CRITICAL NTK Flashcards

Question

Definition of atmospheric stability

Answer 1

Atmospheric stability is the property of the ambient air that either enhances or suppresses vertical motion of air parcels and determines which type of clouds and precipitation will develop. Low pressure = unstable, high pressure = stable

Answer 2

Cirriform (Cirrus), cumuliform (cumulous), and stratiform (stratus)

Answer 3

A cloud producing rain

Answer 4

Alto cumulous standing lenticular (ACSL) Cumulonimbus (CB) Towering Cumulous (TCU) Cumulonimbus Mammatus (CBMAM)

Answer 5

Wind shear is the change in wind speed and/or direction. Wind shear generates turbulence between two wind currents of different directions and/or speeds.

Answer 6

Turbulence is caused by convective currents (convective turbulence), obstructions in the wind flow (mechanical turbulence), and wind shear.

Answer 7

Convective turbulence is turbulent vertical motions that result from convective currents and the subsequent rising and sinking of air. Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are light.

Answer 8

Mechanical turbulence is turbulence caused by obstructions to the wind flow, such as trees, buildings, mountains. Obstructions to the wind flow disrupt smooth wind flow. The higher the speed and/or the rougher the surface, the greater the turbulence.

Answer 9

A mountain wave is an atmospheric wave disturbance formed when stable air flow passes over a mountain or mountain ridge. Mountain waves are a form of mechanical turbulence which develop above and downwind of mountains and may extend 600 miles or more downwind from the mountain range and have been documented up to 200,000 feet and higher.

Answer 10

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is a higher altitude (20,000 to 50,000 feet) turbulence phenomenon occurring in cloud-free regions associated with wind shear, particularly between the core of a jet stream and the surrounding air. CAT frequency and intensity are maximized during winter when jet streams are strongest.

Answer 11

Pure water suspended in the air does not freeze until it reaches a temperature of -40 °C. Surface tension of the droplets inhibits freezing. The smaller and purer the water droplet, the more likely it is supercooled.

Answer 12

Supercooled Large Drops (SLDs) are common in freezing rain and freezing drizzle situations.

Answer 13

Thunderstorm cell formation requires three ingredients: 1) sufficient water vapor 2) unstable air 3) a lifting mechanism

Answer 14

Towering Cumulous Mature Dissipating

Answer 15

1.Turbulence, potential severe wind shear, microburst 2.Lightning 3.Hail 4.Airframe icing 5.Pressure changes can cause altimeter inaccuracy. FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 16

Intense downdrafts created by thunderstorm cells that create strong, often damaging winds. Smaller, shorter-lived downbursts are called **microbursts.**

Answer 17

Primary flight controls cause motion in the three axes (vertical axis =yaw, lateral axis=pitch, and longitudinal axis=roll) Elevator: Pitch up/down Ailerons: Roll (bank) Rudder: Yaw (horizontal left/right)

Answer 18

Lift Weight Thrust Drag

Answer 19

To produce additional lift at low speeds such as during takeoff and landing by changing the chord line of the wings.

Answer 20

Flight spoilers reduce lift and enable a greater descent rate without an increase in speed when manually operated. Flight spoilers also work automatically to assist ailerons in roll control. Ground spoilers may only be operated upon landing to reduce lift, causing more aircraft weight to be placed on landing gear, therefore increasing braking effectiveness.

Answer 21

A combination of Bernoulli’s Principle (low pressure created due to greater distance across top surface) and Newton’s Third Law of Motion (air impacting bottom of wings, causing an equal, opposite reaction when deflected.

Answer 22

High temperature and atmospheric moisture content reduce air density. Air density decreases with altitude increases. Low air density reduces wings’ ability to produce lift.

Answer 23

**0000z 0600z 1200z 1800z** FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 24

**Hourly**, typically at approximately 50-55 minutes past the hour. FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 25

**0000z** Based on 0000z data **0600z** Based on 0000z data **1200z** Based on 1200z data **1800z** Based on 1200z data FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 26

**Moderate** FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 27

**Moderate** FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 28

A **SIGMET** advises of non−convective weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft. (a) Severe icing **not** associated with thunderstorms. (b) Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms. (c) Widespread dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface visibilities to below 3 miles. (d) Volcanic ash SIGMETs are unscheduled and valid for 4 hours when issued, with updates and corrections issued as necessary. FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 29

**Convective SIGMETs** are issued for Severe or embedded thunderstorms with the potential for any of the following: **Surface winds** greater than or equal to **50** knots **Hail** greater than or equal to **3 / 4** inch in diameter **Tornadoes** FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 30

Weather information must be prepared by the U.S. **National Weather Service** or a source **approved** by the **U.S. National Weather Service** §121.101 Weather reporting facilities.

Answer 31

**Convective Outlook** Indicates the potential for severe and non-severe convection and specific severe weather threats during the following 8 days. MRGL: marginal risk SLGT: slight risk ENH: enhanced risk MDT: moderate risk HIGH: high risk

Answer 32

**METAR** (Aviation Routine Weather Report. The METAR report includes surface observations for the terminal (airport) area. A METAR report includes the airport identifier, time of observation, wind, visibility, Runway Visual Range (RVR), present weather phenomena, sky conditions, temperature, dewpoint, and altimeter setting.

Answer 33

**Significant Meteorological Information (SIGMET).** A SIGMET is a concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena that may affect the safety of aircraft operations. SIGMET **(Non-Convective)** Issuance Criteria: -The following affecting or are expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles. • Severe or greater turbulence (SEV TURB). • Severe icing (SEV ICE). • Widespread duststorm (WDSPR DS). • Widespread sandstorm (WDSPR SS). • Volcanic ash (VA).

Answer 34

**Convective SIGMETs** are issued for thunderstorms affecting or expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles. A Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level windshear.

Answer 35

**Airmen’s Meteorological Information (AIRMET).** An AIRMET is a concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena that **may** affect the safety of aircraft operations. An AIRMET may be issued when any of the following weather phenomena are occurring or are expected to occur over an area of at least 3,000 square miles: • Ceiling less than 1,000 ft and/or visibility less than 3 SM (IFR). o Weather phenomena restricting the visibility • Widespread mountain obscuration. o Weather phenomena causing the obscuration • Moderate turbulence. • Sustained surface wind greater than 30 kts. • Moderate icing. • Non-Convective low-level wind shear.

Answer 36

**S**ierra: IFR conditions or mountain obscuration **T**ango: Moderate turbulence **Z**ulu: Moderate icing FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook

Answer 37

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast **(TAF)**

Answer 38

**Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast** (Graphic) Computer-prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations.

Answer 39

**Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast** (Raw Data) Computer-prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations.

Answer 40

**Wind** forecasts are not issued for altitudes within **1,500 feet** of a location’s elevation. **Temperature** forecasts are not issued for altitudes within **2,500 feet** of a location’s elevation.

Answer 41

**Short-Range Surface Prognostic (Prog) Chart** Graphic forecast for surface pressure systems, isobars, fronts, and precipitation for a 2½-day period.

Answer 42

**Low-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) Charts** A 12-Hour forecast of aviation weather hazards, weather flying categories, turbulence, and freezing levels. The forecast covers altitudes FL240 and below.

Answer 43

**Current Icing Potential/Forecast Icing Potential (CIP/FIP)** Geographic depiction of icing potential SLD=Super Cooled Droplets (high potential for freezing rain)

Answer 44

**Graphic Turbulence Guidance (GTG-2)** Forecast for non-convective turbulence

Answer 45

Mid-level SIGWX chart

Answer 46

High-level SIGWX chart

Answer 47

Automatic Surface Observation System Technology for observed weather conditions at an airport. Audibly received via aircraft VHF radio Source of hourly-issued METAR content

Answer 48

Automatic Terminal Information Service Audible broadcast which includes current airport weather conditions and certain operational information, such as active runways and instrument approaches in use, and cautionary information. Reduces radio frequency congestion by allowing pilots to self brief on relevant information so that ATC controllers don’t have to repeat the same information to all departing and arriving pilots.

Answer 49

VOR (VHF Omni Range) is a ground-based navigation technology in which stations or navaids transmit signals identifiable with aircraft receiver equipment for each radial of compass degree direction from the station, oriented to magnetic north. An aircraft may navigate directly TO or FROM a particular station within its range, known as service volume.

Answer 50

A high class or high altitude VOR signal may be received as much as 130 nautical miles from the station within FL180 to FL450. Two VOR stations may be as much as 260 nautical miles apart, and an aircraft navigated FROM a station up to 130 nm away, then TO the next station up to 130 nm away. VOR navigation is highly accurate (1-2°) but requires that the receiver be within the line-of-site of the navaid. An audible Morse code identifier may be heard through the receiver to enable positive identification of the navaid being received.

Answer 51

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is a signal available from many VOR navaids which may be received by a DME receiver onboard an aircraft, and indicates distance from or to a VOR navaid so equipped. A DME signal may be received close to 200 nautical miles from the transmitter. A DME receiver is required if using VOR navigation at any altitude.

Answer 52

A VORTAC is a location where a civilian VOR navaid is co-located with a military TACAN navaid. A TACAN navaid transmits a DME signal civilian aircraft equipment can receive.

Answer 53

A nondirectional beacon (NDB) is a ground-based navaid which transmits a signal in all directions. Aircraft equipment capable of receiving an NDB signal is known as an automatic direction finder (ADF). Unlike a VOR, an NDB doesn’t transmit a signal which indicates a specific compass degree radial, rather a more generalized signal in which an ADF display will point to the navaid. If the pilot steers the aircraft such that the ADF display pointer coincides with the aircraft direction, the aircraft will eventually arrive (fly over) the navaid. NDB signal reception does not require line-of-site between the navaid and receiver, Precipitation static and thunderstorms can cause erroneous ADF indications, as the receiver may be inaccurate or point to the source of the static in the atmosphere.

Answer 54

GNSS stands for Global Navigation Satellite System and GPS stands for Global Positioning System. GNSS refers to a space-based navigation system. GPS refers to a GNSS operated and maintained by the US Department of Defense (DOD). GNSS or GPS is a space-based time transfer system of navigation. An aircraft receiver receives signals simultaneously from several satellites to determine the aircraft position. A signal from a minimum of three satellites must be received for basic location and navigation information, and a minimum of five for altitude accuracy when used for an instrument approach with vertical guidance. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is a receiver indication that signals from five satellites are being received.

Answer 55

RNAV stands for Area Navigation. An aircraft RNAV navigation system uses as many VOR and/or DME signals to permit the pilot to navigate on any desired, direct course, rather than to have to navigate directly TO or FROM a VOR navaid. RNAV also refers to use of GNSS/GPS navigation technology since it permits navigation on a direct course.

Answer 56

An Inertial Navigation System (INS) or Inertial Reference System (IRS) is onboard navigation technology which can receive external signals from navigation sources, but does not require reception to provide aircraft position and course guidance. INS/IRS technology is a self-contained navigation system. Such aircraft equipment uses gyros and accelerometers to determine the aircraft location and provide course navigation guidance in the absence of navigation signals in areas where it is unavailable or not reliable.

Answer 57

A Flight Management System (FMS) is onboard aircraft navigation equipment which consolidates all navigation signals and information. An FMS contains a database of all ground navaids, published airways, and RNAV waypoints. All consolidated information is used to display course guidance.

Answer 58

An instrument landing system (ILS) is a ground-based navigation system in which signals received by onboard aircraft equipment provides lateral guidance to the runway center line and vertical guidance to the touchdown zone of the runway when the appropriate frequency is selected with aircraft receiver equipment.

Answer 59

1.Guidance (localizer for lateral, glide slope for vertical) 2.Range (marker beacons and/or DME) 3.Visual (approach lights, precision approach path indicator/PAPI, Runway End Identifier Lights, touchdown zone lights, runway threshold lights, runway centerline lights, medium or high intensity runway lights)

Answer 60

A precision instrument approach has operational vertical guidance (glide slope). A fully functional ILS is an example of a precision approach. Any instrument approach in which a ground-based glide slope is not available is considered a nonprecision approach. VOR, LOC, LDA, and SDF are examples of nonprecision approaches. A GPS approach may provide vertical guidance but is not considered a glide slope so therefore is considered an instrument approach with vertical guidance rather than a precision approach.

Answer 61

A Decision Height (DH) is a published height above ground level at which a descent on an ILS may not continue unless the pilot has visually acquired at least one of the following visual cues: Approach lights* Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Runway pavement, lights or markings *Approach lights may only be used alone to no lower than 100’ AGL, unless red side row bars or red terminating lights are visible. Decision Altitude (DA) is the published minimum altitude expressed above sea level (MSL)

Answer 62

Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is a published minimum height above ground at which a descent on a nonprecision instrument approach may not continue unless the pilot has visually acquired at least one of the following visual cues: Approach lights* Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Runway pavement, lights or markings *Approach lights may only be used alone to no lower than 100’ AGL, unless red side row bars or red terminating lights are visible. Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is the published minimum altitude expressed above sea level (MSL)

Answer 63

200’ DH 1/2SM (2400 RVR) or 1800 RVR if touchdown zone lights or centerline lights are installed and operational

Answer 64

HAT (Height Above Touchdown) is a reference to height, in feet, above the touchdown zone for a specific runway. A DH/A for a straight-in approach to a specific runway refers to HAT.

Answer 65

HAA (Height Above Aerodrome) is a reference to height, in feet, above the highest landing surface. A circling approach MDH/A refers to HAA.

Answer 66

Glide slope intercept no lower than the published height (as indicated by the lightning bolt on the profile view on approach plate)

Answer 67

The Maltese cross published on the profile view of the approach plate.

Answer 68

When guidance is more than 30° from the runway centerline or when terminating a landing on a runway other than the runway specified on the approach plate.

Answer 69

Yes. Consult inoperative lighting aids in the terminal procedures publication.

Answer 70

Turbine engines produce thrust in four stages. 1. Intake 2. Compression 3. Combustion 4. Exhaust Air is compressed, therefore temperature increases, fuel is injected which burns the air, creating a high pressure in the combustion chamber. The high pressure air rushes to low pressure atmosphere via the exhaust section.

Answer 71

**Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR)** is the ratio of high pressure within the combustion chamber of a turbine engine to the ambient atmospheric pressure and is a measure of thrust. The higher the EPR number, the higher the ratio, or difference between internal and external pressure, therefore the higher the thrust.

Answer 72

**Takeoff Decision Speed** is the maximum speed during a takeoff roll at which the pilot may begin to reject a takeoff and the minimum speed during a takeoff roll in which the aircraft can reach the required height (35’) above the takeoff surface in the event of a takeoff.

Answer 73

**Rotation speed** is the minimum speed during the takeoff roll at which the pilot may begin the rotation process.

Answer 74

**Takeoff Safety Speed** is the speed at which the required one engine inoperative climb performance can be achieved for obstacle clearance purposes in the event of an engine failure during takeoff

Answer 75

**Stall speed**

Answer 76

**Stall speed in the landing configuration**

Answer 77

**Stall speed in a specified** (by manufacturer) **configuration**

Answer 78

**Design cruising speed**

Answer 79

**Maximum operating limit speed** V=KIAS M=Mach number

Answer 80

Reference landing speed also known as approach speed

Answer 81

Four segments of climb refer to the profile to be flown in the event of an engine failure during takeoff. Takeoff weight limited by one engine inop climb requirement based on these specs. 1.Liftoff to gear up, 2.Gear up to 400’ AGL (2.4% min climb gradient required) 3.400’ AGL, level to flaps up 4.Flaps up to 1,500’ AGL (1.4% min climb gradient required)

Answer 82

**Takeoff distance** is the manufacturer horizontal distance along from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface. §25.113 Takeoff distance

Answer 83

**Accelerate-stop distance** is the distance necessary to accelerate an airplane from a standing start with all engines operating to the highest speed reached during a rejected takeoff, the pilot takes the first action to reject the takeoff at V1 for takeoff and come to a full stop. §25.109 Accelerate-stop distance.

Answer 84

** TORA** is the total length of runway available for an aircraft to accelerate from brake release to liftoff and half the horizontal distance to climb to 35 ft. It is effectively, the actual length of a runway that an aircraft can use for a takeoff roll.

Answer 85

**TODA** is the distance available to accelerate from brake release, past lift-off, to the start of the takeoff climb. TODA represents the entire distance that can be utilized for takeoff, including both runway and any clearway beyond the runway.

Answer 86

**Accelerated-Stop Distance Available (TORA)** is the total length of runway available (which may include a stopway) to accelerate from brake release to V1 plus the distance required to safely decelerate to a stop following a rejected takeoff.

Answer 87

**A clearway** is an area beyond the runway free of permanent obstacles like buildings, trees, or terrain features.

Answer 88

A **stopway** is an area beyond the runway specifically prepared to provide extra stopping distance for aircraft that cannot stop in the standard runway length due to a rejected takeoff or landing due to factors like a wet or contaminated surface on the runway, brake failure, or landing gear failure. Key features of a stopway include: -At least as wide as the runway -Positioned on extended runway center line -Able to support aircraft without causing structural damage

Answer 89

Uphill slope increases takeoff distance and decreases landing distance. Downhill slope decreases takeoff distance and increases landing distance.

Answer 90

**Driftdown** Loss of altitude after an engine fails in flight. **Driftdown altitude** Manufacturer-published altitude at which the airplane can maintain after an engine fails in flight. Determining maximum takeoff weight relative to driftdown: **Method one:** weight which will result in driftdown altitude that complies with 1,000’ (2,000’ in mountainous area) obstacle clearance throughout flight. **Method two:** flight is broken down into segments with specified alternates if an engine fails, which permits a higher takeoff weight than Method one.

Answer 91

Full published runway length minus displaced threshold (if any).

Answer 92

The use of bleed air will reduce engine thrust, and therefore, may reduce allowable takeoff weight.

Answer 93

More fuel efficient at high altitudes due to lower air density, which reduces airframe drag (assuming higher altitude doesn’t result in a higher headwind, which can reduce the efficiency by reducing ground speed, thereby increasing flight time.

Answer 94

**Landing distance** is manufacturer-published horizontal distance necessary to land and to come to a complete stop from a point 50 feet above the landing surface. §25.125 Landing.

Answer 95

**LDA** is the available distance from the threshold to complete the approach, touchdown, and decelerate to a stop.

Answer 96

A **displaced threshold** is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Displacement of a threshold reduces the length of runway available for landing.

Answer 97

Thrust will be reduced under any of these conditions due to lower air density. Lower air density means there are fewer air molecules available for compression and combustion. Lower air density may cause lower allowable takeoff weight as a result of lower thrust output.

Answer 98

Speed for best **angle** of climb Achieves greatest altitude over distance FT/NM (feet per nautical mile)

Answer 99

Speed for best **rate** of climb. Achieves greatest altitude over time FPM (feet per minute)

Answer 100

The maximum takeoff weight for any given takeoff is the lowest of the following weight limits: Maximum structural takeoff weight Maximum structural landing weight Maximum runway limited takeoff weight Maximum runway limited landing weight Maximum second segment limited weight Maximum driftdown limited weight Maximum takeoff or landing weight due to aircraft condition (CDL)

Answer 101

An **alert area** is established to inform pilots of a specific area wherein a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 102

**Area navigation (RNAV)** is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path. GPS is a form of RNAV §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 103

**Ceiling** means the height of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as “broken,” “overcast,” or “obscuration,” and not classified as “thin” or “partial.” §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 104

**Clearway** means an area beyond the runway, not less than 500 feet wide, centrally located about the extended centerline of the runway, under the control of the airport authorities. The clearway, expressed as a clearway plane, extends from the end of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25 percent, above which no object nor any terrain protrudes. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 105

**Controlled airspace** means an airspace within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Examples—Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 106

**A controlled firing area** is established to contain activities, which if not conducted in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. A spotter suspends activities when aircraft approach area. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 107

**Extended over-water operation** An operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than **50** nautical miles from the nearest shoreline. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 108

**Maximum flap extended speed (V_FE)** The highest speed permissible with wing flaps extended. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 109

**Decision altitude (DA)** A specified altitude (expressed in feet above mean sea level) in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 110

**Decision height (DH)** A specified height above the ground in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 111

**Indicated airspeed (IAS)** The speed of an aircraft as shown on its pitot static airspeed indicator. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 112

**Final approach fix (FAF)** defines the beginning of the final approach segment and the point where final segment descent may begin. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 113

**Flight time** Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 114

**Instrument approach procedure (IAP)** Published maneuvers by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles and assurance of navigation signal reception capability. It begins from the initial approach fix, or from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 115

**Landing gear extended speed (V_LE)** The maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely flown with the landing gear extended. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 116

**Landing gear operating speed (V_LO)** The maximum speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 117

**Large aircraft** Aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 118

**Mach (M)** The ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound. Example: M .84 means 84% of the speed of sound. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 119

**Military operations area (MOA)** Airspace established to separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR Traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 120

**Minimum descent altitude (MDA)** The lowest altitude specified in an instrument approach procedure, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering until the pilot sees the required visual references for the runway of intended landing. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 121

**Nonprecision instrument approach procedure** A standard instrument approach procedure in which no electronic glide slope is provided. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 122

**Operational control** The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 123

**Precision approach procedure** A standard instrument approach procedure in which an electronic glide slope is provided, such as ILS and PAR. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 124

**Restricted area** Designated airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 125

**Stopway** An area beyond the takeoff runway, no less wide than the runway, centered upon the extended centerline of the runway, and able to support the airplane during an aborted takeoff, without causing structural damage to the airplane, and designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 126

**Takeoff safety speed (V₂)** Airspeed at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved (obstacle clearance). §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 127

**TCAS I** Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) that utilizes interrogations of, and replies from, airborne radar beacon transponders and provides traffic advisories to the pilot. **TCAS II** Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) that utilizes interrogations of, and replies from airborne radar beacon transponders and provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical plane. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 128

**Time in service** With respect to maintenance time records, means the time from the moment an aircraft leaves the surface of the earth until it touches it at the next point of landing. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 129

**Warning area** Airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. §1.1 General definitions.

Answer 130

**No**. An aircraft dispatcher certificate is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. §65.15 Duration of certificates.

Answer 131

**Yes**. No person may act as an aircraft dispatcher (exercising responsibility with the pilot in command in the operational control of a flight) unless that person has in his or her personal possession an aircraft dispatcher certificate. Each person who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. §65.51 Certificate required.

Answer 132

**250 knots** unless otherwise authorized §91.117 Aircraft speed.

Answer 133

**200 knots** unless otherwise authorized §91.117 Aircraft speed.

Answer 134

**200 knots** unless otherwise authorized §91.117 Aircraft speed.

Answer 135

Unless otherwise authorized, no person may specify an alternate airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination, indicate that, at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility will be at or above the following weather minima: Precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. Non-precision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. §91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.

Answer 136

(1) The DA/DH or MDA/MDH prescribed by the approach procedure. (2) The DA/DH or MDA/MDH prescribed for the pilot in command. (3) The DA/DH or MDA/MDH appropriate for the aircraft equipment available and used during the approach. §91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.

Answer 137

Aircraft having **two engines or less** **1 statute mile** visibility. Aircraft having **more than two engines** **1/2 statute mile** visibility. §91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.

Answer 138

Designated mountainous area 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course flown. Otherwise, 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course flown. §91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.

Answer 139

**Yes**. If both a MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 nautical miles of that VOR. §91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.

Answer 140

Magnetic course 0° through 179°, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (or Flight Level at and above 18,000 feet MSL); or Magnetic course 180° through 359°, any even thousand foot MSL altitude (or Flight Level at and above 18,000 feet MSL) §91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level.

Answer 141

(1) Route. (i) Route assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) If being radar vectored, the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, the route ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, the route filed in the flight plan. (2) Altitude. The highest of the following altitudes for the route segment being flown (i) The altitude assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) The minimum altitude prescribed for IFR operations; or (iii) The altitude ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance. §91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.

Answer 142

Per Table A If unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff that are beyond the certificate holder’s control, a flightcrew member may exceed the maximum flight time specified and the cumulative flight time limits in 117.23(b) as necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate, as appropriate. §117.11 Flight time limitation.

Answer 143

**Yes** If unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff that are beyond the certificate holder’s control, a flightcrew member may exceed the maximum flight time specified in this section to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate. §117.11 Flight time limitation.

Answer 144

**Per Table B** If a flightcrew member is not acclimated, the maximum flight duty period in Table B is reduced by 30 minutes. §117.13 Flight duty period: Unaugmented operations.

Answer 145

**Deadhead transportation** Transportation of a flightcrew member as a passenger or non-operating flightcrew member, by any mode of transportation, as required by a certificate holder, excluding transportation to or from a suitable accommodation. §117.3 Definitions.

Answer 146

A set of **authorizations, limitations, and certain procedures** under which each kind of operation is to be conducted. §119.7 Operations specifications.

Answer 147

**U.S. Chart Supplement**

Answer 148

**U.S Terminal Procedures Publication**

Answer 149

14 CFR Part 1

Answer 150

14 CFR Part 61

Answer 151

14 CFR Part 65

Answer 152

14 CFR Part 91

Answer 153

14 CFR Part 110

Answer 154

14 CFR Part 119

Answer 155

**49 CFR Part 1544**

Answer 156

**14 CFR Part 117**

Answer 157

**14 CFR, Part 25**

Answer 158

**14 CFR, Part 110**

Answer 159

**National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)** 49 CFR, Part 830

Answer 160

**Domestic operation**: A scheduled operation conducted between any points within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia; or (ii) Operations solely within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia; or (iii) Operations entirely within any State, territory, or possession of the United States. §110.2 Definitions

Answer 161

**Flag operation**: A scheduled operation conducted between any point within the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States and any point outside the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States, respectively; or (ii) Between any point within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia and any point outside the 48 contiguous States of the United States and the District of Columbia. (iii) Between any point outside the U.S. and another point outside the U.S. §110.2 Definitions

Answer 162

**Low altitude VOR (Victor) airway** designation from 1,200' AGL to but not including FL 180 shown on IFR Enroute Low Altitude Charts. Airways are predicated on VOR or VORTAC NAVAIDs are defined by the outbound radial from the NAVAID.

Answer 163

**Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)** The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

Answer 164

**Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)** The lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.

Answer 165

**GNSS MEA** for an airway segment to ensure obstacle clearance and communications reception.

Answer 166

**Segment nautical mile distance** along airway (between fixes, such as intersections, RNAV waypoints, and VOR/VORTAC NAVAIDS).

Answer 167

**Nautical mile distance between VOR/VORTAC NAVAIDS**

Answer 168

**VORTAC NAVAID** co-located with a military TACAN NAVAID surrounded by a **Compass Rose** oriented to Magnetic North of the NAVAID. **Information box** indicates NAVAID name and VHF frequency.

Answer 169

Airport with a minimum 5,000 feet hard-surface runway and an approved Instrument Approach Procedure.

Answer 170

Low altitude RNAV route designation (below 18,000 feet), shown on low altitude IFR en route charts.

Answer 171

High altitude RNAV route designation (FL180 and above), shown on high altitude IFR en route charts.

Answer 172

**Nonstandard takeoff minimums** Terminal Procedures Publication

Answer 173

**Nonstandard alternate minimums** Terminal Procedures Publication

Answer 174

**Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)** Published route into a terminal area Terminal Procedures Publication

Answer 175

**Instrument Departure Procedure** Published departure route from a terminal area Terminal Procedures Publication

Answer 176

**ILS Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)** Precision instrument approach procedure Terminal Procedures Publication

Answer 177

Airport diagram Surface navigation (runways, taxiways, airport buildings) Terminal Procedures Publication

Answer 178

**IFR preferred routes** Established for traffic movement efficiency

Answer 179

**Accelerate-stop distance** The distances necessary to accelerate the airplane from a standing start with all engines operating to rejection of the takeoff and come to a full stop. Aircraft manufacturer published data. §25.109 Accelerate-stop distance.

Answer 180

**Takeoff distance** The greater of— (1) The horizontal distance from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface (assuming an engine failure occurs); or (2) 115 percent of the horizontal distance along the takeoff path, with all engines operating, from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface. Aircraft manufacturer published data. §25.113 Takeoff distance and takeoff run.

Answer 181

**Landing distance** The horizontal distance necessary to land and to come to a complete stop from a point 50 feet above the landing surface. Aircraft manufacturer published data. §25.125 Landing.

Answer 182

**Class A airspace** Controlled airspace, including airspace overlying waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 excluding Alaska and Hawaii. §71.33 Class A airspace areas.

Answer 183

**Class B airspace** Controlled airspace encompassing at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated, from the surface to typically 10,000’ MSL. §71.41 Class B airspace.

Answer 184

**Class C airspace** Controlled encompassing at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated. Surface to 4,000’ AGL with a core area 4-5 NM diam, a shelf floor at 1,200’ AGL, and shelf 10 NM diam. §71.51 Class C airspace.

Answer 185

**Class D airspace** Controlled airspace encompassing at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated. 4-5 NM diam surface to 2,500’ AGL §71.61 Class D airspace.

Answer 186

**Class E airspace** Controlled airspace, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, extending upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including FL180, and airspace above FL600. §71.71 Class E airspace.

Answer 187

**Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums (RVSM)** is special aircrew, aircraft, and operator certification airspace at and above FL290 to and including FL410.

Answer 188

Automatic Terminal Information Service Audible broadcast which includes current airport weather conditions and certain operational information, such as active runways and instrument approaches in use, and cautionary information. Reduces radio frequency congestion by allowing pilots to self brief on relevant information so that ATC controllers don’t have to repeat the same information to all departing and arriving pilots.

Answer 189

Expect Departure Clearance Time An estimated delayed departure time, due to a GDP (Ground Delay Program). Aircraft is expected to plan taxi to be airborne by this time.

Answer 190

Expect Further Clearance Issued as part of airborne holding instructions. Time to expect a further clearance (release from hold) Used to depart hold in event of radio communication failure.

Answer 191

Included as part of an IFR clearance at non tower controlled airport. Aircraft must be airborne by the issued void time, or IFR clearance becomes void. New IFR clearance must be received.

Answer 192

A ground delay program in effect for destination in which a delayed departure time cannot be determined. All inbound traffic must hold at the departure airport until further notice.

Answer 193

Proposed details for a future flight for ATC consideration. IFR flights require flight plan be filed at least 30 minutes prior to proposed departure time. Pilots receive an IFR clearance prior to departure based on flight plan, which may be as filed, or with changes as assigned by ATC.

Answer 194

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast Aircraft transmitter equipment to enable aircraft to appear on ATC radar displays. Any combination of four digits 0-7 may be issued by ATC for a unique code per aircraft.

CRITICAL NTK Flashcards

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