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747 > CQ (500) 2020 > Flashcards

CQ (500) 2020 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. On a Cat III approach, to continue below AH, what conditions must be met? (GOM 5)
A
  • No Auto throttle faults
  • TRIPLE or LAND 3 must be displayed on the flight mode annunciator
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2
Q
  1. Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft? (GOM 7)
A
  • Stowage compartment on the First Observers Sidewall Console (right side of flight deck)
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3
Q
  1. Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF? (GOM 5)
A
  • Yes, the METAR must show that the weather is at or above minimums and a reasonable trend shows that the weather will remain so
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4
Q
  1. The First Officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation. ATIS is reporting the visibility as 1100 meters. What must be considered? (GOM 5) (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • Autobrakes 3 or greater must be used
  • The First Officer may not conduct the approach and landing
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5
Q
  1. If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to the flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions? (GOM 5)
A
  • The Director of Operations shall NOT delegate responsibility for those functions
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6
Q
  1. What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip? (GOM 5)
A
  • Flight Release/Flight Plan
  • Weight and Balance Form
  • Aircraft Loading Checklist
  • Hazmat Form
  • Ground Security Form
  • Aircraft Log (yellow and pink copies)
  • Fuel Receipts
  • All Receipts and Invoices (excluding hotel)
  • Engine Monitoring Data Form
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7
Q
  1. Minimum (fuel) required calculations are based on what 4 factors? (GOM 5)
A
  • Destination Fuel
  • Alternate Fuel
  • Reserve Fuel
  • Additional Fuel
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8
Q
  1. What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria when no gradient is specified? (GOM 5)
A
  • 200 feet per nautical mile
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9
Q
  1. When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered? (GOM 5)
A

The Captain must determine that the weight of the aircraft at the start of the takeoff roll is at or below all of the following weights:
- Maximum structure Takeoff Gross Weight (TOGW)
- TOGW limited by takeoff performance under the conditions existing at the time of takeoff
- TOGW considering the anticipated fuel burn before landing which will permit a landing at or below the maximum Landing Gross Weight (LGW)

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10
Q
  1. When is a new TLR required prior to departure? (AOM Vol I, PERF)
A

TLR is void when:
- the actual QNH is more than .10” (3.4hPa) below the planned QNH
- the actual OAT is greater than the Maximum Temperature (MT) for the takeoff runway
- the actual OAT is more than 10* less than the planned OAT
- the actual takeoff weight is greater than the weight listed in the PTOW PLUS table
- the actual takeoff weight is more than 10,000 lbs below the planned takeoff weight
- a performance limiting MEL exists that is not shown in the RMKS section

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11
Q
  1. When requesting a “Live” calculation, what must be provided to flight following? (AOM VOL I, PERF)
A
  • Desired Runway
  • Runway Surface Condition
  • ATIS
  • ZFW
  • Fuel on board
  • TOGW CG
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12
Q
  1. Your TLR has a notation “SLUSH-LEVEL 2” in the remarks section. What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower? (AOM VOL I, PERF)
A
  • More than 1/8 inch - up to 1/4 inch
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13
Q
  1. After entering the Thrust Limit from AERODATA, there are dashed lines present on the Takeoff Page. What do you do? (AOM VOL I, PERF)
A
  • The presence of dashes in place of reference speeds in the CDU is an indication that the FMS cannot generate speeds for the entered THRUST LIMIT, ZFW and FLAP setting. All data entries should stop and the crew should reconfirm all performance data entries
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14
Q
  1. Who may perform the Exterior Safety check? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • The FO will accomplish the exterior safety check. However, the IRP may accomplish the check. If crew members arrive separately, the first crew members to arrive at the aircraft will complete the exterior and interior safety checks and establish electrical power if not already established.
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15
Q
  1. When is the exterior safety check accomplished? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • The Exterior Safety Check is performed on every flight before entering the airplane to ascertain that no obvious unsafe condition exists.
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16
Q
  1. What is the maximum misalignment permitted on the pylon alignment stripe when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)
A
  • 1/2 the stripe
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17
Q
  1. What is the minimum amount of brake wear pin that can be visible when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)
A
  • Checking the brake wear pins is not part of the Exterior Inspection
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18
Q
  1. When conducting an Exterior Inspection, must a flashlight be carried during daylight hours? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • Yes
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19
Q
  1. For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • The Loadmaster shall assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around to ensure that all of the cargo doors are closed and secured and that there is no damage around the cargo door area, which may have been caused by the loaders and may not have been visible when the IRP did his initial walk-around inspection. DOES NOT CHECK FUEL DOORS.
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20
Q
  1. What are the memory items for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND? (QRH BC)
A

ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND

FUEL CTRL switch (affected engine) - CUTOFF
(Warning: Do Not Proceed Until Engine Has Shutdown)

If FIRE indication persists after shutdown:
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - PULL
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - ROTATE

After a momentary delay:
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - ROTATE (other direction)

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21
Q
  1. What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight? (QRH 7)
A

ENG 1,2,3,4 FAIL (TWO or MORE ENGINES)
Condition: one of these occurs on two or more engines
- engine flameout/indications are unusual/indications out of limits/unusual engine noises/no response to thrust lever movement
Objective: attempt a rapid relight
CAUTION: Shutdown of more than 1 engine will cause the AUTO-THROTTLES to be Inoperative

FUEL CTRL switches (affected engines) - CONFIRM, CUTOFF, then RUN
EGT - MONITOR
- If EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff EGT limit, repeat step 1 as necessary

NOTE:
- EGT indication will turn red if EGT exceeds the ground/single engine in-flight start limit; however, for the multi-engine in-flight start, the start EGT limit reverts to the takeoff limit
- If high speed buffet occurs during the maneuver, relax pitch force as necessary to reduce buffet, but continue the maneuver

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22
Q
  1. You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set, engines 1, 2, 3 are shut down and engine 4 is running as you wait the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the Marshaller gives you the signal for a fire on engine 4. With no Master Fire Warning illuminated, what recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 8)
A

FIRE ENGINE TAILPIPE
Cond: An engine tailpipe fire occurs on the ground with no engine fire warning

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

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23
Q
  1. A hung start occurs after starter cutout, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. What recall item should be accomplished? (QRH 7)
A

HUNG START (AUTOSTART AFTER STARTER CUTOUT)
Cond: N2 below 50% or engine fails to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

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24
Q
  1. An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG 1 FAIL appears. What recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 7)
A
  • NONE
  • There are no recall items associated with an engine failure. The appropriate QRH should be called for by the PF
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25
Q
  1. What are the memory items for EICAS message “ENG 1 AUTOSTART”? (QRH 7)
A

ENG 1,2,3,4 AUTOSTART (ABORTED ENGINE START)
Cond: During a ground start, an abort start condition occurs
Obj: To shut down the engine and motor it.

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

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26
Q
  1. What are the memory items for the ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL condition? (QRH 7)
A

ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL
Cond: one or more of these
- Engine indications are unusual
- Engine indications are rapidly approaching or exceeding limits
- Unusual engine noises are heard
- There is no response to thrust lever movement
Obj: To attempt to recover normal engine operation or shutdown the engine if recovery is not possible

THRUST LEVER (affected engine) - RETARD
- Retard until indications stay within normal limits or return to normal or the thrust lever is closed.

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27
Q
  1. What are the memory items for the EICAS message “FIRE MAIN DECK”? (QRH 8)
A

FIRE MAIN DECK FIRE MN DK AFT, FWD, MID
Cond: Smoke is detected in the main deck cargo area(s)

1 Don O2 masks
2 Establish crew communications

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28
Q
  1. What are the memory items for the EICAS message “CABIN ALTITUDE”? (QRH 8)
A

CABIN ALTITUDE
Cond: Cabin altitude masks

1 Don O2 masks
2 Establish crew communications

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29
Q

29 What are the memory items for EICAS message “FIRE WHEEL WELL”? (QRH 8)

A

FIRE WHEEL WELL
Cond: Fire is detected in a main wheel well
NOTE: When extending or retracting the landing gear, do not exceed the gear EXTEND limit speed - 270Kts/.82M

LANDING GEAR LEVER - DN
- This attempts to remove and extinguish the fire source

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30
Q
  1. Who is responsible for notifying the FAA when a PIC utilizes his emergency authority? (GOM 8)
A

The Director of Operations

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31
Q
  1. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency? (GOM 8)
A

PAN, PAN, PAN

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32
Q
  1. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of distress? (GOM 8)
A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

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33
Q
  1. What are some indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight? (GOM 8)
A
  • Notice a Smokey or acrid odor that can smell like electrical smoke, burned dust or sulfur
  • See a haze develop within the airplane…dust can settle on surfaces
  • Experience changing engine conditions…surging, torching from the tail pipe, and flameouts can occur…engine temps can change unexpectedly and a white glow can appear at the engine inlets
  • Experience a decrease or erratically fluctuation indicated airspeed
  • Experience changes in cabin pressure, including loss of cabin pressure
  • See a phenomenon similar to St Elmo’s fire or glow…in these instances, blue-colored sparks can appear to flow up the outside of the windshield or a white glow can appear at the edges of the wings or at the front of the engine inlets
  • Landing lights will cast sharp, distinct shadows
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34
Q
  1. What must a person consider before using Halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area? (GOM 8)
A
  • A PBE must be donned prior to discharging a Halon fire extinguisher in a confined space
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35
Q
  1. What is the time of useful consciousness sat 35000’ without using supplemental oxygen? (GOM 8)
A
  • 30 to 60 seconds
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36
Q
  1. What must be entered into the logbook following an overweight landing? (GOM 8)
A
  • Aircraft weight
  • Rate of descent at touchdown
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37
Q
  1. Should supernumerary oxygen be deployed for smoke in the cabin? (GOM 8)
A
  • NO, unless the cabin altitude is greater than 14000’
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38
Q
  1. You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30-day period. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30-day period? (GOM 5)
A
  • 100 hours
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39
Q
  1. To whom can the Director of Operations delegate his responsibility for initiation, operation, diversion and termination of a flight? (GOM 5)
A
  • He cannot delegate his responsibility
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40
Q
  1. When operating outside of the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found? (GOM 6)
A
  • Jeppesen FD Pro program under “Air Traffic Control, State Rules and Procedures” tab for that country
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41
Q
  1. What are the B-44 fuel requirements? (GOM 6)
A

The flight must be planned with enough fuel to:
- Fly to airport to which was released
- + 10% of the total time from rerelease point to the rerelease destination airport
- Fly and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release
- + 30 minutes holding speed at 1500’ above the alternate airport under standard temperature conditions

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42
Q
  1. What are B-43 fuel requirements? (GOM 6)
A

The flight must be planned with enough fuel to:
- Fly to and land at the airport to which it was released
- + 10% of total period in Class 2 Airspace (where aircraft’s position cannot be “reliably fixed” at least once each hour)
- Fly to and land to the most distant Alternate in the release (if required)
- + 45 mins at normal cruising fuel consumption

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43
Q
  1. May a flight be released under the rules for No Suitable Alternate if there is an alternate available within two hours that is unusable because of weather forecast? (GOM 6)
A
  • NO
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44
Q
  1. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following? (GOM 6)
A
  • ETA exceeds 15 min beyond flight plan ETA
  • Deviate more than 100 NM from flight plan route
  • More than 4000’ from flight plan altitude
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45
Q
  1. When are you considered “established” on course? (GOM 6)
A
  • “Established” is considered as being within HALF OF FULL-SCALE DEFLECTION for the ILS and VOR or within +-5* of the required bearing for the NDB
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46
Q
  1. Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country? (GOM 6)
A
  • PIC
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47
Q
  1. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc) for a particular host country be found? (GOM 6)
A
  • Most relevant information is found in the ENTRY SECTION of the appropriate Jeppesen Text Manual. More detailed information can be obtained from Operations Control Center (OCC) personnel
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48
Q
  1. When do you need a permit to proceed? (GOM 6)
A
  • The Permit to Proceed is used by US Customs officials to allow aircraft to TECH STOP (change crew, fuel, etc) at a US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry. The detailed entry inspection requirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination.
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49
Q
  1. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country? (GOM 6)
A
  • The only way to determine the appropriate holding speeds for a particular country is to FIRST CHECK THE ATC SECTIONS OF THE JEPPESEN TEXT documents found in FD Pro D and find the “HOLDING” SECTION FOR A PARTICULAR COUNTRY. The Holding section will reference a table of speeds, found in the 200 series pages of the Air Traffic Control section of the Jeppesen General Manual
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50
Q
  1. When operating outside the US and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew? (GOM 6)
A
  • Clarify the routing or if cleared direct, use specific phraseology indicating “CLEARED PRESENT POSITION direct to ____” (GOM 6-19)
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51
Q
  1. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights? (GOM 6)
A
  • Verify that the computer Flight Plan coordinates agree with the actual coordinates from Jeppesen HI/LO charts or the NAT Track message, as appropriate
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52
Q
  1. List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS. (GOM 6)
A
  • Moderate Turbulence
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Moderate Icing
  • Severe Icing
  • Severe Mountain Wave
  • Thunderstorms without or with hail
  • Heavy Dust or Sandstorm
  • Volcanic Ash Cloud
  • Pre-Eruption Volcanic Activity or Volcanic Eruption
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53
Q
  1. When would you NOT use CMV (converted meteorological visibility)? (GOM 5)
A
  • When reported RVR is available
  • For calculating takeoff minima
  • For other RVR minima less than 800m
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54
Q
  1. What does the term “NOSIG” mean when found in a METAR? (GOM 5)
A

NO SIGnificant change in the next 2 hours

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55
Q
  1. Can a flight be released based on a METAR? (GOM 5)
A
  • YES, when weather conditions forecast in a TAF prevent the release of a flight, but the METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums, a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above the minimums required. The flight must be coordinated with flight following to ensure the takeoff, approach and landing can be accomplished prior to issuance of the next normally scheduled METAR report.
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56
Q
  1. You are unable to see the required visual cues at decision height on an approach. Are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate? (GOM 5,6)
A
  • NO, As with any listed alternate, the destination alternate is just a planning exercise to ensure that you have available fuel to divert to a suitable airport.
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57
Q
  1. You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response. Based on analysis of the radar returns you elect to deviate 20 miles south of track. What do you do? (GOM 6)
A

Maintain your altitude until 5 miles south of track. Then, climb to 300’ above your assigned cruising level

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58
Q
  1. You are unable to maintain your altitude while in oceanic airspace and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude. What do you do? (GOM 6, AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • Turn at least 30 degrees off track
  • Maintain altitude as long as possible
  • Watch for traffic
  • Turn on all available lighting
  • Broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45
  • Establish 5NM Offset Track
  • Descend to an altitude offset by 500’ in RVSM airspace
  • Consider descent below FL290, offset by 500’
  • Select <ENG OUT on the FMS Cruise Page
  • Continue to attempt contact with ATC
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59
Q
  1. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do? (GOM 5)
A

Divert to your released airport (intermediate airport), after coordinating with ATC

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60
Q
  1. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regard to vertical and lateral maneuvering? (GOM 6)
A

It is expected that the pilot will normally proceed to the missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within the protected airspace This does not preclude flying over the MAP at an altitude/height greater than that required by the procedure.

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61
Q
  1. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is _____, with a minimum bank angle of _____ * (GOM 6)
A

Departures are only protected for turn radius of 290 knots or less, with a minimum bank angle of 15*

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62
Q
  1. Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew? (GOM 6)
A

The flight crew shall write down the clearance on the Flight Plan, along with the time it was received and the controlling frequency. When a re-route is necessary, the flight crew shall clearly cross-out old waypoints and enter the new waypoints in their place

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63
Q
  1. Certain locations in the world have been identified by IATA as having less than reliable air traffic control services. Is there any additional procedure required? (GOM 6)
A

The IATA Inflight Broadcast Procedures should be followed at each Mandatory reporting point

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64
Q
  1. Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check? (GOM 6)
A
  • Approximately ten minutes after passing each waypoint, the steering LRN unit position should be plotted and all LRN units checked against each other to ensure there are no significant deviations
  • Record the time (UTC)
  • Verify on-course tracking
  • The check is designed to ensure that the proper coordinates are inserted in the ‘NEXT’ position and that the aircraft is tracking to that position. The check does NOT verify the aircraft is in the proper position
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65
Q
  1. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such a route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain…(GOM 6)
A

The aircraft must be capable of meeting obstacle clearance requirements along a particular route with an engine inoperative. If diversion procedures or “escape routes” are not available or defined, these routes should not be flown, unless weights are reduced to allow compliance with en-route obstruction clearance criteria as described in GOM6-41, FAR 121.191 and FAR 121.193.

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66
Q
  1. While flying in less developed areas and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the en-route chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford? (GOM 6)
A
  • Special attention must be paid to the grid Minimum Off-Route Altitude (MORA). Grid MORAs provide a minimum of 1000’ obstacle clearance or 2000’ in mountainous terrain
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67
Q
  1. What is the Engine Failure Procedure in VMC if an engine fails after V1? (GOM 6, AOM Vol I PERF)
A

In VMC, you must fly the runway heading to 1000’ then maneuver as necessary, unless a Special Engine Failure procedure dictates otherwise

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68
Q
  1. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
A

The flight crew may know they have been cleared through the transition level, (descending) when cleared to maintain an altitude instead of a flight level. Additionally, a flight should be given an altimeter setting when cleared through the transition level.

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69
Q
  1. When conducting a course reversal procedure outside of the United States, what must be done to assure obstruction clearance? (GOM 6)
A

Unlike the United States, where a holding pattern can be used as a course reversal, the course reversal procedure must be flown exactly as depicted

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70
Q
  1. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch.6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected? (GOM 6)
A
  • Apply corrections to all published minimum departure, en-route and approach altitudes according to the table in GOM Ch.6
  • ATC-assigned altitudes or flight levels should not be adjusted for temperature
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71
Q
  1. According to GOM Ch.6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations? (GOM 6)
A
  • Greater turn radius
  • Higher landing and takeoff speeds
  • Potential for hot brakes
  • Missed approach climb capability problems
  • Aircraft may seem fast visually
  • Higher rates of descent (near the GPWS “sink rate” warning activation)
  • Pressurization scheduling may differ from normal
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72
Q
  1. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit? (QRH 12)
A
  • 3* C above the fuel freeze point
  • Increase speed, change altitude or deviate to a warmer air mass or all 3 to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temp limit
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73
Q
  1. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used? (AOM Vol I L, QRH 12)
A

Consult the fuel freeze tables in Chapter L or the QRH Chapter 12

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74
Q
  1. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire (GOM 6)
A

Rapid horizontal figure 8 motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire

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75
Q
  1. If a SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch? (GOM 6)
A
  • Verify proper SELCAL code
  • Verify that the SELCAL VHF/HF selectors are set to HF
  • Verify that the HF squelch is set to MIN or OFF
  • Verify the HF Gain set to MAX or INCR
  • Request a new test (if necessary)
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76
Q
  1. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the US, what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunication? (GOM 6)
A
  • Use proper ICAO Phraseology
  • Speak slowly and clearly and spell identifiers using the phonetic alphabet (if necessary)
  • Anticipate the controller: For example, be aware of the names of the fixes along the route, review possible SID and STAR names so that they will be familiar when heard
  • Obtain assistance, ask other crew members to monitor communication, even ACMs (or others), especially if they speak the local language. If unsure of what has been said, insist on verification, no matter how many times it takes
  • If necessary, practice sterile cockpit techniques from the top of descent until parked at the ramp
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77
Q
  1. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • Print the ATC UPLINK page and place the printout where both pilots can see it until the clearance has been complied with
  • Leave the ATC UPLINK page displayed until the clearance has been complied with
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78
Q
  1. What is the correct response to a “Cleared Route Clearance” uplink? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • Send a “Standby” downlink message
  • Print the uplink message
  • After review of the message, accept or reject the clearance
  • If accepted, load the FMS
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79
Q
  1. Except on the North Atlantic, what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADS-C? (QRH CPDLC, CPDLC Presentation)
A

Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADS-C services

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80
Q
  1. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF? (AOM Vol I SP)
A

Unless ATC has requested you to select it off, it is Kalitta Air policy not to select ADS OFF

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81
Q
  1. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints? (CPDLC Presentation)
A

Although physically possible, it is not permitted

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82
Q
  1. What does ADS-B stand for? (GOM 5)
A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast

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83
Q
  1. How do you turn ADS-B off? (GOM 5)
A

Select the transponder to STBY

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84
Q
  1. What must supernumeraries be briefed on and who must brief them? (AOM Vol I NP)
A

Supernumeraries must be briefed by flight crew member on use of cabin emergency equipment and emergency escape provisions

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85
Q
  1. What will cause the Main Deck Signaling System to activate automatically? (AOM Vol II 1)
A
  • Depressurization event
  • Main deck cargo smoke/fire
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86
Q
  1. What must a supernumerary do prior to entering the main deck? (AOM Vol I NP)
A
  • Carry a portable oxygen bottle with a smoke combat mask
  • Notify the operating crew upon returning
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87
Q
  1. What is indicated by the EICAS message >EMER LIGHTS? (AOM Vol II 1)
A
  • The emergency lights switch is not armed
  • The emergency lights switch is armed and the lights have activated
88
Q
  1. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • Door operating 40kts
  • Door open 65kts
89
Q
  1. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position? (AOM Vol II 1)
A

When Oxygen is on

90
Q
  1. What is the Max. Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing? (AOM Vol I 1)
A

MAX: 9.4psi
T/O & Land: 0.11psi

91
Q
  1. The AFT CARGO HT switch TEMP legend is illuminated. Is aft cargo heat available? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Yes, it will cycle at a higher temperature

92
Q
  1. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Yes, for one pack up to 15000’

93
Q
  1. What will cause an engine bleed air SYS FAULT light to illuminate? (AOM Vol II 2)
A
  • Bleed Overheat
  • Bleed Overpressure
  • HP Bleed open when commanded closed
  • PRV open when commanded closed
94
Q
  1. What will cause the cabin altitude indicator on the primary EICAS to turn amber? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Cabin altitude in the caution range

95
Q
  1. The LLCAFR switch is in FWD LOW and the customer has requested a temperature of 4C to 8C for perishable cargo. What is the condition of the equipment cooling system? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Closed Loop

96
Q
  1. What systems are available with the engine bleed valve closed and no fault is detected? (AOM Vol II 2)
A
  • Reversing
  • Nacelle Anti-Ice
97
Q
  1. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative? (MEL 30)
A
  • Provide operation is not predicated on flights onto known or forecast icing conditions
  • Windshield Air (Anti-Fogging) Systems are operative and remaining #1 and #2 window heaters are operative
98
Q
  1. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • When icing conditions are anticipated except when OAT is below -40*C
  • When TAT is 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals)
  • Prior to reduce thrust for descent when TAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), even when OAT is below -40C
99
Q
  1. While in flight, Wing Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I L
A
  • In flight, when in icing conditions (ice is actually accumulating) and the leading edge flaps are not extended
  • When TAT is 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), the leading edge flaps are not extended and the aircraft is below 22,000’
100
Q
  1. Where is the windshield washer reservoir located? (AOM Vol II 3)
A

In the left sidewall, behind the captain’s seat

101
Q
  1. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated? (AOM Vol II 3)
A

When any engine is operating

102
Q
  1. Are the TAT probes heated? When? (AOM Vol II 3)
A

Yes, in flight only

103
Q
  1. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff? (AOM Vol I L)
A

Not below 400’

104
Q
  1. VNAV is armed for takeoff, at 400’ AFE, the autothrottle mode changes to THR REF. What change occurs to the N1 indicators on the primary EICAS? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol II 7)
A

The reference N1 line changes from green to magenta

105
Q
  1. When the pitch mode is VNAV PTH, what changes will occur to the autothrottle and pitch modes when speed speed intervene is selected with the Legacy FMC? With the NG FMC? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol II 16F)
A
  • Legacy FMC: will change the pitch mode to VNAV SPD and autothrottle will go to IDLE, then HOLD

-NG FMC: will remain in VNAV PTH and SPD

106
Q
  1. Will aileron trim operate with an autopilot engaged? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol I L)
A

Yes, but it is prohibited

107
Q
  1. What are the minimum and maximum: GLIDESLOPE & GLIDE PATH angle? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • GLIDESLOPE: 2.5* to 3.25*
  • GLIDE PATH: 2.75* to 3.5*
108
Q
  1. What will occur in cruise flight with an autopilot engaged and the PM inadvertently touches the trim switch instead of the push to talk switch? (AOM Vol II 4)
A

The autopilot will disengage

109
Q
  1. When using FLCH SPD as the pitch mode on takeoff (VNAV did not capture), is it necessary to push the THR button to select climb thrust? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM VOL II 7, AOM Vol II 11)
A

No, the change will occur at the specified point (flaps or altitude) programmed on the Takeoff Page of the FMC

110
Q
  1. If VNAV is armed for takeoff, what would be the indicated FMA pitch mode change at 400’ AFE? (AOM Vol II 4)
A

VNAV SPD

111
Q
  1. If LNAV is armed in flight, at what cross track distance will it become active? (AOM Vol I L)
A

2.5 NM

112
Q
  1. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system? (AOM Vol I L)
A

The center VHF radio is not approved for ATC voice communications

113
Q
  1. When is an ACARS in range report required to be manually sent? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • 30 minutes prior to arrival when unable to contact the ground station on an AMC charter flight
  • 30 minutes prior to arrival when a maintenance item is or will be entered in the logbook
114
Q
  1. When should HF radios not be used? (AOM Vol I L)
A

During Refueling

115
Q
  1. How would you verify that the ACARS state is BEGIN or WAIT? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • ACARS 2/2, DISCRETE, verify BEGIN/WAIT
  • TO FIX:
    • Close the L1 door
    • Set the parking brake
    • Open the L1 door
    • Select RETURN IN
    • Select PROCEED WITH RETURN IN
116
Q
  1. What must be done to communicate directly with the mechanic who is operating the start valve for a manual (wrench) start? (AOM Vol II 5)
A
  • The mechanic must plug into the headset jacks at the nacelle. Service Interphone must be selected on
  • FLT must be selected on the audio panel
117
Q
  1. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off? (AOM Vol II 5)
A

No

118
Q
  1. What is indicated by the EICAS advisory >RADIO TRANSMIT? (AOM Vol II 5)
A

A VHF or HF radio has been continuously keyed for 30 seconds

119
Q
  1. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF? (AOM Vol II 5)
A

Dial past 136.000 or below 118.000 and select transfer switch

120
Q
  1. What buses are powered with #1 & #2 external power available but not on? (AOM Vol II 6)
A
  • Ground Handling
  • Main Deck Cargo Handling
121
Q
  1. The battery switch is on and the standby power selector is in AUTO. No external power is available. You are starting the APU. Is the APU standby bus powered? (AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 7)
A

No, starting the APU removes power from the APU standby bus

122
Q
  1. What battery is required to start the APU? (AOM Vol II 6)
A

Both batteries are required to start the APU

123
Q
  1. How can a DCIR be opened? (AOM Vol II 6)
A

By opening the AC Bus Tie switch

124
Q
  1. While conducting the interior preflight, you notice that the #2 generator FIELD OFF light is illuminated. How can you reset it? (AOM Vol II 6)
A
  • Cycle the Generator Control switch off and then on
  • Turn off the Generator Control switch and then use the guarded field switch on the Overhead Maintenance panel to close the field
125
Q
  1. What electrical bus isolation occurs during auto land? (AOM Vol II 6)
A

AC buses 1, 2, and 3 are isolated. AC bus 4 powers the sync bus

126
Q
  1. The number 4 generator is deferred. Can a Category III approach be conducted? (AOM Vol II 6, QRH AP)
A

Yes

127
Q
  1. The #1 APU generator is inoperative. External power is not available. What must be done to power the refueling panel? (AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 7)
A

The refueling panel cannot be powered. The Ground Handling bus is required

128
Q
  1. Before starting engines with the #1 APU generator inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system? (MEL 24, AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 13)
A

Turn on the # 4 Demand Pump

129
Q
  1. When must continuous ignition be used? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • Heavy Rain
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Volcanic Ash
  • Icing Conditions
  • Standing water or slush on the runway
130
Q
  1. With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set? (AOM Vol I L)
A

After brake release

131
Q
  1. What does the EICAS Memo message APU RUNNING mean? (AOM Vol II 7)
A
  • APU is at 95% RPM
  • Electrical and Pneumatics are available
132
Q
  1. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE), what happens on the ground? (AOM Vol II 7)
A

The EEC will alternate igniters 1 & 2 after every second engine start

133
Q
  1. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE), what happens in flight? (AOM Vol II 7)
A
  • Both igniters will activate when N2 drops below 50% in the affected engine
  • Both igniters will activate in all engines when the flaps are out of up
134
Q
  1. When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM? (AOM Vol II, 7)
A
  • With a loss of AC Power
  • Power is supplied to both igniters continuously
135
Q
  1. Under what conditions should a start attempt be aborted (P&W)? (NO AUTO ATART-*) (AOM Vol II 16PW)
A
  • No N2
  • No oil pressure
  • No EGT rise within 10 seconds
  • Rapidly rising EGT
  • No N1 by idle N2
  • No acceleration after 90 seconds
    • EICAS/display interruption
    • Pneumatic disruption
    • Tailpipe fire
136
Q
  1. If the Maximum Continuous EGT limit is exceeded, what is indicated? On Takeoff? (AOM Vol II 7)
A
  • Entire EGT gage turns amber
  • Inhibited for 5 minutes after TOGA is pushed
137
Q
  1. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Enables main deck fire suppression
  • Turns off 2 packs
  • Configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
  • Closes master trim air valve
138
Q
  1. Is the engine fire detection system AND logic or OR logic? (AOM Vol II 8)
A

AND logic

139
Q
  1. What event will cause the engine fire detection system to configure itself in OR logic? Is there a cockpit indication? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Failure of one of the detection loops during the self test (STATUS cue on the primary EICAS)
  • FIRE DET LOOP status message
140
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message >DET FIRE/OHT 1 mean? (AOM Vol II 8)
A

Both loop A and loop B for engine 1 have failed

141
Q
  1. Describe what occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Closes the related engine and spar fuel valves
  • Closes the related engine bleed air valve
  • Trips off the related engine generator
  • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine - driven hydraulic pump
  • Depressurizes the related engine - driven hydraulic pump
  • Arms both related engine fire extinguishers
142
Q
  1. What conditions will unlock the engine fire switch? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Pressing the unlock button on the fire panel
  • System senses a fire
  • Fuel switch in cutoff
  • Fire test in progress
143
Q
  1. After a fire test pass, what 2 systems are no longer being monitored by the AC? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Wheel Well
  • Leading Edge Duct
144
Q
  1. How many overheat loops are installed for the APU? (AOM Vol II 8)
A

None

145
Q
  1. If the outboard ailerons fail to “unlock” during approach, are there any restrictions on landing? (QRH 9)
A

20 knot crosswind limit

146
Q
  1. What causes the outboard ailerons to unlock? (AOM Vol II 9)
A

Low Airspeed

147
Q
  1. How would you select flaps 1 using the alternate flap system? (AOM Vol II 9)
A

You cannot select flaps 1 with the alternate system. All leading edge flaps extend at the same time.

148
Q
  1. Moving the flap handle to a selected position will cause the flaps to move as long as either hydraulic (primary mode) or electric (secondary mode) power is available to the aircraft. Having said that, why is there an alternate flap system?
A

In the event that the flap handle fails or all three Flap Control Computers FCCs are failed

149
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message >SPEEDBRAKES EXT mean?
A

Speed brake lever aft of arm and

  • RA between 800 and 15’
    Or
  • Flaps in the landing configuration
    Or
  • Two or more thrust levers forward of the idle position
150
Q
  1. What occurs when the speedbrake lever is extended to the flight detent position? (AOM Vol II 9)
A
  • Two inboard spoilers on each wing extended to the mid position
  • Two middle spoilers on each wing extend fully
151
Q
  1. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude? (AOM Vol I L)
A

20,000’

152
Q
  1. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited? (AOM Vol II 9)
A

Multiple Autopilots engaged

153
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain’s and FO’s altitude display for RVSM operations? (AOM Vol I L)
A

200’

154
Q
  1. In addition to altitude and vertical speed information, what does the IRU selected by the captain provide? (AOM Vol II 10)
A

Reference information to the autobrake system

155
Q
  1. On what range if the ND can you display all airports, all waypoints and all VORs? (AOM Vol II 10)
A

40 miles

156
Q
  1. Which of the instrument source selectors will automatically transfer? (AOM Vol II 10)
A

EIU

157
Q
  1. Selecting the ARPT button on the EFIS control panel does what? (AOM Vol II 10, 11, 16F)
A
  • With the legacy FMC installed, displays all airports within the selected range that have at least 1 hard surfaced runway 7500’ long or greater
  • With the NG FMC installed, displays all airports within the selected range that have at least 1 hard surfaced runway 6000’ long or greater
158
Q
  1. For all aircraft, except N782CK, what is the up orientation of each ND mode? (AOM Vol II 10)
A
  • MAP is track up
  • PLAN is True North up (VOR is heading up
  • APP is heading up
159
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • Sea Level to 5000’ -
    • 35’ between CA and FO
    • 75’ between CA or FO and field elevation
  • 10000’ -
    • 40’ between CA and FO
    • 75’ between CA or FO and field elevation
160
Q
  1. Operations for using QFE are? (AOM Vol I L)
A

Prohibited

161
Q
  1. What pages are available on the CDU with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • PROG
  • LEGS
  • NAV RAD
162
Q
  1. Weather radar information can be displayed on all ND modes, except? (AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • Plan
  • VOR centered
  • APP centered
163
Q
  1. The NG FMC has a field on the VNAV CRZ page with the title RECMD. What does it display? (AOM Vol II 16F, NG FMS Pilot’s Guide)
A

The most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 miles based on gross weight, selected speed option and constant altitude based on entered winds and forecast temperature

164
Q
  1. You have been given a clearance to fly a heading of 090* to intercept J121 to HTO. Procedurally, what will you enter in the FMC? (AOM VolI 11)
A
  • On RTE page 2: put J121 at L1
  • On RTE page 2: put HTO on R1
  • Verify route on LEGS 1 page
  • Push EXEC
165
Q
  1. When does the FMC have Approach Logic? (AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • After passing the first waypoint in the IAP
  • Within 25 miles when the runway is the waypoint displayed at L1
166
Q
  1. What safeguard is applied when the FMC has approach logic and the pitch mode is VNAV PTH? (AOM Vol II 11)
A

Loss of the path will cause the aircraft to do a level fly off

167
Q
  1. Can Class II Navigation be conducted with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II 11)
A

Yes

168
Q
  1. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, on what page can the update sources be viewed and, it desired, disabled or enabled? (AOM Vol II 16F)
A

The NAV OPTIONS page

169
Q
  1. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, what airports are entered on the ALTN Page? (AOM Vol II 16F)
A
  • ETP airports
  • If no ETP airports, the destination alternate
170
Q
  1. External power is connected, but not selected on. The fueler comes upon to you and asks if he can fuel since power is not on. Can he? (AOM Vol II 12, 6)
A

Yes, the fueling panel receives power from the Ground Handling Bus

171
Q

171.When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off? (AOM Vol II 12, QRH 12)

A
  • If the FUEL LOW CTR L/R message is displayed
  • If the FUEL PRESS CTR L/R message is displayed
172
Q
  1. Can you reset a tripped fuel pump Circuit Breaker? (QRH 12)
A

No, do not reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker

173
Q
  1. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A? (QRH 12)
A

-40*C (most restrictive of the fuel types used)

174
Q
  1. How can you verify that the fueling panel door is closed from the cockpit? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

The preselect fuel value will no longer appear on the fuel synoptic

175
Q
  1. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)? (AOM Vol I L)
A

53,000lbs

176
Q
  1. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast) (AOM Vol I L)
A

72,000lbs

177
Q
  1. When is the only time that the fuel system will automatically balance the fuel tanks? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

During fuel jettison

178
Q
  1. On aircraft equipped with an electric scavenge pump, what causes the pump to activate? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

The pump activates when the 2 and 3 reserve tanks transfer to their respective main tanks

179
Q
  1. Once activated, how long will an electric scavenge pump operate? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

120 minutes or until CTR Tank is empty

180
Q
  1. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach? (AOM Vol II 13, QRH 13)
A
  • Loss of Stabilizer Trim
  • Increased ability to flare
181
Q
  1. What will cause a #2 or #3 demand pump to operate when the switch is in the AUTO? (AOM Vol II 13)
A
  • Low pressure output from the EDP
  • Respective fuel control switch in cutoff
182
Q
  1. What will cause a #1 or #4 demand pump to operate when the switch is in AUTO? (AOM Vol II 13)
A
  • Low pressure output from the EDP
  • Respective fuel control switch in cutoff
  • Flaps are in transit on the ground
  • Flaps are out of up in flight
183
Q
  1. Does unlatching the EDP switch close its respective shut off valve? (AOM Vol II 13)
A

No

184
Q
  1. The hydraulic quantity on the STATUS page shows 0.00. The EICAS message HYD PRESS ENG is displayed. The SYS FAULT light is not illuminated. Do you have any hydraulic pressure from the system available? Why? (AOM Vol II 13)
A
  • Yes
  • The hydraulic quantity indication disregards the fluid in the standpipe which is available to the EDP
185
Q
  1. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? (AOM Vol I L)
A

0.80

186
Q
  1. Where can you confirm the hydraulic quantity? (AOM Vol II 13)
A

Status and Hydraulic Synoptic page

187
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message “HYD CONTROL” mean? (AOM Vol II 13, QRH 13)
A
  • The affected system’s demand pump may not operate under high demand situations
  • The affected system’s demand pump must be placed to ON in order to ensure system pressure will be available during high demand situations
188
Q
  1. With the #4 AUX pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on? (AOM Vol II 13)
A

Off

189
Q
  1. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended? (AOM Vol I L
A

720,000 lbs

190
Q
  1. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

85kts

191
Q
  1. Autobrakes operate using which brake control system? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

Normal brake system

192
Q
  1. RTO braking will provide what deceleration rate? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

RTO is not rate based…MAX Braking

193
Q
  1. At what tiller angle will the body gear begin to aid in turning the aircraft? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

At 20* of tiller angle

194
Q
  1. Where can you read alternate brake pressure? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

Alternate brake system pressure cannot be read

195
Q
  1. The #4 hydraulic system is inoperative. How can the parking brake be held until chocks are in place? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

Pressurize Hydraulic System 1 with the ADP or AUX pump if installed

196
Q
  1. What does the brake torque limiting system do? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to the landing gear. When excessive torque is detected, a signal is sent to the anti-skid valve to release the brake pressure to that wheel.

197
Q
  1. From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or improper configurations? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

EICAS Alert Messages (Warning, Cautions and Advisory)

198
Q
  1. With multiple EICAS messages present, what will assure that all memo messages are displayed? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

Pushing the CANC button when the last page of EICAS Alert Messages is displayed

199
Q
  1. When are the Fire Bell and Master Warning Lights inhibited? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

V1 till 400’ RA or 25 seconds after V1

200
Q
  1. When does the takeoff configuration warning activate? (AOM Vol II 15)
A
  • Either #2 or #3 N1 is 70% or more
  • Airspeed is less than V1 and:
    • Body gear not centered
    • Flaps not in the takeoff range
    • Parking brake set
    • Speed brake lever not down
    • Stabilizer trim not in the selected green band
201
Q
  1. In what phase of flight would you receive the GPWS alert “DON’T SINK”? (AOM Vol II 15)
A
  • Takeoff
  • Go Around
202
Q
  1. When is the Windshear Alert System (not PWS) active? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

VOR to 1500’

203
Q
  1. What will cause the EICAS message CONFIG GEAR to display? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

The airplane is in flight:
- Any gear is not down and locked
- Any thrust lever is closed and radio altitude is less than 800’
- Flap lever is in a landing position (25 or 30)

204
Q
  1. What range must be selected to use the TAWS - Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system for navigation? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

Use of the terrain display for navigation is prohibited

205
Q
  1. When carrying Class 1 explosive material on a DOD flight, the captain must ensure what information is included in the remarks on the flight plan? (GOM 7)
A
  • Proper shipping name
  • Classification
  • Net explosive weight
206
Q
  1. Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft? (GOM 7)
A

Stowage compartment on the First Observers Sidewall Console (right side of flight deck)

207
Q
  1. Who is the final authority when conducting simultaneous fueling and cargo loading at military installations? (GOM 7)
A

Wing or Base Commander

208
Q
  1. When operating an AMC contracted flight, when must the destination airfield be notified? (GOM 7)
A

30 minutes out

209
Q
  1. When operating an AMC contracted flight, where is the appropriate facility and frequency for contact prior to arrival found? (GOM 7)
A

Flight Plan

210
Q

210 blank

A

Blank

211
Q
  1. Under Operating Fundamentals of Kalitta Air, flight operations will be conducted in a manner that ensures what 4 things? (GOM CH 3 3-23)
A
  • Maximum safety for personnel, cargo and equipment
  • Schedule integrity and reliability
  • Maximum customer satisfaction
  • Maximum efficiency economy
212
Q
  1. Prior to each departure, the PIC must obtain adequate knowledge of the following subjects? (GOM 4-21)
A
  • Weather characteristics appropriate to the season
  • Navigation Facilities
  • Communication procedures, including airports visual aids
  • Kinds of terrain and obstructions
  • Minimum safe flight levels
  • Pertinent air traffic control procedures, including terminal areas, arrival, departure, holding and all types of instrument approach procedures
  • Congested areas and the physical layout of each airport in which he/she will operate
  • All relative NOTAMS
213
Q
  1. Blank
A

Blank

214
Q
  1. Who may determine whether a Pre-departure Briefing for a special airport is needed? (GOM CH5 5-17)
A
  • The Director of Operations or Assistant Director of Operations
  • The Chief Pilot or Assistant Chief Pilot
  • The Director of Safety
215
Q
  1. When is a loading checklist required? (ROM 10-6)
A

The checklist is required where there is a Loadmaster or Special representative assigned to the flight

747 (6 decks)

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