Criminal Law Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

What are the essential elements of a crime?

A

Four core elements:
* Physical Act (actus reus)
* Mental State (mens rea)
* Causation
* Concurrence

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2
Q

What does ‘actus reus’ refer to?

A

The physical act or failure to act that constitutes a crime.

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3
Q

What must be proven for a failure to act to result in liability?

A

Three conditions:
* Legal duty to act
* Knowledge of the facts
* Reasonably possible to perform the duty

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4
Q

Define ‘mens rea’.

A

The mental state or culpable state of mind of the defendant while committing the offense.

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5
Q

What is the significance of causation in criminal law?

A

There must be a causal connection between the defendant’s act and the harmful result.

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6
Q

What does concurrence mean in the context of a crime?

A

The mental state must be present at the same time the physical act occurs.

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7
Q

List the four different mental states required under common law.

A
  • Specific Intent
  • Malice
  • General Intent
  • Strict Liability
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8
Q

What is required for a crime to be classified as ‘specific intent’?

A

The crime must be committed with a specific intent or objective.

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9
Q

Name three specific intent crimes.

A
  • Solicitation
  • Attempt
  • Conspiracy
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10
Q

What constitutes ‘malice’ in criminal law?

A

Reckless disregard of an obvious or high risk that a harmful result will occur.

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11
Q

What is ‘general intent’?

A

Intending to commit an act that is prohibited by law, regardless of the intent concerning the act’s result.

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12
Q

Define ‘strict liability’.

A

Only requires the defendant to have performed the actus reus, regardless of intent.

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13
Q

What is ‘voluntary manslaughter’?

A

A killing that would be murder but for the existence of adequate provocation.

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14
Q

What qualifies as ‘adequate provocation’?

A

Provocation that would arouse sudden and intense passion in an ordinary person.

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15
Q

Describe ‘involuntary manslaughter’.

A

An unintentional killing committed with criminal negligence or during an unlawful act.

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16
Q

What defines first-degree murder?

A

Murder that is deliberate and premeditated, or falls under felony murder statutes.

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17
Q

What is the ‘felony murder rule’?

A

Any death caused during the commission of a felony is murder.

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18
Q

What is required for a defendant to be liable for homicide?

A

The conduct must be both the cause-in-fact and the proximate cause of the victim’s death.

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19
Q

What does ‘cause-in-fact’ mean?

A

The death would not have occurred but for the defendant’s conduct.

20
Q

What is ‘proximate cause’?

A

The death is a natural and probable consequence of the defendant’s conduct.

21
Q

Define ‘battery’.

A

The unlawful application of force resulting in bodily harm or offensive contact.

22
Q

What is ‘assault’?

A

An attempt to commit a battery or intentionally placing another in apprehension of imminent bodily harm.

23
Q

What constitutes ‘false imprisonment’?

A

The unlawful confinement of a person without valid consent.

24
Q

Define ‘kidnapping’.

A

Unlawful confinement involving some movement of the victim or hiding the victim.

25
What are the elements of common law rape?
* Unlawful sexual intercourse * With a female * Against her will by force or threat of force
26
What is 'statutory rape'?
Sexual intercourse with a person under age, where reasonable mistake of fact as to age is not a defense.
27
List the elements of larceny.
* Taking (obtaining possession) * Carrying away * Personal property of another * By trespass * With intent to permanently deprive
28
What is 'embezzlement'?
The fraudulent conversion of personal property by a person in lawful possession of that property.
29
Define 'false pretenses'.
Obtaining title to personal property of another by intentional false representation.
30
What constitutes false pretenses?
Obtaining title to the personal property of another by an intentional false representation. ## Footnote The victim must rely on the false representation, and that reliance must cause the victim to pass title to the defendant.
31
What is the difference between false pretenses and larceny by trick?
False pretenses involves obtaining title, while larceny by trick involves obtaining possession or custody without title. ## Footnote Both operate similarly in terms of misrepresentation.
32
What are the elements of robbery?
A taking and carrying away of personal property of another from the other’s person or presence by force or threat of force, with intent to permanently deprive. ## Footnote The property must be on the victim’s person or within the victim’s reach.
33
What does receipt of stolen property require?
Receiving possession and control of stolen property known to have been obtained unlawfully, with intent to permanently deprive the owner. ## Footnote The property must be stolen at the time the defendant receives it.
34
Define common law burglary.
A breaking and entry of the dwelling of another at nighttime with intent to commit a felony. ## Footnote A dwelling is a structure regularly used for sleeping purposes.
35
What constitutes arson under common law?
The malicious burning of the dwelling of another. ## Footnote The fire must cause damage to the structure.
36
What are the requirements for an attempt?
Specific intent to perpetrate a crime and an overt act beyond mere preparation. ## Footnote Most states require the overt act to be a substantial step toward completion.
37
True or False: Withdrawal from an attempt is a valid defense under common law.
False. ## Footnote Under common law, abandonment is not a defense if the intent and overt act have occurred.
38
What is solicitation?
Requesting another to commit a crime with the intent that the person solicited commit the crime. ## Footnote The crime is completed upon the request.
39
What are the elements of a conspiracy under common law?
An agreement between two or more persons to accomplish a criminal objective with intent to enter into the agreement and commit the objective. ## Footnote Most states require an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy.
40
Define accomplice liability.
Liability for a person who aids or encourages the principal to commit illegal conduct. ## Footnote An accomplice is liable for all crimes committed by the principal and foreseeable results.
41
What is required for a defendant to be competent to stand trial?
Sufficient present ability to consult with a lawyer and a rational understanding of the proceedings. ## Footnote This is assessed under the Dusky test.
42
What are the four tests for legal insanity?
M’Naghten Rule, Irresistible Impulse Test, Model Penal Code Test, Durham Test. ## Footnote Each test assesses the defendant's mental state at the time of the crime.
43
Fill in the blank: Voluntary intoxication is a valid defense to _______ crimes.
specific intent crimes. ## Footnote It does not apply to general intent, malice, or strict liability crimes.
44
What constitutes self-defense with deadly force?
A person may use deadly force if confronted with unlawful force and reasonably believes they are threatened with imminent death or great bodily harm. ## Footnote There are exceptions regarding the duty to retreat.
45
What is the defense of duress?
Available if the defendant reasonably believed that another would imminently inflict death or great bodily harm if the crime was not committed. ## Footnote Under the Model Penal Code, threats to property may suffice if the value outweighs the societal harm.
46
What is mistake of fact?
A defense showing the defendant lacked the required state of mind for the crime. ## Footnote Reasonableness of the mistake depends on whether the crime is specific intent or general intent.