CRC SURVEILLANCE Flashcards
(184 cards)
0
Q
Which option switch (OS) would be used to overwrite an existing database with a new database?
A
START BUILD
1
Q
To load any database the first of five mandatory entries is the ________.
A
System Center
2
Q
Which of the following statements is TRUE for the system Center?
A
It cannot be changed once data is entered
3
Q
Which database can be the operational database?
A
Database A, B, or C
4
Q
Each OM contains _______ System Server Unit(s) (SSU).
A
two
5
Q
Where is the SSU hard drive slot located in the peripheral bay?
A
Top
6
Q
Which VFS is used to copy a database from the SSU?
A
INIT SYSTEM VFS
7
Q
Which VFS is used to load a database?
A
LOAD DB VFS
8
Q
Which OS is used to change the current database default directory?
A
OVERRIDE DEFAULT OS
9
Q
All of the following are DST duties and responsibilities EXCEPT:
- Assist maintenance in troubleshooting equipment problems if required
- Monitor the PM & Test function and report equipment discrepancies
- Coordinating and planning then initial build of database
- Performing Voice Tell when necessary
A
PERFORMING VOICE TELL WHEN NECESSARY
10
Q
Which of the following antennas is mounted on top PSR antenna, transponders on an aircraft and receives coded replies?
A
The IFF/SIF Antenna
11
Q
All of the following are responsibilities of the EPT EXCEPT:
- Monitoring the data link coordination net (DCN) to coordinate requirements with other data link participants
- Recommending EMCON measures and levels
- Works closely with radar maintenance to ensure optimum levels of radar performance
- Takes appropriate actions to negate the effects of Electronic Attack (EA)
A
EXCEPTION: Monitoring the data link coordination net (DCN) to coordinate requirements with other data link participants
12
Q
Which of the following responses BEST describes the voice communications equipment group?
A
Control communication messages within the OM and between the OM’s, radar vans, and external agencies
13
Q
Among the following choices, which one BEST defines the internal radio equipment group?
A
Control voice and digital information in ground-to-air and ground-to-ground modes
14
Q
Which of the following statements BEST defines the digital communications equipment group?
A
Provides communications between the OM and external agencies via Link 1, 11,11B, 4A, 16, TFMS and ATDL-1
15
Q
Which of the following converts electrical power for use by the OM equipment?
A
Power distribution system
16
Q
Which of the following equipment houses the environmental control units (ECU), external cables and OM maintenance tools?
A
Pallet assembly
17
Q
Which of the following BEST describes the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU)?
A
A six-channel device that copies voice signals form four VCASs simultaneously
18
Q
Which of the following provides through-connections for all communications entering or leaving the OM via the comm, demarcation panel?
A
Signal Entry Patch Panel (SEPP)
19
Q
Which of the following is a wide band, tactical, half duplex encryption device used with UHF and VHF radio communications systems?
A
KY-58
20
Q
Which of the following converts digital input signals into optical output signals that are transmitted over fiber-optic cables to a maximum of four other OMs?
A
Digital data bus/voice control bus electrical optical converter (DDV/VCB EOC)
21
Q
The maximum number of OM’s that can be connected is _________.
A
Five
22
Q
In a single OM configuration with only one computer operational, all the following functions are available, EXCEPT:
- Simulation capability
- Reduced tracking capacity
- One Link 11
- Two Link 11B’s
A
EXCEPTION: Simulation capability
23
Q
In a single OM configuration, if one of the computers fails, the track symbology’s are displayed in order of priority. Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 priorities?
- Friendlies
- Engagement
- Hostiles
- Assigned Weapons
A
NOT in TOP 3: Friendlies
24
What is the maximum number of operator console workstations (OCUWS) that can be connected in a full capacity OM configuration?
Twenty
25
How long must operations forms be maintained on file?
At least 60 days
26
The purpose of the AF Form 4146, Mission Briefing Guide, is to:
Brief missions, record mission results and serves as a record of unit control activities
27
Who is responsible for ensuring that the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is completed?
Mission Crew Commander (MCC)
28
When an error is made in the operations Logbook, you may do all the following EXCEPT:
- Erase the incorrect entry
- initial the correction
- draw a line through the incorrect entry
- rewrite the entry below the initial entry
EXCEPTION: Erase the incorrect entry
29
Who is responsible for reviewing the completed AF Form 4146, Mission Briefing Guide, and attaching it to AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log?
Mission Crew Commander (MCC)
30
The purpose of the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is to:
Summarize crew operations for data collection and analysis
31
To shut down power in the OM, you use the red switch labeled ______.
MASTER OFF
32
Which character modifier denotes an identity, category, or IFF conflict of a track that is held mutually by two units?
1
33
The RESTRT FFS allows the operator to ________.
Clear the heading and speed and velocity vector of a hooked track
34
Which character modifier is displayed when the operator activates data recording for a track?
D
35
Which character modifier denotes a track is being rate-aided (manually updated by operator action)?
A
36
Which character modifier denotes a non-real-time track?
M
37
What does the AUTO TRACK FFS allow you to do?
Change a rate-aided track to an auto track
38
Which switch allows you to manually initiate Mode 3 interrogation on a hooked air track?
INTRG MODES VFS
39
Crew members will enter crew rest a minimum of ____ hours before show time.
8 hours
40
A Mode 3 code 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies?
General Emergency
41
Which character modifier denotes a military emergency?
E
42
Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency?
7500
43
Which of the following is NOT an emergency track modifier?
- N
- R
- C
- E
N
44
Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities?
R
45
Which Mode 3 indicates a No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency?
7600
46
Which Variable Function Switch (VFS) is used to enter, delete, modify, or display EMCON status for radars and IFF?
ENTER EMCON
47
The RESTOR STROBE VFS allows the operator to __________.
Display all strobes associated with a site at your OCUWS
48
What happens when the system generates a Missile alert?
The SET EMCOM FFS blinks at all OCUWS's
49
NOTE- Upon detection of an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alert, the operator has _____ seconds to respond.
20 seconds
50
What switch allows an operator to enter a manual strobe?
ENTER STROBE VFS
51
What is the purpose of the ECCM PLAN VFS?
To enter, delete, modify, or display pro-planned ECCM parameters for radar of IFF
52
Which of the following choices BEST defines the Variable Function Switch (VFS) that enables the operator to determine the status of OM equipment?
EQUIP STATUS VFS
53
The Computer Unit Performance (CU PRFM) VFS under the PM & TEST Fixed Function Switch (FFS) array allows the operator to ______?
display the CU performance statistics of the computer units
54
The KG-40A is used to encrypt and decrypt ___________ data.
TADIL-A
55
As part of the internal radio equipment, each OM contains a total of ____ HF radios.
2
56
The two record options on the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU) are Voice Op and __________.
Continuous
57
What is the proper procedure for marking and storing a complete tape?
It should be marked with tape number, period covered and stored for 48 hours.
58
What is the proper procedure for conducting an ACTIVITY SEARCH?
Select the desired channel, press FFWD or FREV depending on the direction you wish to search for the first activity above the present threshold
59
Which of the following MUST be selected in order to activate a TIME SEARCH on the R/RU?
Select TIME SEARCH, in the time control section, select SEARCH and enter the DATE and TIME.
60
What area of the OCUWS DSU display switches for radar and video selections?
Display Access Subunit
61
What OCUWS display access subunit switch do you use to remove bearing and range cursors from display on the DSU?
DSPL CURSOR
62
What area of the OCUWS displays the real-time tactical air picture?
Display Subunit (DSU)
63
What is the function of the VEL VECTOR VFS?
Changes the length of velocity vector on all tracks
64
The Voice Communication Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ UHF radios, ____ net radios, and ____ direct access line(s).
4, 8, 4
65
The three VCAS modes of communication which can be selected using the MODE button are ________, _________, and ________,
internal, external, both
66
The Voice Communications Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ intercom lines
20
67
If anti-jam mode is selected for a UHF channel, a _________ border will appear around the channel window.
White
68
To terminate a call on the VCAS, select the circuit you wish to terminate and then select _________ on the menu bar.
OFF
69
The battle management section of the CRC is responsible for which of the following?
Reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives
70
The surveillance section of the CRC is responsible for Which of the following?
Detecting, tracking, identifying, and reporting airborne objects within the CRC's area of responsibility (AOR)
71
Which of the following CRC duty positions manages the surveillance section?
Air Surveillance Officer (ASO)
72
Which of the following CRC duty positions directs the detection, tracking, and identification of air traffic within the CRC's area of interest (AOI)?
Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
73
Which CRC duty position ensures operations is aware of site configurations and pertinent information (Alert Condition status, MOPP levels, etc.)?
Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC)
74
Which CRC duty position is responsible for detecting, initiating, identifying, and maintaining all tracks within an assigned area of responsibility (AOR)?
Surveillance Technician (ST)
75
Which CRC duty position is responsible to the MCC for the assignment of allocation weapons and for coordinating and directing WD and ADAFCO activities?
Senior Director (SD)
76
Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what?
Incoming orders
77
Safety corridors, Restricted areas and Gun-Target lines can be found of which overlay?
Overlay 1, Flight Safety
78
Which of the following overlays displays the identification (ID) corridors used in the automatic identification process?
Overlay 2, ID and Threat Evaluation
79
When the system is in medium threat mode and there is a valid response for Mode 4 interrogation, what ID activity does the system perform?
The system automatically ID's the track as assumed friend and changes the symbology to assumed friend on the DSU and the ID field of the HDRO
80
In which of the following tests does the system determine if the track is heading towards a vital area?
Sanctuary test
81
True of False? In high threat mode, Mode 4 testing automatically occurs.
True
82
Which of the following is NOT a variable for the ID Corridor Test?
Speed
83
Which test is used by the system to determine a track may be an ARM-carrying aircraft?
Profile test
84
How are the automatic identification test results of an air track displayed?
Hook the track and then press the AUTO ID RECM VFS
85
What switch action allows an operator to establish a hostile SAM site?
LAND POINT VFS
86
Which of the following is NOT an option available under the AUTOID RECM VFS?
To enter the parameters of a maneuver test
87
Which of the following is TRUE of the maneuver test?
It is scored by the operator, using AUTOID RECM VFS
88
Under what conditions should voice tell procedures be used?
When data link communications are unavailable
89
A single Radar Interface Units (RIU) can only process radar reports from ________ radars.
Three
90
Where is the emergency exit in the OM located?
Curbside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3
91
The _________ provides a means to fully initialize, access, and obtain fault status of any voice channel in a five OM configuration.
Control & Maintenance Panel (C&MP)
92
The Radio Patch Panel (RPP) is used to assign crypto to all of the following EXCEPT:
- One TADIL B
- Nine voice (a combination of two HF, three VHF, four UHF, and/or three remote
- One TADIL a (HF or UHF)
- One remote radar/Data Link (VHF-1 or external)
EXCEPTION: one TADIL B
93
The _________ provides connectors to connect external communications equipment to the OM.
Communications Demarcation Panel
94
True or False: Two computers are required to bring a system of one to four OM's online.
False
95
The High Frequency (HF) radio operates in a frequency range of _____ to _____ MHz.
1, 30
96
What is the nominal range for the Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) radio?
250
97
Which of the following is required if a remote radar is to be established?
A dedicated VHF radio circuit
98
All of the following are TRUE concerning Censor Areas EXPECT:
- They apply only to the radar/IFF that is displayed at the OCU at the time of entry
- Existing tracks are dropped upon entry into the area
- Acquisition of new tracks is inhibited
- Existing tracks are unaffected by the area
False: Existing tracks are dropped upon entry into the area
99
Each of the following is TRUE concerning Sector Inhibit EXCEPT:
- Applies to all radars/IFF assigned to the CRC
- It can inhibit tracks, plots, or both
- All reports of the selected type are discarded by the MIG
- Existing tracks/plots that enter the area will be dropped
False: Applies to all radars/IFF assigned to the CRC
100
Which of the following modes choices is not available with the SELECT M/CODE VFS?
Mode 4
101
Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code?
21
102
All of the following is TRUE of a CRC unit that is at level 3 EXCEPT:
- Computer capability lost
- Surveillance information passed by voice and entered manually
- Data links inoperative or unavailable
- Basic control functions operational
EXCEPTION: Computer capability lost
103
What CRC battle management position acts as the primary interface with the AOC?
Mission Crew Commander (MCC)
104
The maximum system capacity for ATDL-1 data links is _________.
Fourteen
105
Which of the following elements is the senior command and control element of the TACS?
AOC
106
A ________ call indicates an interrogated Bogey group/radar contact which lacks all the ATO (or equivalent) IFF modes and codes required for the ID criteria.
SPADES
107
PAINT is a brevity term meaning _________.
an interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria
108
Link 16 uses the _________ radio frequencies.
Ultra High Frequency (UHF)
109
Within the Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system, how many Link-1 data links can be active at one time?
One
110
Which FFS contains the OS's that allows an operator to locate tracks based on IFF and to setup plot history areas?
Plot Setup
111
Which of the following is a netted, encrypted link that operates in half duplex mode?
Link 11
112
Which of the following is an input number used to establish a specified system hopping pattern, rate, and dwell time?
Word-of-Day (WOD)
113
Which of the following assigns several radios to a net and establishes the hop set start frequency?
Net number
114
The THREE elements necessary for successful system operations of HAVE QUICK are:
Common frequencies
Time synchronization and
Common hopping pattern and rate
115
Which of the following is a HAVE QUICK modification to a radio's ability to clearly receive and process more than one signal without mutual interference?
Conferencing
116
Within the HAVE QUICK system, time is transmitted using a format referred to as _________.
Time of Day (TOD)
117
Which method of communication can be used for both internal and external communications?
Secure and non-secure telephone
118
Initial detection, tracking, identification of airborne tracks, and recognition, and reporting of electronic attack BEST identifies which CRC function?
Surveillance
119
Under the SELECT M/CODE VFS, what is the legal range of entry for the Mode 1 and Mode 3 codes?
Mode 1: 0-7 for first digit, 0-3 second digit,
| Mode 3: 0000-7777
120
What is the correct sequence for updating a tracks position using the REPOSN FFS?
Hook the track, activate the REPOSN FFS, position the Positional Entry Device (PED) marker over the desired location, double click the left mouse button
121
Which of the following responses BEST describes when the Positional Changeover Briefing should be conducted?
Whenever there is a change in personnel manning a position
122
During the Positional Changeover Briefing all of the following items are briefed EXCEPT the ________.
- Current data base coordinates
- Current positional manning
- Current equipment status and configuration
- Communications Security (COMSEC) and classified documents
EXCEPTION: Current data base coordinates
123
Which section of the positional changeover briefing would contain information that one of the OCUWS is not functioning?
Equipment Status/Configuration
124
Which section of the positional changeover briefing would cover the information about who has the authority to identify an aircraft as hostile?
ID Procedures
125
Which of the following BEST defines the printer unit?
a high-speed thermal dot matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults
126
Which of the following equipment is protected with EMI shielding?
Electrical equipment shelter
127
Which of the following transfers digital and voice communication between OMs?
Digital data bus/voice control bus electrical optical converter (DDB/VCB EOC)?
128
Which FFS allows the operator to transmit a pointer between positions in the OM system using the intercom?
COMM MARK FFS
129
Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target?
ENGAGE
130
Which of the following types of Sensor Registrations is used to align incoming ATDL-1 data?
Support Unit (SU)
131
All of the following statements are TRUE concerning the function of Sensor Registration EXCEPT:
- Sensor Registration selects one of six locations to establish the Data Registration Reference Unit (DRRU) for radar alignment.
- Sensor Registration is performed so that if your unit has multiple radars, the will report aircraft at the same location
- Sensor Registration is performed so that your unit and other data link units will report aircraft at the same location
- Sensor Registration is used to designate a Master Radar used ofr registation
EXCEPTION: Sensor Registration selects one of six locations to establish the Data Registration Reference Unit (DRRU) for radar alignment.
132
The four switch actions used to register link data are ________.
JU Sensor, Geodetic, Remote, and SU
133
The standard CRC configuration contains a total of _____ forward deployed radar(s) (DR).
Two
134
All of the following are battle management functions EXCEPT:
- Reconstitution
- Surveillance
- Weapons Control
- Tactical Data Link Management
EXCEPTION: Reconstitution
135
Which of the following statements about the AN/TPS-75 Radar Set is NOT TRUE?
- It records a permanent, three-dimensional pictures and log of the airspace status
- It operates independently of weather and jamming environments
- It is capable of simultaneous long-range search and height finding
- It transmits, receives and presents data
FALSE: It records a permanent, three-dimensional pictures and log of the airspace status
136
Which of the following BEST defines the side lobe reference (SLR) antenna?
An omni-directional antenna that prevents false returns from being displayed
137
All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT:
- a STU-III telephone
- an external telephone line
- AN/ARC-164 UHF radio
- a six-channel troposcatter radio
EXCEPTION: a STU-III telephone
138
A Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system can accept up to fourteen of these links simultaneously with a multi-OM configuration.
ATDL-1
139
Inside the OM, where is the emergency shutoff switch located?
In the middle of the Power Distribution Control Unit (PDCU)
140
The CLEAR ALERT FFS allows the operator to ___________.
Clear designated alert message from ADS-2 area
141
An emergency point can be entered into the system by Positional Entry Device (PED) or by using which of the following?
Location in actual coordinates
142
Which of the following is NOT an EMCON tactic?
NOT a tactic: Jamming
- Blanking
- Decoy
- Blinking
NOT a tactic: Jamming
143
The responsibility for conducting the Positional Changeover Briefing belongs to _________.
Each individual on position that is being relieved by another
144
In the HDRO, valid displays for ALT SRCE include all of the following EXCEPT:
- M-C (Mode C)
- RDR (Radar)
- MAN (Manual, operator entered)
- EST (Default)
EXCEPTION: M-C (Mode C)
145
An Altitude Source that is aged over 30 seconds will display the following:
A
146
If an Altitude Source is aged less than 30 seconds, which of the following modifiers will be displayed?
N
147
If a DSU is in two-color mode, what is the color of a hostile missile?
Yellow
148
TRUE or FALSE: On the DSU, radar plots are represented by an orange vertical line.
TRUE
149
TRUE or FALSE: On the DSU, IFF plots are represented by an orange horizontal line.
TRUE
150
The symbol modifier "H" represents which of the following?
Heads Up
151
Symbols are blinked to alert the operator to all of the following EXCEPT:
- New Unknown Tracks
- Lost track
- Emergency
- Hostile Track
EXCEPTION: New Unknown Tracks
152
A track designated as Return to Base (RTB) will have which of the following track modifiers?
A slash through the track
153
A symbol modifier of "3" designates _____.
A track is responding with a special, non-emergency Mode 3 IFF code
154
A track designated as Do Not Intercept (DNI) will have which of the following track modifiers?
An "X" through the track
155
The Hooked Data Read Out (HDRO) is divided into three general data areas, which of the following is NOT an area of the HDRO?
Track information area
156
When track trace is selected for a track, the displayed trace will not be longer than the last ____ minutes of the tracks movement.
15
157
How many tracks per OCUWS may be selected for track trace?
16
158
The key operational advantage Link 16 (TADIL-J) has over Link 11 (TADIL-A) and Link 11B (TADIL-B) is ________.
Increased data rate capability
159
Which of the following choices BEST describes who is responsible for maintaining link discipline and the participating units transmit sequence for Link 11 (TADIL-A)?
Net Control Station
160
In a Link 11 (TADIL-A) net interface only one participating unit can be transmitting at a single time while the remaining participating units (PUs) are receiving. This is known as a _________ system.
Half duplex
161
An OM can exchange Link-11 (TADIL-A) data over a common circuit with a min. of ___ participation units (PUs) and a max. of ___ PUs
2, 15
162
Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but continue to intercept the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept their target?
CEASE FIRE
163
Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing at a designated air track, missiles already in flight are to be prevented from intercepting if technically possible?
HOLD FIRE
164
Which of the following tests evaluates an aircraft's ID based on flight parameters of time, heading, altitude, and boundary width?
Corridor Test
165
Which of the following tests is an airspace defined by altitude blocks, times, and speeds?
Sanctuary Test
166
The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a max. range of ___ nautical miles and a max. altitude of ____ feet.
240 NM/ 95,500 FT
167
What is the correct sequence for establishing an altitude layer for selective display of air tracks?
Select ALT LAYER VFS, enter min. and max. altitudes in thousands of feet, select ALT(MIN/MAX) OS, select ENTER
168
TRUE OR FALSE: When hooking a track by IFF HOOK FFS, the track to be hooked does not have to be on the current DSU range scale display?
TRUE
169
The AN/TPS-75 radar is capable of blanking what size sector?
357.2 degress, in 2.8 degree steps
170
Which antenna receives radio frequency energy that is compared with the RF energy received by the PSR antenna the is used to prevent a false return for being displayed?
The Side Lobe Reference (SLR) antenna
171
What is the main reason for holding mission crew debriefing?
To capture lessons learned and improve system performance
172
Crew rest will normally begin ____ after the debrief.
1.5 hrs
173
Jam strobes received from the radar and IFF are displayed in color to designate frequency. Jam strobes in the 1 to 2 gigahertz (GHz) frequency range are displayed in ________.
Yellow
174
All of the following are included in the legend displayed adjacent to the jam strobe EXCEPT:
- Type of jamming
- The origin of the strobe
- Radar number
- Jam strobe tack number
EXCEPTION: Type of jamming
175
The LINK STATUS VFS under the PM & TEST FFS array allows an operator to view the ________.
Operational status, link quality and hardware of the digital data links
176
Which of the following authenticators is used exclusively for practicing authentication procedures?
KTC- L500G
177
In the multi-color mode, what is the color of the assumed friend track?
Light Green
178
Authenticators are used to ______________.
Counter the enemies' attempts at intercepting your communications
179
All of the following statements are FALSE concerning the reasons for using authentication procedures EXCEPT:
EXCEPTION: Friendly forces and enemy forces may be using the same frequency.
180
From the following options, select the one the BEST applies to the use of authenticators.
MUST be handled ONLY IAW COMSEC User Procedures
181
Authenticator users must follow the procedures detailed in which of the following?
AFI 33-211
182
In challenge-and-reply authentication, how long does the calling station have to authenticate?
15 seconds
183
If the minutes of the actual transmission time are an odd number, what value should be used to find the code of the transmission authentication table?
The actual transmission time minus one number
