Cramming Qs Flashcards

(683 cards)

1
Q

3 cardinal symptoms of HF

A

SOB

Fatigue

Ankle swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fill in the gaps

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do we see saddle shaped ST waves?

A

Pericarditis (&PR depression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyperkalaemia on ECG

A
  • Tall tented T waves
  • P wave flattening
  • PR prolongation
  • Wide QRS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hypokalaemia on ECG

A
  • T wave inversion
  • ST depression
  • Prominent U wave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What abnormal heart rhythm does long QT syndrome predispose a patient to?

A

Torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1st line investigation of intermittent claudication

A

Ankle brachial pressure index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute management of stable patients with SVT (4 steps)

A
  • Valsalva manoeurve
  • Carotid sinus massage
  • Chemical cardioversion, eg adenosine
  • Direct current cardioversion - defibrillator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Example of group A streptococci

A

Streptococci pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Presentation of aortic dissection (3)

A
  • Sudden excruciating chest pain “tearing”
  • History of HTN
  • Absent pulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gold standard investigation for aortic dissection?

A

CT angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

First line treatment of atrial fibrillation

A

Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Murmur in aortic stenosis

A

Ejection systolic heard loudest over the aortic region and radiation to the carotids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Murmur in mitral regurgitation

A

Pansystolic heard loudest in the mitral area

Radiation to the axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Immediate management for STEMI

A

MONA

Morphine

O2

GTN

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for atrial flutter

A

Catheter ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does CHA2DS2-VASc stand for?

A

Assesses risk of stroke in patients with A Fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Blood test to confirm HF

A

BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Clinical findings suggestive of HF on CXR

A

A. Alveolar oedema

B. Kerley B lines

C. Cardiomegaly

D. Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels

E. Pleural effusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pharmaceutical management of HF

A

ABAL

ACEi

Beta Blocker

Aldosterone antagonist, eg spironolactone

Loop diuretic, eg bendroflumethiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prinzmetals/variant angina on ECG

A

ST elevation (but troponin not elevated so not STEMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stable/unstable angina on ECG

A

Normal or ST depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Gold standard investigation for ulcerative colitis

A

Colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Gold standard investigation for coeliac
Duodenal biopsy
26
What will a duodenal biopsy show in Coeliac
Villous atrophy Raised epithelial lymphocytes
27
Key presentation of diverticulitis
Older age Fever Left Lower Quadrant pain Leukocytosis Rectal bleeding
28
Biggest RF for diverticulitis
Low fibre diet
29
Define primary sclerosing cholangitis
Inflammation and fibrosis of intra and extra hepatic bile ducts
30
Common presentation of PSC
All ages Jaundice Itching Pain in RUQ Muscle atrophy & weight loss **Associated with IBD**
31
Common presentation of PBC
- Middle aged - Female - **Not** associated with IBD - Hx of autoimmune disease - Itch - Fatigue - Jaundice
32
Antibody present in PBC
Anti-mitochondrial Ab (AMA)
33
Management for PBC & PSC
PSC - conservative. No direct treatment PBC - ursodeoxycholic acid & potential transplant
34
Gold standard investigation Mallory Weiss tear
Upper GI endoscopy
35
Gold standard investigation in oesphageal varices
Gastroscopy
36
Presentation of Mallory Weiss tear
- Episodes of forceful retching, vomiting, coughing, straining - Black tarry stools - melaena - Hx alcohol abuse - Haematemesis
37
Mutation in haemachromatosis
C282Y
38
Presentation of haemachromatosis
Non-specific - Skin pigmentation "more tanned" - Lethargy - Weakness
39
Treatment of haemachromatosis
Bloodletting Iron chelating drugs, eg deferoxamine or deferasirox
40
Presentation of Wilson's disease (4)
- Younger age 10-40 - Dysdiadochokinesis / problems with fine motor movements - Eyes changing colour - Stiff & slow movements
41
Major presentation of pancreatitis (3)
'severe epigastric pain that radiates to the back' - Abdo pain after meal - Steatorrhoea - Alcohol abuse - Diabetes is associated
42
Histology of Crohn's
Transmural inflammation with granulomas and lymphoid aggregates
43
Histology of UC
Crypt abscesses Pseudopolyps
44
Most common type of leukaemia in children
ALL
45
What would you suspect in a patient who is 'lemon yellow' colour
Pernicious anaemia Mild jaundice + anaemia pallor
46
Reed sternberg cells indicate\_\_\_\_\_
Hodgkin's lymphoma
47
Bence Jones protein indicates \_\_\_\_\_
Myeloma
48
Koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails) indicate \_\_\_\_\_\_
Iron deficiency anaemia
49
Treatment for pernicious anaemia
IM hydroxycobalamin (B12)
50
Where are iron, folate and B12 absorbed?
Iron - duodenum Folate - jejenum B12 - terminal ileum
51
B12 vs folate clinical
B12 - neuro symptoms, folate does not
52
Triplet change in sickle cell anaemia
GAG → GTG adenine → thymine glutamic acid → valine overall
53
What haematological condition can henna trigger?
G6PD
54
Chromosome in CML
Philadelphia chromosome t[9:22]
55
Treatment for CML
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor = imatinib
56
Key presentation of achalasia
- Difficulty swallowing solids - Regurg rather than reflux - Slow oesophageal movement
57
1st line investigation of Coeliac
Anti-tTg antibody - must keep gluten in diet for 6 weeks
58
Gastric vs duodenal ulcers
Gastric - worse with eating Duodenal - improve after eating
59
RFs for oesophageal cancer
- Achalasia - Barrett's oesophagus - Diverticulitis - FHx - ↑ age - Male - GORD - Alcohol + smoking - Hiatal hernia
60
HLA-DQ2/DQ8 gene associated with\_\_\_?
Coeliac
61
1st line treatment for Crohn's
Prednisolone
62
C.diff infection occurs\_\_\_
During or after a course of Abx
63
JAK2 mutation occurs in\_\_\_\_\_
Polycythaemia rubra vera
64
Dragging sensation around rectum/anus indicates
Rectal prolapse
65
Neoplasm = \_\_\_\_\_
Autonomous, abnormal, persistent, new growth
66
Rouleaux formation is seen in the blood smear from a patient with what?
Myeloma
67
Smudge cells are seen on a blood smear from a pt with
CLL
68
Auer rods are seen in a blood smear from a pt with
AML
69
Gold standard investigation of sickle cell anaemia
Hb electrophoresis
70
When does sideroblastic anaemia occur?
When RBCs fail to form haem Iron deposits in the mitochondria
71
Which cell types are likely to be raised in CML?
Eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils (all derived from myeloid progenitor cells)
72
What is Courvoisiers sign and what does a positive result indicate?
A palpable gallbladder in the presence of painless jaundice Rules out gallstones So likley to be an obstructing pancreatic or biliary neoplasm
73
X-ray finding in RA
LOES Loss of joint space Osteopenia Erosion of bone Swelling of soft tissue
74
Hand deformities in RA
Ulnar deviation Swan neck fingers Boutenniere deformity
75
Hand deformities in OA
Herberden's node - distal Bouchard's node - proximal
76
What type of hypersensitivity is seen in lupus
Type III | (3 letter in SLE = type 3)
77
Pathophysiology of systemic sclerosis
Increased fibroblast activity So increased collagen deposition
78
Presentation of systemic sclerosis
CREST Calcinosis - calcium deposition in subcutaneous tissue Raynauds Eosophageal dysmotility or strictures Sclerodactyly - local thickening/tightness of skin on fingers/toes Telenagiectasia - spider veins
79
Mechanism of bisphosphonates
Inhibits osteoclasts | (1st line treatment in osteoporosis)
80
Most common nerve injury in a mid-shaft humerus fracture
Radial nerve
81
Earliest feature of ankylosing spondylitis seen on x-ray
Sacroilitis
82
In osteoporosis, levels of: - Serum calcium - Serum phosphate - ALP - PTH
All are normal
83
In osteomalacia, levels of: - Serum calcium - Serum phosphate - ALP - PTH
- Serum calcium = LOW - Serum phosphate = LOW - ALP = HIGH - PTH = HIGH
84
Most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients
Salmonella
85
Most common cause of osteomyelitis in IVDU and immunocompromised patients
E.coli or pseudomonas
86
Appearance of a joint fluid aspirate from a patient with gout
Long needle-shaped crystals Negatively bifringent under plane polarised light
87
Appearance of a joint fluid aspirate from a patient with pseuogout
Rhomboid shaped crystals Positively bifringent under plane polarised light
88
Pathophysiology of Paget's disease
Localised disorder of bone remodelling Leads to ↑ bone resorption followed by ↑ formation of weaker bone
89
Typical presentation of Paget's (4)
Older male Bone pain Deafness Skull thickening Fractures Osteosarcoma
90
Relevant blood test result in Paget's
Raised ALP
91
Most sensitive and most specific antibody for SLE
Sensitive = ANA Specific = anti-ds DNA
92
Inflammatory marker levels in SLE
CRP - normal ESR - raised
93
Classic presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome
Thrombosis and or recurrent miscarriages - Coagulation defects - Thrombocytopenia - Obstetric issues
94
Classic features of Ewing's sarcoma on x-ray
Lytic bone lesions Onion skin appearance
95
Classic presentation of osteosarcoma on x-ray
Sunburst/sunray spiculation
96
Classic presentation of chrondrosarcoma on x-ray
Popcorn calficications Lytic lesions
97
Risk factors for developing osteoporosis
SHATTERED S - steroid use H - hyperthyroidism & hyperparathyroidism A - alcohol & tobacco T - thin (low BMI) T - Testosterone decrease E - early menopause R - renal or liver failure E - erosive/inflammatory bone disease D - dietary calcium decrease
98
ECG in atrial fibrillation
Irregularly irregular Absent P waves
99
ECG in atrial flutter
Saw tooth with F waves between QRS complex
100
ECG in type 2 heartblock mobitz II
PR interval remains the same length QRS complexes dropped
101
Gold standard investigation of pericarditis
ECG - saddle shaped ST elevation
102
Drug to treat AV block
Amlodipine
103
2 most common causes of pancreatitis
Alcohol abuse Gallstones
104
Variations in the NOD-2 gene have been linked to what disease?
Crohn's
105
A lumbar puncture has granulocytes, high protein and low glucose - what is the likely cause of illness
Bacterial
106
A lumbar puncture has lymphocytes, high protein and low glucose - what is the likely cause of illness
Fungal or TB
107
A lumbar puncture has lymphocytes, high protein and normal glucose - what is the likely cause of illness
Viral
108
Overall function of calcitonin
Reduces level of calcium in the blood
109
Diagnostic antibody for goodpasture's syndrome
Anti-GBM | (anti-glomerular basement membrane)
110
Gold standard treatment for very active RA
Methotrexate
111
1st line treatment for acute gout
Modify RFs _(or) Pharmacological:_ NSAIDs or Colchicine
112
1st line treatment for chronic gout
Allopurinol
113
Difference between rickets and osteomalacia?
Rickets is osteomalacia in children
114
Pathophysiology of osteomalacia
Defective mineralisation of newly formed bone matrix or osteoid in adults Due to low phosphate or calcium and ↑ bone resorption
115
First line treatment of ischaemic stroke
Loading dose of aspirin
116
Treatment of epilepsy
Sodium valproate In pregnant women give Imotrigine
117
Specific drug to treat myoclonic seizures
Levetiracetam or topiramate
118
Specific drug to treat absence seizures
Ethosuximide
119
Gold standard investigation of Parkinson's
DaT scan
120
Genetic cause of Huntington's
Mutation on chromosome 4 leading to repeated CAG
121
Key features of Alzheimer's on scans
Beta-amyloid plaques Neurofibrillary tangles
122
Management of Alzheimer's
Cholinesterase inhibitors
123
Key feature of Lewy body's dementia on scans
Lewybodies in **occipito-parietal** region
124
Management of Lewy body's demention
Cholinesterase inhibitors
125
Classic presentation of cluster headache
Excruciating pain - localised around one eye - Watery blood shot eye - Facial flushing - Rhinorrhoea - Miosis/ptosis
126
Management of cluster headache
Sumatriptan
127
How to spot MS on an MRI
GD-enhancing plaques
128
Management of motor neurone disease
Supportive care Riluzole - delays need for respiratory assistance
129
Management of myaesthenia gravis
Symptom control - reversible ACHesterase inhibitors, eg pyridostigmine Immunosuppression Thymectomy
130
Diagnostic test for myaesthenia gravis?
Tensilon test will be positive A person tests positive for myasthenia gravis if their muscles get stronger after being injected with Tensilon. Tensilon prevents the breakdown of ACh
131
Which antibody is a patient with myasthenia gravis most likely to be positive for?
Antibodies to post-synaptic acetylcholine receptors (anti-ACh)
132
Patient is diagnosed with MG. What scan do you order & why?
CT neck scan - thymoma is common in MG patients
133
Which two signs will be positive in meningitis
Kernig's and Brudzinski's
134
Describe Kernig's sign
Positive = resistance to extension of leg while hip is flexed
135
Describe Brudzinski's sign
Flexion of the hips and knees in response to neck flexion
136
First line investigation in meningitis
Blood cultures = first line
137
Which organism is the most common trigger of Guillain-Barre syndrome
Campylobacter jejenum
138
Presentation of Guillain-Barre syndrome
Sudden growing weakness up to 6 weeks after an infection Weakness spreads proximally Glove & stocking distribution
139
Investigation of GBS
Slow conduction velocities Protein in CSF
140
Important parameter to monitor in a pt with GBS with ascending neuropathy
FVC - monitor pulmonary function
141
Antibody present in GBS
Antiganglioside antibodies (anti-GM1)
142
Prophylaxis for cluster headaches
Verapamil
143
Prophylaxis for migraine - first, second and third line
1 - propanolol (not in asthmatic) 2 - topiramate (not in pregnancy) 3 - amitryptilline
144
Gold standard investigation of SAH
Head CT
145
Most common clinical presentation of fronto-temporal (Pick's dementia)
Personality change
146
Which nerves tend to be affected in cauda equina syndrom
S1-S5
147
Gold standard investigation for kidney stones
Non-contrast CT of kidneys, ureter and bladder
148
Stages of CKD based on GFR
1: GFR\>90 2: 60-89 3a: 45-59 3b: 30-44 4: 15-29 5: \<15
149
Classic triad of symptoms in pyelonephritis
- Loin pain - Fever - Pyuria
150
Treatment of pyelonephritis
Ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav
151
Causes of pre-renal AKI (3)
- Hypotension - Hypovolaemia - Low cardiac output (ie HF) - Low renal perfusion
152
Causes of renal/intrinsic AKI (3)
- Glomerulonephritis - Vasculitis - Rhabdomyolysis - Acute tubular necrosis
153
Causes of post-renal AKI (3)
- Stones - BPH - Prostate cancer - Bladder cancer - Blood clots - Urethral stricture
154
Antibiotic to treat gonorrhoea
IM ceftriaxone
155
Clasic presentation of bladder cancer
- **Painless** haematuria - Weight loss - UTI symptoms with bacteriuria
156
Gold standard investigation of bladder cancer
Flexible cystoscopy
157
Most common cause of nephritic syndrome
IgA nephropathy
158
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
159
Drug to treat urge incontinence
Oxybutynin
160
Gold standard diagnosis of prostate cancer
Transrectal US guided biopsy
161
Nephrotoxic drug examples (3)
NSAIDs ACEi Aminoglycides ARB Loop diuretics
162
CKD management
Slow the progression of the disease * - DM treatment * - HTN treatment Reduce risk of CVD * - Statin Manage complications * - Give vit D * - Treat anaemia
163
Presentation of prostate cancer
LUTS Haematuria Back pain
164
Management of epididymitis
IM ceftriaxone
165
Presentation of testicular cancer (3)
Painless lump Hydrocele Gynacomastia
166
Diagnosis of testicular cancer
US
167
Presentation of IgA nephropathy
Generally asymptomatic Microscopic haematuria
168
Presentation of Goodpasture's
Oliguria SOB
169
Gold standard investigation of Goodpasture's
Anti-GBM antibodies in blood
170
Management of Goodpasture's (3)
- Plasma exchange - Steroids - Cyclophosphamide
171
Presentation of post-strep glomerulonephritis
- Haematuria - Evidence of strep infection
172
Presentation of IgA vasculitis
- Purpuric rash on legs - Nephritic symptoms - haematuria etc - Joint pain
173
Treatment of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- Steroids - ACEi/ARB
174
Antibody found in most patients with membranous nephropathy
Anti phospholipase A2 receptor antibody
175
Classic presentation of renal cancer
- Haematuria - Flank pain - Palpable abdo mass
176
Investigations to diagnose renal cancer (5)
- Bloods - polycythaemia - Raised BP - due to renin secretion - US - CT/MRI - CXR - cannonball mets
177
Aetiology of UTI
- Klebsiella - E.coli - Enterococci - Proteus - Staphylococcus coagulase -ve
178
Gold standard investigation of pyelonephritis
Mid-stream urine and culture
179
1st line treatment for pyelonephritis
- Cefalexin - Analgesia
180
Gold standard investigation for cystitis
Urine culture & sensitivity
181
Most common cause of prostatitis
E.coli
182
Management of prostatitis
Ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin
183
Management of chlamydia
Azithromycin 1g dose Doxycycline
184
Presentation of chlamydia in men
- Testicular pain - Dysuria
185
3 places to find urolithiasis
- Pelvicoureteric junction - Pelvic brim - Vesicouretal junction
186
Risk factors for urolithiasis
Dehydration High salt intake Obesity - lowers bodily pH Oxalate rich diet Gout
187
1st line investigation of urolithiasis
KUBXR
188
Gold standard investigation of urolithiasis
Non-contrast CT of KUB
189
Diagnostic test for STIs
Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
190
Best treatment for proteinuria in CKD
ACEi/ARB
191
Complications of uraemia
High urea - Pericarditis - Encephalopathy - Renal colic
192
Most common cause of acute epididymitis
Chlamydia trachomatis
193
1st & 2nd line treatment of T2DM
1. Diet & lifestyle changes 2. Metformin
194
Presentation of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
- Severe dehydration - Decreased level of consciousness - Hyperglycaemia - Hyperosmolality - No ketones in blood or urine - Stupor or coma
195
Treatment of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
- Replace fluid - IV saline - Insulin - low rate of infusion - Restore electrolytes - LMWH
196
Treatment of DKA (4)
- ABC management - Replace fluid with 0.9% IV saline - IV insulin - Restore electrolytes, eg K+
197
Presentation specific to Grave's disease (rather than hyperthyroidism as a whole)
- Orbital inflammation & swelling of extra-ocular muscles - Eye discomfort - Grittiness - Increased tear production - Diplopia
198
Treatment of De Quervain's thyroiditis
Aspirin (in v v symptomatic cases give prednisolone)
199
Grave's specific antibody
TSH receptor stimulating antibodies (TSHR-Ab)
200
1st line treatment of hyperthyroidism
Carbimazole
201
Investigation specific to Hashimoto's thyroiditis
TPO antibody will be present
202
Presentation of thyroid carcinoma
Thyroid nodules Cervical lymphadenopathy Thyroid gland ↑ in side, is hard or irregular in shape Dysphagia Hoarseness of voice
203
1st line investigation of acromegaly
IGF-1 will be raised
204
Gold standard investigation of acromegaly
Oral glucose tolerance test - No suppression of glucose - Since normally glucose should inhibit GH release & this isn't happening
205
Aside from surgery, how can acromegaly be treated?
- Somatostatin analogue - GH receptor antagonist - Dopamine agonist
206
2 main points in clinical presentation of Conn's
Hypertension Hypokalaemia - Weakness/cramps - Paraesthesia - Polyuria - Polydipsia
207
1st line treatment of Conn's
Spironolactone
208
Gold standard treatment of Conn's
Laparoscopic adrenalectomy
209
Clinical presentation of Addison's
- Female - Fatigue - Anorexia & weight loss - Skin more pigmented - Diarrhoea, constipation, abdo pain
210
1st line investigation of Addison's & the results
U+Es - Hyponatraemia - Hyperkalaemia - Hypoglycaemia
211
Gold standard investigation of Addison's
Short synACTHen test Result = low cortisol
212
Causes of primary, secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism
10 = parathyroid gland produces excess PTH 20 = caused by low calcium → excess PTH to compensate 30 = autonomous PTH secretion
213
Causes of primary and secondary hypoparathyroidism
10 = parathyroid gland failure - autoimmune or idiopathic 20 = following parathyroidectomy or thyroidectomy
214
Clinical presentation of hypoparathyroidism
Low PTH → low Ca * Convulsions * Arrhythmias * Tetany * Spasms * Hand numbness
215
Clinical presentation of hypercalcaemia
Stones, moans, groans etc - Kidney stones - Constipation - Abdo pain - Depression & other psychiatric problems
216
Serum sodium level in diabetes insipidus
Hypernatraemia (excess water lost so sodium levels in blood not 'watered down')
217
FEV1/FVC ratio in asthma
\<0.7
218
Asthma management ladder
SABA SABA + ICS SABA + ICS + LTRA SABA + ICS + LABA (+LTRA in adults)
219
COPD management in non-asthmatics
SABA & LABA + LAMA SABA & LABA + LAMA + ICS
220
COPD management in asthmatics
SABA or SAMA & LABA + ICS SABA & LABA + LAMA + ICS
221
Pneumothorax presentation
- Usually following trauma (or underlying condition) - Young, male, tall, thin - Chest pain - Dyspnoea - Absent breath sounds on auscultation
222
Diagnostic investigation of pneumothorax
CXR - area devoid of lung markings periperhal to the edge of the collapsed lung
223
Management of a primary pneumothorax \>2cm
Aspirate or chest drain
224
Management of secondary pneumothorax: \<1cm, 1-2cm and \>2cm
\<1cm = O2 & admit 1-2cm = aspirate \>2cm = chest drain
225
Diagnosis of active TB
CXR - upper lobe cavitation
226
Gold standard diagnosis of active TB
Sputum sample - Ziehl Niehsen stain
227
Management of active TB
RIPE Rifampacin Isonazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
228
Side effect of TB drugs
Rifampacin - orange urine Isonazid - neuropathy Pyrazinamide - gout Ethambutol - optic neuritis
229
Presentation of cystic fibrosis
- Neonatal jaundice - Recurrent chest infections - Steatorrhoea - Malabsorption - DM - Male infertility
230
Management of cystic fibrosis
- Postural drainage & chest physio - High calorie, high fat diet - Pancreatic supplementation - Minimise contact with other infective patients
231
Causes of bronchiectasis
- Cystic fibrosis - Post-infection - Lung cancer
232
Presentation of bronchiectasis
- Cough - khaki coloured sputum - Dyspnoea - Haemoptysis - Recurrent chest infections
233
Diagnosis of bronchiectasis
CXR: dilated bronchi with thickened walls Sputum: H.influenzae most common
234
Management of bronchiectasis
- Physical training - Postural drainage - Prophylactic abx - Surgery (localised disease)
235
Commonest cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised
Pneumocystitis jiroveci
236
Atypical cause of pneumonia & how this would show in the Hx?
Legionella - Hx of travel abroad eg to Spain - Dodgy AC - Multiple people from same event with the illness
237
Presentation of pneumonia
- SOB - Productive cough - Fever - Pleuritic chest pain - Dull to percus - Increased vocal resonance - Coarse crackles on auscultation
238
1st line investigation of pneumonia
CURB-65 * Confusion * Urea \>7 * RR \>30 * BP\<90 systolic &/or \<60 diastolic * Age ≥ 65yrs
239
Management of pneumonia
- Abx - O2 - Analgesia - Fluid
240
2 examples of NSCLC
- Adenocarcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Large cell & differentiated tumours - Carcinoid tumours
241
Most common primary lung cancer
Adenocarcinoma
242
Squamous cell carcinoma is most strongly associated with \_\_\_?
Cigarette smoking
243
What cells does a squamous cell carcinoma typically arise from?
Epithelial cells in the central bronchus
244
Which cancer types commonly spread to the lungs
Breast Bowel Bladder Kidney Prostate
245
1st line investigation of lung cancer & what do you see?
CXR - Opacified lesion - Hilar enlargement - Pleural effusion - Collapse
246
2 exudative causes of pleural effusion?
Usually related to inflammation so local - Lung cancer - Pneumonia - Rheumatoid arthritis - TB
247
2 transudative causes of pleural effusion
- Congestive HF - Fluid overload - Hypoalbuminaemia (fluid shifting)
248
Presentation of pleural effusion
- SOB - Cough - Stony dull percussion over effusion - Reduced breath sounds - Tracheal deviation away from effusion
249
1st line investigation of pleural effusion & what is the result?
CXR - Blunting of costophrenic angle - Fluid in lung fissures - Meniscus - Tracheal and mediastinal deviation if large effusion
250
Treatment of pleural effusion
If fluid overload or CHF cause: **diuretic** Infective: **antibiotics** Large effusions: **aspiration or drainage**
251
Presentation of pulmonary embolism
- Acute onset SOB - Cough +/- haemoptysis - Pleuritic chest pain - DVT - Hypoxia - Tachycardia - Low grade fever
252
Scoring for PE
WELLS score
253
Management of PE
1st line - Apixaban or rivaroxaban DOAC 2nd line - or LMWH
254
Presentation of haemothorax
- Chest pain - Haemoptysis - Dyspnoea - Auscultation - hyperresonant breath sounds
255
Landmarks for a chest drain
Mid-axillary line of 5th intercostal space - Anterior/lateral edge of latissimus dorsi - Lateral edge of pectoralis major
256
What do you hear on auscultation of patient with pneumonia
Increased vocal resonance Coarse crackles Dull to percus
257
What do you hear on auscultation of patient with pulmonary fibrosis
Fine respiratory crackles
258
What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with sclc
High ADH → hyponatraemia High ACTH → Cushing's High PTH → hyperparathyroidism
259
Major presentation of Wegner's granulomatosis
- cANCA positive - Hearing loss, sinusitis, nose bleeds - Saddle shaped nose due to perforated septum
260
Investigation of Sjogren's
Anti-LA & Anti-Ro are specific to Sjogren's Schirmer test
261
3 x-ray findings in ankylosing spondylitis
* Squaring of vertebral bodies * Subchondral sclerosis and erosions * Syndesmophytes * Ossification of the ligaments, discs and joints * Fusion of the facet, sacroiliac and costovertebral joints
262
Management of RA (1-4 line)
1. DMARD, eg methotrexate or sulfasalazine 2. 2 of the above 3. Methotrexate + biologic (usually anti-TNF) 4. Rituximab
263
Complications of rheumatoid arthritis
- Felty's syndrome (RA, neutropenia, splenomegaly) - Anaemia of chronic disease - Pulmonary fibrosis - Amyloidosis
264
Explain Felty's syndrome
RA Neutropenia Splenomegaly → repeated infections
265
Typical presentation of dermatomyositis
- V high creatinine kinase - Gottron lesions - Photosensitive erythematous rash on back & neck - Purple rash on face & eyelids - Subcutaenous calcinosis - Anti-Jo-1 antibodies
266
Antibodies present in dermatomyositis and/or polymyositis
_Dermatomyositis_ - Anti-Jo-1 - Anti-Mi-2 - ANA _Polymyositis_ - Anti-Jo-1
267
Dermatomyositis vs polymyositis?
Dermatomyositis is chronic inflammation of the **skin and muscles** Polymyositis = chronic inflammation of the **muscles only**
268
Cola coloured urine and muscle pain suggests what?
Rhabdomyolisis
269
Risk factors for fibromyalgia
- Low income - Being divorced - Low education status - Depression - Overprotective family **or** lack of support - Middle age
270
First line treatment of septic arthritis (before organism has been confirmed)
Flucloxacillin
271
Presentation of reactive arthritis
- Hx infection, eg tonsilitis - Conjunctivitis - Urethritis - Enthesitis 'can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree'
272
What disease is very closely associated with osteosarcoma
Hereditary retinoblastoma
273
Young patient (10-20yrs), with bone pain or fracture that commonly wakes them in the night. FHx of an eye disease. What diagnosis do you suspect?
Osteosarcoma
274
2 conditions associated with PSC
Ulcerative colitis Cholangiocarcinoma
275
2 conditions associated with PBC
- Hepatocellular carcinoma - RA (or other autoimmune condition)
276
First line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine
277
Presentation of progressive bulbar palsy
Dysarthria Dysphagia Nasal regurgitation of fluids and choking LMN lesions of tongue & muscles of talking or swallowing → absent jaw jerk reflex Flaccid fasciculating tongue Change in speech
278
Symptoms of raised ICP
Drowsy Headache Vomiting
279
Most common cause of septic arthritis in a young, sexually active patient
N. gonorrhoeae (S.aureus in whole population)
280
1st line & gold standard investigations of gallstones
1st line = USS Gold standard = MRCP
281
Gold standard investigation of acute pancreatitis
CT abdomen | (US = first line)
282
Lucid interval following trauma suggests what type of haemorrhage?
Extra-dural
283
What test monitors progression of diabetes?
HbA1c (level \>48 indicates dabetes
284
Mechanism of action of sulfonylurea
Increases insulin production: - Binds to K+ channels in ß cells - Increases depolarisation
285
Most common cause of Cushing's syndrome?
Exogenous steroids
286
Signs of peritonitis (4)
- Rebound tenderness - Shoulder tip pain - Localised guarding - Rigidity
287
Hx of chronic Hep C, fevers, rigors, distended abdomen and shifting dullness indicate what?
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
288
Slate grey skin suggests? What would be your 1st and gold standard line treatment?
Haemachromatosis 1. Venesection Gold = liver transplant
289
What antibiotic commonly causes AKI?
Gentamicin
290
Types of adverse drug reaction summarised
Augmented - predictable, dose dependent, common Bizarre - not predictable and not dose dependent Chronic - due to a cumulative dose, time-related Delayed - become apparent a while after using the medication End of use - occur after abrupt drug withdrawal
291
Example of Type A ADR
Morphine & constipation (eg predictable)
292
Example of type B ADR
Not predictable and not dose dependent eg anaphylaxis & penicillin
293
Example of type C ADR
Osteoporosis and steroids
294
Example of type D ADR
Thalidomide and limb abnormalities in babies
295
Example of type E ADR
Opiate withdrawal syndrome
296
First line of investigation of autosomal dominant PKD
Renal USS
297
Which zone of the prostate is most commonly abnormal in prostate cancer?
Peripheral zone
298
Which zone of the prostate is most commonly abnormal in BPH?
Transitional zone
299
Schistosomiasis causes what type of bladder cancer?
Squamous cell carcinoma
300
Most common type of bladder cancer?
Urothelial carcinoma
301
RFs for sub-dural haemorrhage
Older age Alcoholism Hx of recurrent head trauma
302
Investigations of sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
CT head Lumbar puncture
303
What will a lumbar puncture done 12 hours after suspected SAH show to confirm the diagnosis?
Xanthrochromic (straw coloured due to breakdown of bilirubin in RBCs)
304
Triad of symptoms in Horner's syndrome
Ptosis (drooping upper eyelid) Miosis (pupil constriction) Anhidrosis (ipsilateral loss of sweating)
305
What is budenoside an example of?
Inhaled corticosteroid
306
CT findings in bronchiectasis
- Signet-ring sign = prominent dilated airway compared to accompanying vessel
307
Which way does the trachea deviate from a pneumothorax
Away from the affected lung
308
3 causes of pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary embolism COPD Obstructive sleep apnea Obesity CVD
309
Presentation of pulmonary HTN
- Chest pain - Signs of cor pulmonale, eg oedema, hepatomegaly - Lethargy - Fatigue - Exertional dyspnoea
310
Typical presentation of sarcoidosis
- Young, black female - Dry cough - SOB - Erythema nodosum - Fever - Fatigue - Weight loss - Polyarthralgia _Lofgren's triad = bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, polyarthralgia_
311
Gold standard investigation of sarcoidosis and what will confirm the diagnosis
US guided biopsy of mediastinal lymph nodes - Non-caseating granulomas with epithelioid cells
312
Management of sarcoidosis
1st line = no treatment 2nd line = steroids (if treatment required) 3rd = methotrexate Final: lung transplant
313
3 signs of COPD on x-ray
- Flattened hemidiaphragm - Hyperinflation - Bullae
314
Least likely lung cancer to metastasise
Mesothelioma
315
3 examples of restrictive lung disorders
Intrapulmonary * idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis * extrinsic allergic alveolitis * coal worker's pneumoconiosis/progressive massive fibrosis * silicosis * sarcoidosis * drug-induced fibrosis: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate * asbestosis Extrapulmonary * neuromuscular disease: polio, myasthenia gravis * obesity * scoliosis
316
Summarise type 1 hypersensitivity
Immunological memory to something causing an immediate and often severe allergic response
317
Example of type 1 hypersensitivity
Hayfever Anaphylaxis
318
Summarise type 2 hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic, antibody dependent Immunoglobulins bound to surface antigens on a target cell which is actually a host cell
319
Example of T2 hypersensitivity
Goodpasture's
320
Summarise T3 hypersensitivity
Immune complex disease Antibodies bind to soluble antigen forming a circulating immune complex Little lumps get deposited in skin, lung etc activating immunity → local inflammation
321
Example of T3 hypersensitivity reaction
SLE
322
Summarise T4 hypersensitivity
Delayed T cell mediated TH cells activated by APC When antigen appears again, macrophages are activated → inflammatory response
323
Example of T4 hypersensitivity
Exposure to poison ivy → contact dermatitis
324
You suspect DVT in a patient. How does their Well's score impact first line investigation
If ≤1, first line = quantative D-dimer If ≥2, first line = proximal leg vein USS
325
You suspect PE in a patient. How does their Well's score impact first line investigation
If score ≤4, first line =quantative D-dimer test If score \>4, first line = immediate CT pulmonary angiogram
326
Which 2 types of cancers spread transcoelomically? (through body wall)
Mesothelioma Ovarian carcinoma
327
Example of cancers which typically spread haematogenously
Bone and soft tissue tumours
328
Example of cancers which typically spread lymphatically
* Melanoma * Breast * Lung * GI tumours
329
Example of a SAMA drug
Ipatropium
330
Example of a LAMA drug
Tiotropium
331
What is the name given to not being able to extend the knee when the hip is flexed?
Kernig's sign
332
What is the name given to the hips and knees needing to flex when the neck is flexed?
Brudzinski's neck sign
333
As well as blood cultures & CSF analysis, what investigations can be done if you suspect meningitis
- Head CT - Throat swabs - Bloods: FBC, CRP - Pneumococcal and meningiococcal PCR
334
Gram negative diplococci that causes meningitis
Neisseria meningitidis
335
Treatment of a meningitis patient in hospital
Urgent cefotaxime IV Consider amoxicillin if pt immunocompromoised or over 55
336
Treatment of a meningitis patient in primary care
Benzylpenicillin
337
Mechanism of action of COMT inhibitors & MAO-B inhibitors
Act to stop the breakdown of dopamine clearance, increases dopamine available
338
Symptoms specific to a MCA stroke
- Contralateral motor weakness of upper limbs - Contralateral sensory loss of upper limbs - Hemianopia - Face drop - Aphasia - Dysphasia
339
Symptoms specific to an ACA stroke
- Contralateral weakness and sensory loss of the lower limb - Incontinence - Drowsiness - Truncal ataxia - drunken sailor gait
340
Symptoms specific to a PCA stroke
- Loss of peripheral vision - Cortical blindness - eye healthy, but vision lost - Prosopagnosia - cannot see faces - Unilateral headache
341
Red flag symptoms associated with headaches
- New headache with hx cancer - Cluster headache - Seizure - Altered: consciousness, memory, co-ordination, confusion
342
Drug to reduce a raised ICP
Mannitol
343
3 signs of lower MND
Decreased tone/flaccid Decreased reflexes Muscle wasting Fasciculations
344
3 signs of upper MND
- Increased tone - Brisk reflexes - Minimal muscle atrophy - Babinski's sign
345
Describe Babinski's sign & explain what a positive result might indicate
Occurs after the sole of the foot has been firmly stroked. Big toe moves upwards in a positive result Can indicate * UMN lesion * Stroke * Brain injury or tumour * MS * Meningitis * Spinal cord tumour or injury
346
What scoring tool measures risk of stroke following TIA
ABCD2
347
Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome
Median nerve
348
Most common cause of cauda equina syndrome
Herniated disc
349
Treatment of myasthenia gravis
Reversible AChsterase inhibitors (usually pyridostigmine) Immunosuppression (prednisolone) Thymectomy
350
Mechanism of pyridostigmine
Reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - Increases amount of ACh in NMJ - Improves symptoms of MG
351
Management of Huntington's chorea
No treatment option to slow or stop disease progression * Speech & language therapy * Genetic counselling Symptom relief: * Antipsychotics * Benzodiazepines * Dopamine depleting agents
352
Management of GBS
* IV immunoglobulins * Plasma exchange * Supportive care * Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis
353
What condition is strongly linked to Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Small cell lung cancer
354
How to differentiate LEMS & MG
Autonomic dysfunction is not caused by MG, but is caused by LEMS Presence of acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibodies strongly suggests MG
355
Management of LEMS
Amifampridine Investigate for SCLC
356
Mechanism of drug used to treat LEMS
Amifampridine - Allows more ACh to be released in the NMJ synapses - Prolongs depolarisation of cell membranes - Improves symptoms in LEMS
357
Pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
Inherited mutations Typically affect Schwann cells & myelin → demyelination
358
Classical features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
- High foot arches - Distal muscle wasting - Weakness in lower legs → ankle dorsiflexion - Weakness in the hands - Reduced tendon reflexes - Reduced muscle tone - Peripheral sensory loss
359
Typical cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy
Deficiency of thiamine
360
Describe Gower's sign
Suggests muscular dystrophy Children with proximal muscle weakness use a specific technique to stand up from a lying position: * They get onto their hands and knees * Then push their hips up and backwards like the “downward dog” yoga pose. * They then shift their weight backwards and transfer their hands to their knees. * Whilst keeping their legs mostly straight they walk their hands up their legs to get their upper body erect.
361
Inheritance pattern of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
X-linked recessive
362
Typical presentation of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
- Boys - Aged 3-5 years - Vague symptoms of muscle weakness ?FHx
363
Management of muscular dystrophy
- Oral steroids can slow progression - Creatine supplementation - OT - Physio - Surgical & medical management of complications eg scoliosis
364
Most common viral cause of encephalitis
Herpes simplex virus
365
Management of viral encephalitis
Aciclovir
366
Typical presentation of herpes zoster
- Localised pain in a dermatome - Erythematous maculopapular rash - in affected dermatome - Fever, headache etc
367
Management of herpes zoster
- Reduce pain using analgesics - Aciclovir
368
How does ramipril affect potassium levels?
Increases them ACEi → reduces aldosterone & ADH so more Na+ lost so more K+ retained
369
How does nebulised salbutamol affect potassium levels?
Lowers them
370
Gold standard investigation for phaeochromocytoma
Elevated plasma free metanephrines (made when body breaks down adrenaline & noradrenaline - has longer half life than them)
371
Mechanism of action of sulfonylurea
- Bind to an ATP-dependent K+ channel on the cell membrane of beta cells - Increasing insulin secretion
372
Levels of glucose, sodium and potassium in Addisonian crisis
Glucose - low Sodium - low Potassium - high
373
What type of cells secrete PTH
Chief cells
374
What condition is associated with TSH-R antibodies
Grave's disease
375
Give signs of a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis
- Bradycardia - Reflexes relax slowly - Ataxia - Dry/thin hair & skin - Yawning, drowsiness, coma - Cold hands - Ascites - Round puffy 'moon' face - Immobile
376
Presentation of phaeochromocytoma
- Palpitations - Headache - Episodic sweating - Anxiety - HTN
377
Most common site for carcinoid tumours to metastasise to
Liver Carcinoid tumour = a rare, slow growing tumour
378
Main side effect of metformin
Lactic acidosis
379
Main side effect of sulfonylurea
Frequent hypoglycaemia Weight gain
380
Main side effect of pioglitazone
Bladder cancer (rare)
381
Main side effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors
DKA
382
Nerve roots associated with carpal tunnel syndrome
C5/6-T1 median nerve
383
Describe the appearance of pre-tibial myxoedema
Waxy discolouration - 'orange peel' appearance
384
Diagnostic criteria of DKA
Ketones \>3mmol/L Glucose \>11mmol/L pH \<7.3
385
Arrange the drugs used to treat acromegaly in order of effectiveness
1. Somatostatin analogue 2. Dopamine agonist 3. GH receptor antagonist 4. Radiotherapy
386
1st & 2nd line drug in hypertensive crisis due to phaeochromocytoma
1. Phentolamine 2. Sodium nitroprusside
387
Most common causes of hypothyroidism in developing vs developed world
Developing = iodine deficiency Developed = Hashimoto's
388
What is the severity of COPD assessed by?
FEV1 percentage of predicted
389
Give an example of a respiratory condition which almost always reduces TLCO
Pulmonary fibrosis
390
Example of a condition that leads to T1 respiratory failure
Pneumonia Asthma Pulmonary embolism COPD
391
Example of a condition that leads to T2 respiratory failure
COPD (both T1&T2) Neuromuscular disease
392
Which tumour marker is likely to be raised in suspected testicular cancer?
Alpha-feto protein (AFP)
393
What does PKD give an increased risk? (3)
Brain aneurysms → SAH Liver cysts Pregnancy complications Mitral valve prolapse Diverticulitis
394
Site most commonly affected by Crohn's?
Terminal ileum
395
Mechanisms of action of steroid inhaler
- Decrease formation of cytokines - Decrease microvascular permeability - Inhibit influx of eosinophils - Reduce bronchial hyper-responsiveness
396
Which structure does the right testicular vein drain into?
IVC
397
Which structure does the left testicular vein drain into?
Left renal vein (so varocele more common on this side)
398
Biomarker most commonly associated with Ovarian cancer
CA-125
399
Mechanism of action of beta-lactams
Inhibit cross-linking of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
400
Mechanism of action of macrolides
Inhibit bacterial protein cell synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome
401
Which lobe of the lung is most likely to be affected in an aspiration pneumonia
Right lower lobe
402
Cognitive screening test used to support dementia diagnosis
MOCA - Montreal cognitive assessment MMSE - mini mental state exam ACE3 - Addenbrooke's cognitive exam 3
403
Where are biopsies typically taken from to confirm diagnosis of coeliac
Lining of small intestine
404
Drug to treat syphilis
Benzanthine penicillin or azithromycin
405
Prevention of recurrent kidney stones?
Thiazide diuretics Modify RFs - stay hydrated, lose weight, less oxalate in diet (eg red meat)
406
Define decubitus angina
Angina worse on lying down
407
Describe Dressler's syndrome
Pericarditis about 2-8/12 weeks after an MI
408
Pansystolic murmur with clear sounding lungs indicates?
Tricuspid regurgitation
409
Test to assess the adequacy of arterial supply to the leg
Buerger's test
410
First/most important step in treating septic shock?
Fluids
411
ECG changes in hyperparathyroidism
Tall T waves & short QT interval
412
Most common cause of IE in: IVDU, general population, people with prosthetic valves?
IVDU - s.aureus General - S.viridans Prosthetic valves - Staph epidermis
413
What does a seminoma secrete?
ALP
414
What does a choriocarcinoma secrete?
hCG
415
What does an endodermal yolk sac secrete?
AFP
416
Describe uric acid stones & calcium/magnesium stones appearance on x-ray
Uric acid = Radiolucent (not visible) Calcium/magensium = radiopaque or radiodense
417
What age does a female child need to be for a UTI to be considered complicated?
Less than 2 months old
418
Define sensitivity
No. true positives
419
Define specificity
No. true negatives
420
Define prevalence
No. cases in a given day
421
Define incidence
No. new cases in a given day
422
Define primary, secondary and tertiary care
Primary = prevention Secondary = early detection & stop progression (treat) Tertiary = reduce/treat complications
423
Which hep infection is associated with being transmitted by sex?
Hep B
424
If IgG antibody persists in a hep screen, what does this suggest?
Either a resolved or chronic infection
425
If IgM antibody persists in a hep screen, what does this suggest?
Acute infection
426
Causes of peritonitis
Ectopic pregnancy Bowel obstruction Peptic ulcer perforation Gastritis from H.pylori
427
Triad of symptoms in Wernicke's encephalopathy
- Ataxia - Opthalmoplegia - Confusion
428
When is Lofgren's triad seen & what does it involve?
Sarcoidosis - Fever - Erythema nodosum - Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
429
Appearance of a melanoma
Dark
430
Appearance of BCC
Pink, waxy, flat
431
Appearance of an SCC
Red, scaly, firm
432
Antibodies present in Wegener's granulomatosis
c-ANCA
433
What is Felty's triad?
RA, low WCC, splenomegaly
434
3 major organ systems affected by SLE & a consequence of each
Brain - seizures Heart - pericarditis Kidneys - kidney failure
435
1st line treatment for hypercalcaemia
Calcitonin & bisphosphonates
436
Cause of megaloblastic anaemia
B12 or folate deficiency
437
Most common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months
Group B strep
438
Most common cause of meningitis in children 3 months to 12 years
S. pnuemoniae
439
Most common cause of meningitis in teenagers
N. meningitidis
440
Most common cause of meningitis in over 55 or immune compromised
Listeria monocytogenes
441
What is MRC scoring used for?
Characterising baseline dyspnoea in patients with resp diseases such as COPD
442
PVD vs cauda equina clinically
PVD has no loss of bowel control, cauda equina does
443
What is Rovsing's sign?
Indicates appendicitis Pain in right abdo on palpating left
444
If a patients abdo pain is relieved by defaecation, what does this suggest?
IBS
445
What does high faecal calprotectin suggest?
IBD
446
Management of UC
Corticosteroids - prednisolone Ciclasporins - in very severe cases 5-ASA - Aspirin Thiopurines - azathioprine Biologics - infliximab, adalimumab
447
Extraintestinal manifestations of UC
PSC Ankylosing spondylitis Uveitis Erythema nodosum NAFLD
448
Describe the appearance of a blood film of a patient with beta thalassemia?
Large & small irregular hypochromic RBCs
449
What do oval macrocytes on a blood film indicate?
Megaloblastic anaemia
450
Cause of CML?
Translocation of a gene between chromosome 9&22 → philadelphia chromosome
451
Levels of potassium, urate, phosphate and calcium in tumour lysis syndrome
K+ = high Urate = high Phosphate = high Calcium = low
452
How to treat tumour lysis syndrome
- IV fluids - Medication to decrease uric acid - Replacement of electrolyte balance
453
What do you see on a blood film to confirm ALL
Blast cells \>20%
454
What is the more common mutation in PKD?
PKD1 gene on chromosome 16
455
What type of immune complex is involved in T1 hypersensitivity
IgE
456
Diagnostic criteria for PKD
At least 2 cysts either uni or bilaterally if aged \<30yrs At least 2 cysts in each kidneys age 30-59yrs At least 4 cysts in each kidney age \>60yrs
457
What does a combination of acute kidney injury and haemoptysis suggest. How can you tell between the differentials?
Goodpasture's - anti-GBM Wegener's - c-ANCA
458
What level does serum albumin need to be for a nephrotic syndrome diagnosis?
\<25g/L
459
Renal cell carcinoma stages?
1. Tumour \<7cm and only in the kidney 2. \>7cm and only in the kidney 3. Tumor is growing into a major vein, eg IVC 4. Tumour is growing beyond Gerota's fascia and might've reached the adrenal gland
460
Most common type of bladder cancer?
Transitional cell carcinoma
461
RFs for transitional cell carcinoma
Aromatic amines found in dyes, rubber, cigarette smoe
462
Most common type of testicular cancer
Teratoma
463
Staging of testicular cancers
Royal Marsden Staging System
464
RFs for UTI
Female, sexual activity, pregnancy, DM, menopause, catheterisation
465
Amount of bacteria in MSU to be diagnostic
10^5 per ml
466
Abx for a pregnant women with a lower UTI?
1st/2nd trimester = nitrofurantoin 3rd = amoxicillin/cefalexin
467
Sepsis 6?
Blood cultures Urine output Fluid Abx Lactate Oxygen
468
What level of lactate is indicative of sepsis
More than 2mmol/L
469
Scoring in BPH?
International prostate scoring system (IPSS)
470
Signs on investigation specific to an inguinal hernia
Reducible Separate to testis Bowel sounds present
471
If pt has a left varicocele which doesn't disappear when they lie down, what does this suggest?
Renal cell carcinoma - Should usually disappear on lying down so if it doesn't there is likely a blockage in the renal vein → ?cancer
472
Differentiating between anal fissures and haemorrhoids
Both - fresh red blood & chronic constipation Fissures only - sharp anal pain on defaecation, haemorrhoids are painful all of the time
473
Gold standard investigation of acute diverticulitis
Contrast CT colonography
474
Red flag symptoms of oesophageal cancer
Weight loss Cervical lymphadenopathy Anorexia Vomiting
475
Describe Dupytren's contracture
Abnormal thickening of the skin in the palm of your hand and at the base of your fingers → one or more fingers curl/contract - sign of chronic liver disease
476
Commonest cause of oesophageal varices in the UK?
Livver cirrhosis
477
Name the types of diarrhoea
- Infectious - Secretory - Osmotic - Dysentry - Exudative
478
Clinical tool used to classify faeces
Bristol stool chart
479
Signs on a radiograph suggestive of small bowel obstruction
Dilated jejenum or ileum Absence of gas in bowel distal to the obstruction
480
Initial supportive management of bowel obstruction
- Nil by mouth - Insert NG tube to decompress the bowel - Analgesia - IV fluids & correct electrolytes - Urinary catheter - Suitable anti-emetics
481
Complication of bowel obstruction
Ischaemia or strangulation
482
Causes of gastritis
- Helicobacter pylori infection - NSAIDs - Alcohol abuse
483
2 types of haemorrhoids & the differences between them
Internal: painless covered in mucus, can also prolapse External: form at the anal opening, painful, covered with skin
484
Non-pharmacological management of heartburn following eating
- Weight loss - Healthy eating - Smoking cessation - Eat smaller meals - Eat evening meals 3-4 hours before going to bed - Reduce alcohol consumption - Raise the head of the bed/use more pillows
485
Macroscopic and microscopic features of Crohn's
Macroscopic: skip lesions, mouth to anus, cobblestone mucosa Microscopic: transmural, granuloma, goblet cells, fewer crypt abscesses than UC GALS:Granuloma; All; Layers and Levels; Skip lesions
486
3 tests for H.pylori
Urea breath test Stool antigen test Blood IgG antibody detection
487
Complications of diverticulitis
- Large bowel perforation - Fistual formation - LBO - Bleeding - Mucosal inflammation
488
First and second line drugs to treat haematemesis from ruptured oesophageal varices
IV terlipressin IV somatostatin
489
Differentials for appendicitis
- Crohn's - Ectopic pregnancy - UTI - Diverticulitis - Perforated ulcer - Food poisoning
490
Features of Reynold's pentad
Mental changes Sepsis (plus RUQ pain, jaundice & fever)
491
3 medications given to manage H.pylori infection in a patient with dyspepsia
Amoxicillin - Clarithromycin - Omeprazole
492
A patient presents with slate-grey skin, several signs of chronic liver disease & ferritin \>1mg. What is their diagnosis?
Haemachromatosis
493
ECG changes hours to days after STEMI?
Hours after: tall T waves, ST elevation Days after: T wave inversion, pathological Q waves
494
4 stages of chronic limb ischaemia
1. Asymptomatic 2. Intermittent claudication 3. Rest pain/nocturnal pain 4. Necrosis
495
What level do O2 sats need to be to indicate giving O2 following an MI
\<94%
496
How can renal artery stenosis cause secondary hypertension
Stenosis → reduced renal perfusion → ↑ renin → ↑ RAAS = higher BP
497
Signs & symptoms of MI
* Severe crushing chest pain that radiates to left arm & shoulder * Nausea & vomiting * Sweating * Pallor * SOB * Dizzy
498
Infarction vs ischaemia
Infarction = death of **heart** muscles cells due to a reduced or absent blood supply Ischaemia = restriction in blood supply to tissues causing a shortage of oxygen that is needed for cell function
499
5 types of shock
Cardiogenic Hypovolaemic Anaphylactic Septic Neurogenic
500
Cause of each type of shock
Cardiogenic - heart problems Hypovolaemic - too little blood volume Anaphylactic - allergic reaction Septic - infection Neurogenic - damage to NS
501
Which type of shock leads to increased CO
Septic
502
Which type of shock leads to decreased HR
Neurogenic
503
Which type of shock leads to increased O2 saturation
Septic
504
Adverse effects seen with atropine use?
- Tachycardia - Mydriasis - Dry mouth - Hypohidrosis - Constipation - Urinary retention
505
How can urea levels help to differentiate between GI bleeds?
Upper GI bleed → high urea level
506
Causes of osteomalacia
- Vit D deficiency - Renal failure - Inherited - Liver disease
507
Which test can be used to help diagnose AS?
Schober's test
508
How does allopurinol work to prevent gout?
1. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor 2. So xanthine is not metabolised into uric acid 3. Inhibiting XO lowers plasma uric acid 4. And precipitation of uric acid in joints/kidneys
509
3 phases of Paget's
Lytic: excessive osteoclast resorption Mixed: excessive osteoclast resorption and formation of disorganised bone Blastic: osteoblasts lay down excess disorganised weak bone
510
Marker used to monitor SLE
ESR
511
Pain in PVD means ischaemia of which artery? In the... a. Buttocks b. Thigh c. Upper 2/3 of calf d. Lower 1/3 of calf e. Foot
a. Buttocks = lower aorta or iliac b. Thigh = iliac or common femoral c. Upper 2/3 calf = superficial femoral d. Lower 1/3 = popliteal e. Foot = tibial or peroneal artery
512
Primary and secondary causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Primary - inherited/genetic muation Secondary - PKD, hydronephrosis, fanconi syndrome, renal amyloidosis, hypercalcaemia, HIV infection, iatrogenic
513
Levels of serum sodium, potassium, glucose & serum osmolality in diabetes insipidus
Glucose - normal Sodium - high Potassium - low Serum osmolality - high
514
3 things seen on duodenal biopsy in Coeliac disease
- Raised intraepithelial lymphocytes - Crypt hyperplasia - Villous atrophy
515
Complications of pancreatitis
* Acute renal failure - due to dehydration!! * Sepsis * ARDs * Pancreatic abscess * Ascites * Enteric fistula * Chronic pancreatitis * Abdo compartment syndrome
516
Causes of pancreatitis
I GET SMASHED * Idiopathic * Gallstones * Ethanol * Trauma * Scorpion venom * Mumps/malignancy * Autoimmune * Steroids * Hyperlipidaemia * ERCP * Drugs = NSAIDs + diuretics + steroids
517
Presentation of dermatomyositis
* Gottron lesions (scaly erythematous patches) on the knuckles, elbows and knees * Photosensitive erythematous rash on the back, shoulders and neck * Purple rash on the face and eyelids * Periorbital oedema (swelling around the eyes) * Subcutaneous calcinosis (calcium deposits in the subcutaneous tissue)
518
Investigations for dermatomyositis
- Creatine kinase - Electromyography - Muscle biopsy = gold standard - Autoantibodies - Spirometry
519
What is Charcot's neurological triad and when is it seen?
Seen in patients with MS - Dysarthria - Nystagmus - Inattention tremor
520
Signs of TB on x-ray
- Ghon complex - Ghon focus - Dense homogenous opacity - Hilar lymphadenopathy - Pleural effusion
521
Lesion present in TB
Caseating granuloma
522
Pathophysiology of chronic asthma
- Mucus secretion/production - Smooth muscle contraction - Thickening of airways
523
What lesion does sarcoidosis produce in the body
Non-caseating granuloma
524
Causes of bronchiectasis
- Cystic fibrosis - Infection, eg whooping cough, TB - Immunodeficiency - Airway obstruction - Idiopathic
525
Signs of patient with bronchiectasis on exam
- Coarse crackles heard in early inspiration - Wheeze - Clubbing
526
Complications of bronchiectasis
- Repeated infection & deteriorating lung function - Empyema - Lung abscess - Pneumothorax from repeated coughing - Life-threatening haemoptysis - Respiratory failure
527
RFs for pneumothorax
- COPD - Genetics - Smoking - Trauma - Previous pneumothorax - Resus patients
528
Symptoms of PE
- SOB - Chest pain - Haemoptysis - Sweating - Anxiety - Dizziness - Palpitations - Arrythmias
529
Pneumothorax vs pleural effusion on exam
Pneumothorax = **hyperresonant** on percussion Pleural effusion = **dull** to percus
530
Pneumothorax vs pleural effusion based on the history
Pleural effusion – slower onset, PMH including congestive heart failure, cancer, pneumonia and PE Pneumothorax – rapid onset, history of trauma, family history of pneumothorax, smoking
531
How long after an MI can you give PCI
12 hours
532
Secondary MI management
BACAS **B**eta blocker **A**CEi **C**lopidogrel **A**spirin **S**tatins (+RF management)
533
1st line & gold standard investigations of cardiac failure?
1st = NT-pro-B-type natriuretic peptide Gold = echo
534
Level of NT-proBNP = urgently refer?
\>2000ng/l
535
1st, 2nd & 3rd line management of heart failure
1st - ACEi or beta blocker 2nd - aldosterone antagonist 3rd - sacubitril valsartan or digoxin
536
Classification system used for chronic PVD
Fontaine classification
537
Define shock
Circulating failure resulting in inadequate organ perfusion
538
What is Eisenmenger's syndrome
Complication for ASD & VSD Reversal of L→R to R→L
539
Murmur in patent ductus arteriosus
Continuous machinery murmur
540
What feature on clinical exam suggests aortic stenosis is now severe?
A small volume and slow rising pulse
541
How does lithium affect the thyroid gland
Elevates TSH Inhibits T3&T4
542
What causes the symptoms in a TIA
Ischaemia of cerebral neurones
543
What is Turner's syndrome
Occurs when a female has a single X chromosome
544
What to give to reverse the effects of warfarin ASAP
IV Prothrombin complex concentrate IV Vitamin K
545
Myeloma is a neoplasm of what cell type?
Plasma cells
546
Management of chronic limb ischaemia
RF management Antiplatelet, eg clopidogrel Intervention, eg percutaenous transluminal angioplasty bypass
547
What is the most common electrolyte disturbance found in a blood test result for a patient with Addison's disease
Hyponatraemia = most common | (also see ↓glucose & ↑K+)
548
2 examples of sickle cell crises explained
Vaso-occlusive crisis → swelling of hands and feet Splenic sequestration → blood flow in spleen is compromised → acute splenomegaly & pain. Pooling of blood which can lead to anaemia & circulatory collapse → hypovolaemic shock
549
What do chromaffin cells secrete?
Adrenaline and noradrenaline
550
What cells are found in CSF in bacterial & viral infections
Bacterial: granulocytes, eg neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils Viral: B&T lymphocytes
551
Describe IgA antibodies
Secreted into mucous, tears, saliva and colostrum
552
Describe the role of IgE antibodies
Antibody of allergens and antiparasitic activity
553
Describe the role of IgM antibodies
Made at the beginning of infection - Involved in primary infection response
554
Describe the role of IgD antibodies
B cell receptor
555
Describe the role of IgG antibodies
Highly specific molecules targeting single 'epitopes'. Primary immunoglobulin
556
What is carcinoid syndrome
A rare syndrome caused by the metastasis of carcinoid tumours that secrete high levels of serotonin
557
Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome
- Cutaenous flushing - Recurrent diarrhoea - Abdo cramps - Asthma-like wheezing
558
Management of carcinoid syndrome
Surgical resection or octreotide
559
**Signs** in hypocalcaemia
Chvostek’s sign * Facial twitch on tapping the facial nerve Trousseau’s sign * Positive when a carpopedal spasm of the hand and wrist occurs after an individual wears a blood pressure cuff inflated over their systolic blood pressure a few minutes.
560
AKI staging
KDIGO staging ## Footnote CK 1.5-1.9x baseline. Urine: \<0.5ml/kg/h for 6-12hrs CK 2.0-2.9x baseline. Urine: \<0.5ml/kg/h 12hrs CK 3.0x baseline. Urine: \<0.5ml/kg/h for 24hrs or no urine for \>12hrs
561
Example of an SSRI?
Fluoxetine
562
Most appropriate antiplatelet therapy following an MI
Aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor eg clopidogrel
563
HTN clinical & home BP thresholds
Clinical: 140/90 Home: 135/85
564
Stages of HTN: home & clinical
Low * Home = 135/85 - 150/95 * Clinical = 140/90 - 160/100 High * Home \>150/95 * Clinical \> 160/100 Severe * Clinical systolic \>180 or diastolic \>110
565
What do each of the following cells secrete * Parietal * Mucous neck * ECL * Chief * D * G
* Parietal = gastric acid & intrinsic factor * Mucous neck = mucous & bicarb * ECL = histamine * Chief = pepsin & gastric lipase * D = somatostatin * G = gastrin
566
Medication licensed for use in the UK to treat heroin addiction
Methadone
567
Which drug can be prescribed to a patient with a pheochromocytoma in preparation for surgery & why?
Phenoxybenzamine - During the surgery, it is possible for large amounts of catecholamine release → refractory HTN - So pre-blocks α receptors to prevent this
568
Complication of C. diff infection?
Pseudomembranous colitis
569
Bacteria likely to cause diverticulitis
E.coli (enteric bacteria)
570
Medication used to control jerky movements in Huntington's
Risperidone
571
Medication used to treat psychosis in Huntington's?
Haloperidol
572
Which electrolyte disturbance is most indicative of sarcoidosis?
Hypercalcaemia
573
Are fasciculations a symptom of UMN or LMN disease
LMN
574
Risk framework used to calculate risk of an MI following HTN diagnosis
QRISK2
575
What demographic is bronchiolitis most commonly found in
Children under 1 year
576
2 signs that appear on the abdomen during acute pancreatitis
Cullen's = blue/purple discolouration around the umbilicus Grey Turner's = flank discolouration
577
Mechanism of N-acteyl cysteine
Replenishes the supply of glutathione that conjugates NAPQI to non-toxic compoounds
578
What can the AST/ALT ratio tell you?
If ALT\>AST = chronic liver disease If AST\>ALT = cirrhosis and acute alcoholic hepatitis
579
Signs of portal HTN
ABCDE - Ascites - Bleeding - Caput medusae = cluster of swollen veins in abdo - Diminished liver function - Enlarged spleen
580
Drugs used to treat acute bleeding in patients with portal HTN before endoscopy
Octreotide or terlipressin
581
Investigation of ascites
Diagnostic aspiration
582
Management of ascites
- Salt restrict - Diuretics
583
What does a liver biopsy show in liver cirrhosis
- Mallory bodies - Neutrophil infiltrates
584
Questions used to screen for alcohol dependency
CAGE Cut down? Ever thought you should? Annoyed? Do you get annoyed at others commenting on your drinking? Guilty? Ever feel guilty about drinking? Eye opener? Ever drink in the morning to help your hangover/nerves?
585
What is Wernicke's triad?
Indicates Wernicke's encephalopathy - Confusion - Ataxia - Encephalopathy
586
What is the mutation in haemachromatosis
C282Y HFE gene mutation on chromosome 6
587
Tumour markers for liver cancers
- Alpha feto-protein = hepatocellular carcinoma - CA1909 = cholangiocarcinoma
588
If a patient has a high IgG and a negtaive HBs-Ag, what does this indicate?
Indicates past infection IgG - immunity Negative HBs-Ag so not current infection
589
Fill in the gaps
590
2 types of gallstone & which is more common in the West?
Cholesterol & bile pigment Cholesterol is more common
591
Stool tests to investigate diarrhoea
- Stool culture - Faecal calprotectin - Faecal occult blood
592
In foot drop, if eversion is weak, which nerve is likely to have been damaged?
Common peroneal nerve palsy | (L5 radiculopathy if INversion is weak)
593
What defect is a collapsing pulse associated with? Describe the murmur.
Aortic regurgitation - Early diastolic decrescendo murmur
594
Describe the murmur in mitral stenosis
- Mid diastolic rumble
595
How can you differentiate between the murmurs in aortic and pulmonary stenosis
Both are ejection systolic Aortic stenosis = crescendo decrescendo loudest on **expiration** Pulmonary stenosis = loudest on **inspiration**
596
What are xanthelasma & when are they seen?
Cholesterol deposits in the skin & eyes Seen in PBC
597
4 causes of peptic ulcers
- H.pylori - Increased stomach acid production - Recurrent NSAID use - Mucosal ischaemia
598
Where are the majority of colon cancers found?
Distal colon
599
4 causes of diverticulum
- Low fibre diet - Obesity - NSAIDs - Smoking
600
What is Reiter's triad
Reactive arthritis - Conjunctivitis - Urethritis - Arthritis
601
Treatment of TTP
Plasma exchange asap
602
Ideal 1st line treatment for severe or complicated malaria
IV artesunate
603
Define a granuloma
An aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes
604
What is asterixis
- Also known as liver flap = flapping of the hand due to abnormal liver function
605
Most common side effect of alendronic acid
Oesophagitis
606
X-ray sign in psoriatic arthritis
'pencil in cup' - only in severe cases
607
Reactive arthritis typically follows what type of infection?
GI or GU
608
Most common bacterial cause of a COPD exacerbation
Haemophilus influenzae
609
Stages in formation of atherosclerotic plaque
1. Endothelial dysfunction 2. Fatty streak formation 3. Migration of leukocytes & smooth muscle 4. Foam cell formation 5. Degradation of extracellular matrix
610
Features of acute liver failure
- Nausea - Vomiting - Confusion - Pain/discomfort in RUQ - Jaundiced skin
611
Prophylactic abx for COPD patient
Azithromycin
612
Vocal resonance in tension pneumothorax
Decreased
613
Moderate vs acute severe vs life-threatening asthma in terms of PEFR
_Moderate_ PEFR more than 50-75% best or predicted. _Acute severe_ PEFR 33-50% best or predicted _Life-threatening_ PEFR less than 33% best or predicted
614
Drug to maintain remission in Crohn's disease
Azathioprine
615
Extraintestinal manifestations of IBD
A PIE SAC * Ankylosing spondylitis * Pyoderma gangrenosum * Iritis * Erythema nodosum * Sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) * Apthous ulcers * Clubbing
616
First line management of UC?
5-aminosalicyclic acid (then steroids & then biologics) eg sulfasalazine
617
Define acute mesenteric ischaemia
Inadequate blood flow through mesenteric vessels → ischaemia Due to thrombosis
618
Triad of symptoms in mesenteric ischaemia
- Acute severe abdo pain - No abdo signs on exam - Hypovolaemic shock
619
Treatment of mesenteric ischaemia
- Fluid resus - IV heparin to reduce clot - ABx - metronidazole
620
Where are duodenal ulcers most common
1st part of duodenum - duodenal cap
621
Most common cause of SBO
Adhesions from recent surgery
622
Causes of pseudo-obstruction
Trauma Paralytic ileus (following surgery)
623
Difference between true & false diverticula?
True - diverticula contains all layers of the gut False - only mucosa and submucosa
624
Virchow's node?
Indicates stomach cancer Found near L subclavian vein
625
RFs for colorectal cancer?
Red meat UC FHx Age Alcohol Polyps
626
Red flag symptoms for colorectal cancer
- Weight loss - Night sweats - Dysphasia - Unexplained vomiting - Haematemesis
627
Explain the hospital management for a STEMI
If within 2 hours - PCI If within 12 hours - thrombolysis (alteplase) and then consider PCI
628
Abx given immediately to a patient with suspected meningiococcal septicaemia (in primary care)
IM benpen
629
Gold standard investigation of unstable angina
Coronary angiogram
630
First line treatment for unstable angina symptoms
GTN spray & either ß blocker or CCB
631
Extra-intestinal manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis
- Uveitiis - IBD - Apical lung fibrosis - Aortic regurgitation - Amyloidosis
632
NICE guidelines for moderate asthma attack
SABA Steroids Consider O2
633
NICE guidelines for acute severe asthma attack
SABA Steroids Consider O2 & Mg sulphate
634
NICE guidelines for life-threatening asthma attack
ITU SABA on O2 Steroids Consider O2 Magnesium sulfate Aminophylline Abx Mechanical ventilation
635
Indicators of good asthma control
- No nighttime symptoms - Inhaler used no more than 3 times per week - No breathing difficulties, cough or wheeze on most days - Able to exercise without symptoms - Normal lung function test
636
Define prodrome
Symptoms that precede the onset of a disease/illness Typical in migraine
637
1st line management of an acute episode of migraine
Oral sumitriptan = best (or paracetamol or ibruprofen)
638
Mechanism of action of adrenaline
Stimulation/agonist of beta adrenergic receptors
639
Complications of Cushing's
Bone fractures Depression & mood changes HTN Infections Diabetes
640
Explain ABCD2 scoring
Risk of stroke following TIA * Age \>60 = 1 point * BP\>140/90 = 1 point * Clinical features: * speech disturbance without weakness = 1 * unilateral weakness = 2 * Duration of symptoms * 10-59mins = 1 point * 60mins = 2 points * DM in PMH = 1 point 0-3 = low risk, 4-5 = moderate, 6-7 = high risk
641
Where are the respiratory centres
Medulla
642
Complications of pneumonia
- Abscess - Empyema - Resp failure - Septicaemia - Pericarditis
643
Which chromosome is affected in CF?
7
644
Medication given as prophylaxis for meningitis
Ciprofloxacin
645
Define PPV
The proportion of patients who test positive who have the condition
646
What type of anaemia does alcoholism cause
Macrocytic
647
Commonest type of renal cell carcinoma
Clear cell
648
First line medical treatment of prostate cancer
GnRH - goserelin
649
ECG in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
- Wide QRS - Short PR - Delta wave
650
What does HASBLED scoring determine the risk of
Risk of bleeding in patients on anticoagulants
651
Nerves affected in PBP
CN IX-XII
652
Diagnosing motor neurone disease
El Escorial criteria - Definite = signs in 3+ regions - Probable = signs in 2+ regions
653
Pathology of ankylosing spondylitis
Excessive bone remodelling → fusion
654
Grading of ankylosing spondylitis
New York criteria
655
Levels of FEV1 & FEV1/FVC ratio in an obstructive picture
FEV1 \<0.8 FEV1/FVC \<0.7
656
How is rheumatoid arthritis monitored
ESR & CRP levels
657
Extra-articular manifestations of RA
* Nodules * Vasulitis * Sjogren’s * Pleuritis * Glomerulonephritis * Peripheral neuropathy * Pericarditis * MI
658
Scoring used to risk stratify patients with upper GI bleeds
Glasgow Blatchford Score
659
Signs on x-ray of a patient with aortic stenosis
Calcification of aortic valve Cardiomegaly Dilated ascending aorta Pulmonary oedema
660
Symptoms of septic infection
Fever Rigors Night sweats Weight loss Anaemia Splenomegaly Clubbing
661
Excessive alcohol abuse can lead to deficiency in which vitamin? Resulting in which syndrome?
Vitamin B1/thiamine Wernicke Korsakoff
662
What are delirium tremens associated with? Give some possible presentations
Alcohol withdrawal * Acute confusion * Severe agitation * Delusions & hallucinations * Tremor * Tachycardia * HTN * Hyperthermia * Ataxia * Arrhytmias
663
Signs of iron deficiency anaemia
- Pallor - Koilonychias - Angular chelitis - Atrophic glossitis - Tachycardia
664
Which chromosome is the gene mutation in sickle cell on?
Chromosome 11 | (glutamic acid → valine)
665
Complications of MI
Death Arrhythmias Ruptured septum Tamponade Heart failure Valve disease Aneurysm of ventricles Dressler's syndrome Embolism Reoccurence of ASC
666
Symptoms of chronic limb ischaemia
- Dry brittle nails - Hair loss - Atrophic skin - Absent pulses - Intermittent claudication
667
Arterial vs venous ulcers
668
Where is aortic stenosis heard loudest
2nd intercostal space **Left** sternal border
669
Inheritance of G6PD
X-linked recessive
670
S&S of SLE
A RASH POINts MD * ANA positive (in 90% of patients) * Renal nephritis * Arthritis * Serositis (pleuritis, pericarditis, myocarditis) * Hematological eg anemia, leukopenia, thombrocytopenia * Photosensitivity * Oral/mucosal ulcers * Immunology eg ANA, RHf, Anti-dsDNA (most specific) * Neurological symptoms (eg psychosis, depression, anxiety, siexures) * Malar rash * Discoid rash
671
What condition do you see Owl's eye appearance on a blood film
Hodgkin's lymphoma
672
Management of TIA in terms of driving
Do not notify the DVLA, but no driving for 1 month
673
Mechanism of SGL2 inhibitors
Block reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys
674
What type of hypersensitivity is hypersensitivity pneumonitis
III
675
Type of bone cancer more common in younger groups
Osteosarcoma
676
Which sided heart failure is ascites associated with
Right
677
Appearance of haemophilus influenzae under a microscope?
Gram negative bacilli
678
What causes crepitations in the lungs?
When collapsed or fluid filled air sacs in the lungs open when you breath Caused by: inflammation, fluid or infection in air sacs in the lung, eg pulmonary oedema
679
Which Abx are MRSA resistant to?
β-lactams, gentamicin, tetracycline and erythromycin
680
Complications of AKI
Hyperkalaemia Fluid overload, heart failure and pulmonary oedema Metabolic acidosis Uraemia (high urea) can lead to encephalopathy or pericarditis
681
Pathophysiology of anaphylaxis
T1 hypersensitivity. ## Footnote (IgE) stimulates mast cells to rapidly release histamine and other pro-inflammatory chemicals. This is called mast cell degranulation. This causes a rapid onset of symptoms, with airway, breathing and/or circulation compromise.
682
How to diagnose anaphylaxis
Measure mast cell tryptase within 6 hours
683
Complication of CLL
Richter's syndrome - transformation of CLL to aggressive lymphoma