapamil side effect

A

constipation

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23
Q

what can precipitate digoxin toxicity

A

AKI

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24
Q

for which other patients would you also consider rhythm control

A

symptomatic patients (sob, lethargic, palpitations) or if have idea of LT anticoagulation

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25
Tx of persistent AF >48h and already on anticoagulants
electrical cardioversion (consider amiodarone pre and post)
26
tx of persistent AF >48h and not on anticoagulants
consider TOE guided cardioversion or anticoag for 3w before cardioversion
27
common tx for paroxysmal AF
pill in the pocket
28
in addition to beta blocker what drugs considered in paroxysmal AF patients with heart failure or left ventricular impairment
amiodarone
29
what should you not offer patients with known ischaemic or structural heart disease (paroxysmal AF)
1c antiarrthythmic drugs such as flecanide or propafenone
30
amiodarone administration
long line or central line as toxic to veins
31
do you attempt to correct rhythm in new AF patient
yes
32
name a class III agent
amiodarone
33
name class Ic agent
flecanide, propafenone
34
efficacy of class III vs class Ic agents
Ic more effective than amiodarone if given early (within 12h onset). by 24h no difference
35
acute adverse effects of class III and Ic agents
heart failure and hypotension
36
adverse effects of Ics in structural HD
increase risk of fatal (ventricular) arrhythmias
37
when is amiodarone given in patient who has been electo-cardioverted
6w before and up to a year after
38
chronic adverse effects of amiodarone
photosensitivity (solar urticarial rash), thyroid dysfunction, pulmonary fibrosis
39
AF complications
rate related cardiomyopathy, pulmonary oedema, shock, stroke
40
who are low risk CHADVASC patients
men with score of 0 women with score of 1
41
recommended antithrombotic therapy if chadvasc 0
either aspirin or none. none preferred
42
recommended antithrombotic therapy if chadvasc 1
OAC or aspirin. OAC preferred
43
recommended antithrombotic therapy if chadvasc 2 or more
OAC
44
which antithrombin therapies have lower risk IC haemorrhage
NOACs
45
what induces warfarin metabolism
st johns wort, sulphonylureas, carbamazepine, rifampicin, chronic alcohol, phenytoin
46
catastrophic scenario of warfarin patient who comes into hospital with pneumonia
given erythromycin, catastrophic bleed as inhibits metabolism
47
what inhibits warfarin metabolism
sodium valproate/SSRIs, isoniazid, cimetidine, ketoconazole, fluconazole, amiodarone/acute alcohol, chloramphenicol, erythromycin, ciprofloxacin, omeprazole, metronidazole
48
what drugs used in AF thrombosis prophylaxis
warfarin or NOACs
49
what used in patients who cant take anticoag med
considered for left atrial appendage occlusion
50
what anticoag drugs cant be taken in renal failure
NOACs
51
what are NOACs
factor X inhibitors (apixaban etc), or DTIs (dabigatran)
52
problem with apixaban
no reversing agent
53
why is pharmacology of NOACs more reliable than warfarin
act further down clotting cascade
54
AF mx <48h
rate or rhythm control
55
AF mx >48h
rate control
56
LT side effects of amiodarone (EXAM Q)
Photosensitivity, hepatotoxicity, pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid dysfunction
57
acute side effects of amiodarone worried about
hypotension
58
are patients with structural heart defects suitable for electrical cardioversion
no
59
INR target in AF
between 2-3
60
tx for INR >6, stable, minor bleeding
vitamin k