Cross-Country Flight Planning Flashcards

Question

During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMS?

Answer 1

No. You must specifically request GPS/WAAS NOTAMs.

Answer 2

3 satellites - yields a latitude and longitude position only (2D) 4 satellites - yields latitude, longitude, and altitude position (3D) 5 satellites - 3D and RAIM 6 satellites - 3D and RAIM (isolates corrupt signal and removes from navigation solution)

Answer 3

The wide area augmentation system (WAAS) is a ground and satellite integrated navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from the GPS. WAAS provides extremely accurate lateral and vertical navigation signals to aircraft equipped with GPS/WAAS-enabled certified equipment.

Answer 4

1) RAIM capability - Many VFR GPS receivers and all hand-held units have no RAIM alerting capability. Loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error, cannot be displayed to the pilot by such receivers. Database currency - In many receivers, an updatable database is used for navigation fixes, airports, and instrument procedures. These databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use. Antenna location - In many VFR installations of GPS receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance. Handheld GPS receiver antenna location is limited to the cockpit or cabin only and is rarely optimized to provide a clear view of available satellites. Loss of signal, coupled with a lack of RAIM capability, could present erroneous position and navigation information with no warning to the pilot.

Answer 5

VFR waypoints provide pilots with a supplementary tool to assist with position awareness while navigating visually in aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers (such as GPS). They provide navigational aids for pilots unfamiliar with an area, waypoint definition of existing reporting points, enhanced navigation in and around Class B and Class C airspace, and around special use airspace. VFR waypoint names consist of a five-letter identifier beginning with "VP" and are retrievable from navigation databases; they should be used only when operating under VFR conditions.

Answer 6

When a VFR flight plan is filed, it is held by the FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time and then is canceled.

Answer 7

Condition 1: Plenty of fuel and weather conditions good 1) Straighten up and flight right. Fly a specific heading in a direction you believe to be correct (or circle, if unsure); don't wander aimlessly. 2) If you have been flying a steady compass heading and keeping a relatively accurate navigation log, it's not likely you will have a problem locating your position. 3) If several VORs are within reception distance, use them for a cross-bearing to determine position (even a single VOR can be of help in narrowing down your possible position); or, fly to the station. 4) Use knowledge of your last known position, elapsed time, approximate wind direction and ground speed, to establish how far you may have traveled since your last checkpoint. 5) Use this distance as a radius and draw a semicircle ahead of your last known position on chart. For example, you estimate your ground speed at 120 knots. If you have been flying 20 minutes since your last checkpoint, then the no-wind radius of your semicircle is 40 miles projected along the direction of your estimated track. 6) If still unsure of your position, loosen up the eyeballs and start some first-class pilotage. Look for something big. Don't concern yourself with the minute or trivial at this point. Often, there will be linear features such as rivers, mountain ranges, or prominent highways and railroads that are easy to identify. You can use them as references for orientation purposes and thus find them of value in fixing your approximate position. Condition 2: Low on fuel; weather deteriorating; inadequate experience; darkness imminent; and/or equipment malfunctioning 1) Get it on the ground! Most accidents are the product of mistakes which have multiplied over a period of time and getting lost is no exception. It may well be that in doing so, you have added the final mistake which will add another figure to the accident statistics. If terrain or other conditions make landing impossible at the moment, don't waste time, for it's of the essence - don't search for the perfect field, anything usable will do. Remember, most people on the ground know where they are and you know that you do not.

Answer 8

Use of the "4 Cs": 1) Climb - The higher altitude allows better communication capability, as well as better visual range for identification of landmarks 2) Communicate - Use the system. Use 121.5 MHz if no other frequency produces results. 121.5 is guarded by FSS's, control towers, military towers, approach control facilities, and Air Route Traffic Control Centers. 3) Confess - Once communications are established, let them know your problem. 4) Comply - Follow instructions.

Answer 9

1) After selecting my alternate, I will approximate the magnetic course to the alternate using a straight edge and a compass rose from a nearby VOR or an airway that closely parallels my direction to the alternate. 2) I can use the straight edge and scale at the bottom of the chart to approximate a distance to the alternate. I can fine-tune this course and distance later, as time permits, with a plotter. 3) If time permits, I'll start my diversion over a prominent ground feature. However, in an emergency, I'll divert promptly toward my alternate. 4) Once established on course, I'll note the time, and then use the winds aloft nearest to my diversion point to calculate a heading and GS. Once I have my GS, I'll determine my ETA and fuel consumption to the alternate. 5) I'll give priority to flying the aircraft while dividing attention between navigation and planning. 6) When determining my altitude to use while diverting, I'll consider cloud heights, winds, terrain, and radio reception.

Answer 10

121.5 This is guarded by military towers, most civil towers, FSS's, and radar facilities.

Answer 11

A CTAF is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or TOWER frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications.

Answer 12

UNICOM is a nongovernment communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports. Airports other than those with a control tower/FSS on airport will normally use 122.700, 122.725, 122.800, 122.975, 123.000, 123.050, and 123.075 MHZ. Airports with a control tower or an FSS on airport will normally use 122.950 MHz.

Answer 13

Automatic Terminal Information Service is the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas. Its purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information.

Answer 14

Use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures. MULTICOM is a mobile service not open to public use, used to provide communications essential to conduct the activities being performed by or directed from private aircraft.

Answer 15

FSS's and supplemental weather service locations (SWSL) have assigned frequencies for their different functions. If in doubt about what to use, 122.2 MHz is designated as a common enroute simplex frequency at most FSS's.

Answer 16

A remote communications outlet is an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel, established for the purpose of providing ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports. ATC may use the RCO to deliver en route clearances and departure authorizations, and to acknowledge IFR cancellations or departure/landing times. As a secondary function, RCOs may be used for advisory purposes whenever the aircraft is below the coverage of the primary air/ground frequency.

Answer 17

1) Ask the FSS briefer during the preflight weather briefing. 2) Consult the communications section under flight service for the airport of departure in the Chart Supplement.

Answer 18

This indicates FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243.0, and 255.4 are available.

Answer 19

This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies.

Answer 20

A plain box without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. These NAVAIDs will have a "no voice" symbol (underline under frequency).

Answer 21

These frequencies are the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site, and will ensure reception by the controlling FSS at low altitudes without terrain interference. They will normally be followed by an "R" which indicates that the FSS can receive only on that frequency (you transmit on that frequency). The pilot will listen for a response over the NACAID frequency.

Answer 22

Special use airspace information can be found on the end panel of a VFR sectional chart. Restricted areas are presented in blue, listed numerically, and supplemented with altitude, time of use, and the controlling agency/contact facility. Frequencies will be listed when available. The controlling agency will be shown when the contact facility and frequency data is unavailable.

Answer 23

1) The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft. 2) The PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency. 3) Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon request from the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

Answer 24

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft: 1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic drink 2) While under the influence of alcohol 3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety 4) While having an alcohol concentration of .04% or more in a blood or breath specimen.

Answer 25

No, except in an emergency.

Answer 26

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are; portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

Answer 27

No PIC may allow any object to be dropped from the aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Answer 28

Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions.

Answer 29

1) NOTAMs 2) Weather reports and forecasts 3) Known ATC traffic delays 4) Runway lengths at airports of intended use 5) Alternative available if the planned flight cannot be completed 6) Fuel requirements 7) Takeoff and landing distance data

Answer 30

Each person on board must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him/her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. However, a person who has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.

Answer 31

No pilot may take off unless the PIC of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed. the PIC shall ensure that all persons on board have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness, if installed, before movement of the aircraft on the surface, takeoff, or landing.

Answer 32

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his/her seatbelt fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and landing, this includes shoulder harnesses, if installed, unless it interferes with other required duties.

Answer 33

1) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another as to create a collision hazard. 2) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation. 3) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer 34

1) Balloons 2) Gliders 3) Airships 4) Airplanes 5) Rotocraft Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft

Answer 35

When the aircraft is experiencing an emergency

Answer 36

Converging - aircraft on the right has the right-of-way Approaching head-on - both aircraft shall alter course to the right Overtaking - The aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way; pilot of the overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right.

Answer 37

Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right-of-way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way to an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

Answer 38

Indicated airspeed of more that 250 knots.

Answer 39

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of people, below an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Answer 40

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Answer 41

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Answer 42

All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface.

Answer 43

When the barometric pressure is 31.00" Hg or less, each person operating an aircraft must maintain the cruising altitude of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft. If there is no station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00"Hg, consult the Aeronautical Information Manual for correct procedures.

Answer 44

Use the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio; the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.

Answer 45

1) An amended clearance has been obtained 2) An emergency exists 3) In response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

Answer 46

1) Each PIC who, in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction must notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible. 2) Each PIC who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC).

Answer 47

Steady Green - Cleared for takeoff (on the ground)/Cleared to land (in the air) Flashing Green - Cleared to taxi (on the ground)/return for landing (in the air) Steady Red - Stop (on the ground)/ Yield, Continue circling (in the air) Flashing Red - Taxi clear of runway (on the ground)/Unsafe, do not land (in the air) Flashing White - Return to Start (on the ground)/Not used in the air Alternate Red/Green - Exercise extreme caution (on the ground and in the air

Answer 48

1) Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums 2) Visual contact with the tower is maintained 3) A clearance to land is received

Answer 49

Arriving aircraft receiver inoperative: 1) Remain outside or above Class D surface area 2) Determine direction and flow of traffic 3) Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals. 4) At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern 5) Watch tower for light gun signals. Arriving aircraft transmitter inoperative: 1) Remain outside or above Class D surface area. 2) Determine direction and flow of traffic. 3) Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information. 4) Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals. 5) Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights. Arriving aircraft transmitter and received inoperative: 1) Remain outside or above Class D surface area. 2) Determine direction and flow of traffic. 3) Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals. 4) Acknowledge light signals as noted above.

Answer 50

1) In the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right. 2) In the case of an aircraft departing an airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93.

Answer 51

Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

Answer 52

There must be enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

Answer 53

You must be able to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.

Answer 54

When above 3,000 feet AGL, but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0 degrees to 179 degrees, fly an an odd-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180 degrees to 359 degrees, fly at an even-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet

Answer 55

An ELT is a radio transmitter attached to the aircraft structure which operatures from its own power source on 121.5, 243.0 MHz, and the newer 406 MHz. It aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward-sweeping audio tone, 2-4 times a second. It is designed to function without human action after an accident. It can be operationally tested during the first 5 minutes after any hour.

Answer 56

Yes. The following exceptions exist: 1) Aircraft engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50 NM radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began. 2) Aircraft engaged in design and testing. 3) New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation, and delivery. 4) Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations.

Answer 57

1) When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour 2) When 50 percent of their useful life has expired (the new expiration date for replacing the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. This date indicates 50% of the battery's useful life.)

Answer 58

1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL; for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen. 2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL; for the entire flight time at those altitudes, the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen. 3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL; each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen

Answer 59

1) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement 2) Over an open air assembly of people 3) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport 4) Within 4 NM of the center line of a Federal airway 5) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface 6) When flight visibility is less than 3 SM

Answer 60

Aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

Answer 61

1) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds; a) A bank angle of 60 degrees relative to the horizon b) A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon 2) The above regulation does not apply to a) Flight tests for pilot certification or rating b) Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a CFI or ATP instructing in accordance with 14 CFR 61.67

Answer 62

Airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alasks; and designated international airspace beyond 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.

Answer 63

No. Flights in Class A airspace must be IFR.

Answer 64

At least a private pilot with an instrument rating.

Answer 65

1) A two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the frequency assigned. 2) A Mod C altitude encoding transponder. 3) ADS-B and TIS-B equipment operating on 1090 MHz ES frequency. 4) Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations

Answer 66

Is is not specifically charted.

Answer 67

That airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers, and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.

Answer 68

1) The PIC must hold at least a private pilot certificate 2) The PIC a recreational pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.101; or for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94. 3) The PIC holds a sport pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.325; or the requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in 14 CFR 61.94. 4) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94 or 61.95

Answer 69

1) An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on the appropriate frequencies for that area. 2) A Mod C altitude encoding transponder. 3) ADS-B Out equipment 4) If IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN received or an operable and suitable RNAV system

Answer 70

Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area.

Answer 71

Clear of clouds with at least 3 SM flight visibility.

Answer 72

Class B airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top.

Answer 73

Sequencing and separation from other aircraft.

Answer 74

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. This does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B airspace area.

Answer 75

That airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

Answer 76

Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. The outer area radius will be 20 NM, with some variations based on site specific requirements. The outer area extends outward from the primary airport and extends from the lower limits to radar/radio coverage up to the ceiling of the approach controls airspace.

Answer 77

A student pilot certificate

Answer 78

1) A two-way radio 2) Automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment with Mode C capability 3) ADS-B Out equipment - operating on UAT 978 MHz or 1090 MHz ES frequency

Answer 79

Each person must establish two-way radio communications with ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer 80

If a controller responds to a radio call with an aircraft's call sign, radio communications have been established.

Answer 81

Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

Answer 82

VFR flight operations within Class C airspace require 3 SM flight visibility and cloud clearance of at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal to clouds.

Answer 83

A solid magenta line. Class C airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts

Answer 84

1) Sequenced to the primary airport 2) Provided Class C services within the Class C airspace and the outer area 3) Provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on a workload permitting basis. This can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates

Answer 85

Basic radar service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement. TRSA service - radar sequencing and separation service for VFR aircraft in a TRSA Class C service - This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport. Class B service - Provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport

Answer 86

1) In Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace areas 2) Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL 3) Class E airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL within the 48 contiguous states and DC, excluding the airspace at the below 2,500 feet AGL 4) Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL (Mod C veil) 5) For ADS-B Out: Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the US out to 12 NM 6) All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous US ADIZ (Mod C transponder equipment required; ADS-B Out not required)

Answer 87

No person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area at an indicated speed of more than 200 knots

Answer 88

Class D airspace extends upward from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain these procedures.

Answer 89

Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace. ADS-B Out equipment is not required in Class D airspace as long as it is not located in a Mode C Veil

Answer 90

Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

Answer 91

Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. Class E airspace extensions begin at the surface and extend up to the overlying controlled airspace. The extensions provided controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR. Surface area arrival extensions become part of the surface area and are in effect during the same times as the surface area.

Answer 92

3 SM flight visibility and cloud clearance of at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal to clouds.

Answer 93

Blue segmented lines on Sectional and Terminal charts; with a boxed [D] on IFR Enroute Lows

Answer 94

No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of the type of flight plan or whether or not under the control of a radar facility, the pilot is responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain or obstacles. A controller, on a workload permitting basis, will provide radar traffic information, safety alerts and traffic information for sequencing purposes.

Answer 95

No person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots

Answer 96

Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable.

Answer 97

No; some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports normally beings at 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGl and can be determined from visual aeronautical charts.

Answer 98

Controlled airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

Answer 99

Surface area designated for an airport where a control tower is not in operation - Class E surface areas extend upward from the surface to a designated altitude, or to the adjacent or overlying controlled airspace and are configured to contain all instrument procedures. Extension to a surface area - Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. Class E airspace extensions begin at the surface and extend up to the overlying controlled airspace. The extensions provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR. Airspace used for transition - Class E airspace areas may be designated for transitioning aircraft to/from the terminal or enroute environment. They extend upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. The 700-foot/1,200 foot AGL Class E airspace transition areas remain in effect continuously, regardless of airport operating hours or surface area status. Enroute domestic areas - Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude and provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services but the Federal airway system is inadequate. Federal airways and lower-altitude RNAV routes - Federal airways and low-altitude RNAV routes are Class E airspace areas and, unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL Offshore airspace areas - Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. These areas provide controlled airspace beyond 12 miles from the coast of the US in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services, and within which the US is applying domestic procedures. Unless designated at a lower altitude - Class E airspace in the US consists of the airspace extending upward from 14,500 feet MSL to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL overlying the 48 contiguous states, DC, and Alaska, including the waters within 12 NM from the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. The airspace above FL 600 is Class E airspace.

Answer 100

1) Pilot certification (student at minimum) 2) Equipment: a) An operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability and operable ADS-B Out equipment are required at and above 10,000 feet MSL within the 48 contiguous states and DC, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface b) Operable ADS-B Out equipment at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the US out to 12 NM offshore

Answer 101

The surface area airspace will change to either a Class E surface area or Class G airspace. In such cases, the "airspace" entry for the airport in the Chart Supplement US will state "other times Class E" or "other times Class G". When a part-time surface area changes to Class E airspace, the Class E arrival extensions will remain in effect as Class E airspace. If a part-time Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area becomes Class G airspace, the arrival extensions will change to Class G at the same time.

Answer 102

Class E transition areas extend upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. Class E transition areas exist to help separate (via cloud clearance) arriving and departing IFR traffic from VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity.

Answer 103

Yes, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2.500 feet AGL.

Answer 104

The lateral and vertical limits of all Class E controlled airspace up to but not including 18,000 feet are shown by narrow bands of vignette on Sectional and Terminal Area charts. Controlled airspace floors of 700 feet AGL are defined by a magenta vignette; floors other than 700 feet AGL that abut uncontrolled airspace are defined by a blue vignette; differing floors greater than 700 feet AGL are annotated by a symbol and a number indicating the floor.

Answer 105

They are depicted by a magenta segmented line

Answer 106

Class G or uncontrolled airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. It is airspace in which ATC has no authoirty or responsibility to control air traffic; however, pilots should remember there are VFR minimums that apply to this airspace.

Answer 107

Yes; two-way communication

Answer 108

Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to the over-lying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL.

Answer 109

When the visibility is less that 3 SM but not less than 1 SM during night hours, an airplane may be operated clear of clouds if operated in an airport traffic pattern within one-half mile of the runway.

Answer 110

The main difference is the flight visibility/cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it.

Answer 111

Class C, D, or E airspace: 1) Less than 10,000 feet MSL a) Visibility - 3 SM b) Cloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal 2) At or above 10,000 feet MSL a) Visibility - 5 SM b) Cloud Clerance - 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 SM horizontal Class G airspace: 1) 1,200 feet or less above the surface a) Day i) Visibility - 1 SM ii) Cloud clearance - clear of clouds b) Night i) Visibility - 3 Sm ii) Cloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal 2) More than 1,200 feet above the surface, but less than 10,000 feet MSL a) Day i) Visibility - 1 SM ii) Cloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal b) Night i) Visibility - 3 Sm ii) Cloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal 3) More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL a) Visibility - 5 Sm b) Cloud clearance - 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal

Answer 112

1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility

Answer 113

No, with one exception. A "Special VFR clearance" may be obtained from ATC prior to operating within a Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area provided the flight can remain clear of clouds within at least 1 SM ground visibility if taking off or landing, or, 1 SM flight visibility for operations within Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas.

Answer 114

A VFR pilot may request and be given a clearance to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and Class E surface areas and some Class B and Class C surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight will not delay IFR operations. Special VFR operations by fixed wing aircraft are prohibited in some Class B and Class C surface areas due to the volume of IFR traffic.

Answer 115

When a control tower is located within a Class B/C/D surface area, requests for clearances should be made to the tower. In a Class E surface area, a clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center.

Answer 116

Prohibited areas contain certain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.

Answer 117

Restricted areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. These areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.

Answer 118

No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency. Normally no operations are permitted within a prohibited area and prior permission must always be obtained before operating within a restricted area.

Answer 119

A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the US, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such an area is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters, or both.

Answer 120

A MOA consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an MOA when military activity is being conducted. The activity status (active/inactive) of MOAs may change frequently. Therefore, pilots should contact any FSS within 100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.

Answer 121

Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas. All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Answer 122

CFAs contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or found lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.

Answer 123

NSAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited.

Answer 124

Special Air Traffic Rules (SATR) - Rules that govern procedures for conducting flights in certain areas listed in Part 93. The term "SATR" is used in the US to describe the rules for operations in specific areas designated in the Code of Federal Regulations. Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA) - Airspace of defined dimensions, above land areas or territorial waters, within which the flight of aircraft is subject to the rules set forth in Part 93, unless otherwise authorized by ATC. Not all areas listed in Part 93 are designated SFRA, but special air traffic rules apply to all areas described in Part 93.

Answer 125

The frequency for the controlling agency is tabulated in the margins of the applicable IFR and VFR charts. Permanent SUAs (except CFAs) are charted on sectional aeronautical, VFR terminal area, and applicable en route charts, and include the hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency. For temporary restricted areas and MOAs, pilots should review the Domestic Notices found on the Federal NOTAM System website at notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch/ or the FAA SUA website at sua.faa.gov.

Answer 126

Information will normally be depicted on the reverse side of VFR Terminal Area Charts, commonly referred to as Class B airspace charts.

Answer 127

Military Training Routes are developed for use by the military for the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high speed training. The routes above 1,500 feet AGl are developed to be flown, to the maximum extent possible, under IFR. The routes at 1,500 feet AGL and below are generally developed to be flown under VFR. Routes below 1,500 feet AGL use four-digit identifiers. Routes above 1,500 feet AGL use three-digit identifiers. IR is for IFR routes and VR is for VFR routes.

Answer 128

A TRSA consists of airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is urged, but not mandatory.

Answer 129

TRSAs do not fit into any of the US airspace classes and are not contained in Part 71 not are there any operating rules in Part 91. The primary airport(s) within the TRSA become Class D airspace. The remaining porting of a TRSA overlies other controlled airspace which is normally Class E airspace beginning at 700 or 1,200 feet and established to transition to/from the enroute/terminal environment. TRSAs will continue to be an airspace area where participating pilots can receive additional radar services which have been redefined as TRSA service.

Answer 130

TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional and terminal area charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment. The Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line.

Answer 131

An Air Defense Identification Zone is an area of airspace over land or water, extending upward from the surface, within which the ready identification, the location and the control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security. ADIZ locations are: Domestic - located with US along an international boundary Coastal - located over coastal waters of the US Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ) - located over coastal waters of Alaska Land-based ADIZ - located over US metropolitan areas

Answer 132

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are: Flight plan - an IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility. Two-way radio - an operating two-way radio is required. Transponder - aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting (Mode C) capabilities. The transponder must be turned on and set to the assigned ATC code. Position reports - for IFR flights, normal position reporting. For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry. Land-based ADIZ - are activated and deactivated over US metropolitan areas as needed, with dimension, activation dates, etc., disseminated via NOTAM. Pilots unable to comply with all NOTAM requirements must remain clear of land-based ADIZ. Pilots entering a land-based ADIZ without authorization or who fail to follow all requirements risk interception by military fighter aircraft.

Answer 133

Vertical dimensions - 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 Operations permitted - IFR Entry prerequisites - ATC Clearance Minimum pilot qualifications - Instrument rating Two-way radio communications - Yes Aircraft separation - All Conflict resolution - N/A Traffic advisories - N/A Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 134

Vertical dimensions - Surface to 10,000 feet MSL Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance Minimum pilot qualifications - Private/student Two-way radio communication - Yes VFR minimum visibility - 3 SM VFR minimum distance from clouds - Clear of clouds Aircraft separation - All Conflict resolution - Yes Traffic advisories - Yes Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 135

Vertical dimensions - Surface to 4,000 feet AGL (charted MSL) Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearances for IFR; radio contact for all Minimum pilot qualifications - student certificate Two-way radio communications - Yes VFR minimum visibility - 3 SM VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR, and runway operations Conflict resolution - Between IFR and VFR operations Traffic advisories - Yes Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 136

Vertical dimensions - Surface to 2,500 feet AGL (charted MSL) Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all Minimum pilot qualifications - student certificate Two-way radio communications - Yes VFR minimum visibility - 3 SM VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR, and runway operations Conflict resolution - No Traffic advisories - Workload permitting Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 137

Vertical dimensions - Except for 18,000 feet MSL, no defined vertical limit. Extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR Minimum pilot qualifications - Student certificate Two-way radio communication - Yes for IFR VFR minimum visibility - 3 SM VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal Aircraft separation - IFR and SVFR Conflict resolution - No Traffic advisories - Workload permitting Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 138

Vertical dimensions - Surface up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL Operations permitted- IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - None Minimum pilot qualifications - Student certificate Two-way radio communications - No VFR minimum visibility - 1 SM VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal Aircraft separation - None Conflict resolution - No Traffic advisories - Workload permitting Safety advisories - No

Answer 139

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTBS office when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed serious incidents occur: 1) Flight control system malfunction 2) Crewmember unable to perform normal duties 3) Inflight fire 4) Aircraft collision inflight 5) Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 6) Overdue aircraft (believed to be in accident) 7) Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft 8) Complete loss of information (excluding flickering), from more than 50% of an aircraft's EFIS cockpit displays

Answer 140

An aircraft incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Answer 141

An aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight an and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any persons suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

Answer 142

Any injury that: 1) Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received 2) Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose) 3) Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage 4) Involves any internal organ 5) Involves second- or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface

Answer 143

Damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged; bent fairings or cowling; dented skin; small punctured holes in the skin or fabric; ground damage to rotor or propeller blades; and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wing tips are not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this part.

Answer 144

The operator of an aircraft shall file any report with the field office of the Board nearest the accident or incident. The NTSB field offices are listed in the US government pages of telephone directories in major cities.

Answer 145

The operator shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1/2, available from the NTSB field offices, the NTSB in DC, or the FAA Flight Standards District Office: 1) Within 10 days after an accident 2) When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing Note: A report on an incident for which notification is required as described shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the NTSB.

Answer 146

VASi is a system of lights so arranged to provide visual descent guidance information during the approach to a runway. The basic principle of VASI is that of color differential between red and white: each light projects a beam of light having a white segment in the upper half and a red segment in the lower part of the beam. The lights in a two-bar VASI will be as follows: Red Over Red - below glide path Red Over White - On glide path White Over White - Above glide path

Answer 147

PAPI uses light units similar to the VASI, but are installed in a single row of either two- or four-light units. These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The row of light units are normally installed on the left side of the runway. Four white lights - High (more than 3.5 degrees) Three white one red - Slightly high (3.2 degrees) Two white two red - On glide path (3 degrees) One white three red - Slightly low (2.8 degrees) Four red lights - Low (less than 2.5 degrees)

Answer 148

In Class B/C/D/E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff, and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation and it is the pilot's responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by Part 91.

Answer 149

Mandatory instruction sign - Red background/white inscription; denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or a prohibited area. Location sign - black background/yellow inscription/yellow border; do not have arrows; used to identify a taxiway or runway location, the boundary of the runway, or identify an ILS critical area. Directional sign - Yellow background/black inscription; identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection that a pilot would except to turn onto or hold short of. Destination sign - Yellow background/black inscription and also contain arrows; provides information on locating runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation areas, etc. Information sign - Yellow background/black inscription; used to provide the pilot with information on areas that can't be seen from the control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures, etc. Runway distance remaining sign - black background/white numeral inscription; indicates the distance of the remaining runway in thousand of feet.

Answer 150

Runways - white Taxiways, areas not intended for use by aircraft, and holding positions - yellow

Answer 151

Runway threshold markings - These come in two configurations. They either consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width. A threshold marking helps identify the beginning of the runway available for landing. Displaced threshold - A threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. A displaced threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction. A ten-foot wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. Runway hold position markings - For taxiways, these markings identify the locations on a taxiway where aircraft must stop when a clearance has not been issued to proceed onto the runway. Generally, runway holding position markings also identify the boundary of the runway safety area (RSA) for aircraft exiting the runway. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. Temporarily closed runways and taxiways - Provides a visual indication to pilots that a runway/taxiway is temporarily closed. Yellow crosses are placed on the runway only at each end of the runway. Closed taxiways are blocked with barricades or may utilize a yellow cross at the entrance to the taxiway. Permanently closed runways and taxiways - For runways and taxiways which are permanently closed, the lighting circuits will be disconnected. The runway threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are obliterated and yellow crosses are placed at each end of the runway and at 1,000 foot intervals.

Answer 152

1) At an airport with a full or part-time UNICOM station in operation, an advisory may be obtained which will usually include wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMs, etc. 2) Many airports are now providing completely automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information on an automated UNICOM system. Availability of the automated UNICOM will be published in the Chart Supplement US and approach charts. 3) At those airports where these services are not available, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designated to provide traffic pattern information. The segmented circle system consists of the following components: a) The segmented circle b) The wind direction indicator c) The landing direction indicator (a tetrahedron) d) Landing strip indicators e) Traffic pattern indicators

Answer 153

Turn to the left, unless otherwise indicated

Answer 154

Unless otherwise required by the applicable distance from cloud criteria: 1) Propeller-driven aircraft enter the traffic pattern at 1,000 feet AGL 2) Large and turbine-powered aircraft enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of not less than 1,500 feet AGL or 500 feet above the established pattern altitude 3) Helicopters operating in the traffic pattern may fly a pattern similar to the fixed-wing aircraft pattern, but at a lower altitude (500 AGL) and closer to the runway. This pattern may be on the opposite side of the runway from fixed-wing traffic when airspeed requires or for practice power-off landings (autorotation) and if local policy permits. Landings not to the runway must avoid the flow of fixed wing traffic.

Answer 155

A pilot should plan to enter the traffic pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45 degree turn (to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

Answer 156

The Chart Supplement US

Answer 157

An "Air Route Traffic Control Center" is a facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during the en route phase of flight. Air Route Surveillance Radar allows them the capability to detect and display an aircraft's position while en route between terminal areas. When equipment capabilities and controller workload permit, certain advisory/assistance service may be provided to VFR aircraft (VFR flight following). Frequencies may be obtained from FSS or the Chart Supplement US. Also, IFR enroute charts have ARTCC sector frequencies depicted. If departing from an airport with a control tower, you can request the appropriate frequency from them.

Answer 158

1200 - VFR operations 7500 - Hijack 7600 - Communications failure 7700 - Emergency

Answer 159

Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport.

Answer 160

Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B/C/D surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B/C/D/ surface areas.

Answer 161

You should take the local time, convert to military time, and add the time differential to convert to UTC. Eastern Standard Time - Add 5 hours Central Standard Time - Add 6 hours Mountain Standard Time - Add 7 hours Pacific Standard Time - Add 8 hours Alaska Standard Time - Add 9 hours Hawaii Standard Time - Add 10 hours For daylight savings time, subtract 1 hour from above

Answer 162

Arriving - ATIS, Approach Control, Control Tower, Ground Control Departing - ATIS, Clearance Delivery, Ground Control, Control Tower, Departure Control

Answer 163

Notices to Airmen - time-critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature, or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications, receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM system. This is aeronautical information that could affect a pilot's decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS's, radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations. Pilots can access NOTAM information via FSS or online via NOTAM Search at notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch

Answer 164

Domestic NOTAM (D) - Information is disseminated for all navigational facilities that are part of the NAS, all public use aerodromes, seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the Chart Supplement US. NOTAM (D) information includes such data as taxiway closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, and airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria, such as VASI. Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAM - flight information that is regulatory in nature and includes NOTAMs such as amendments to published IAPs, TFRs, ADS-B, TIS-B, FIS-B service availability, WAAS or GPS information, and special notices. Additionally, US Domestic Security NOTAMs are FDC NOTAMs that inform pilots of certain US security activities or requirements. International NOTAMs - Distributed to more than one country and published in ICAO format. For the most part, International NOTAMs duplicate data found in a US NOTAM (D). International NOTAMs received by the FAA from other countries are stored inthe US NOTAM System. Military NOTAMs - Originated by the US Air Force, Army, Marine, or Navy, and pertain to military or joint-use navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS. Military NOTAMs are published in the International NOTAM format and should be reviewed by users of a military or joint-use facility.

Answer 165

RWY, TWY, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, ODP, SID, CHART, DATA, IAP, VFP, ROUTE, SPECIAL, SECURITY

Answer 166

A TFR is a regulatory action issued via the US NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. They may be issued due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or as a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. TFR information can be obtained from an AFSS or on the internet at tfr.faa.gov. To travel through the outer ring of a TFR, “squawk and talk” - you must be cleared through and have a squawk code to enter. To travel through the core of a TFR, must have a flight plan filed.

Answer 167

1) Call the FSS - 1-800-WX-BRIEF 2) NOTAM Search - notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch 3) FSS briefing website - 188wxbrief.com 4) FIS-B via ADS-B In

Answer 168

Except for operations in or penetrating a Coastal or Domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ, a flight plan is not required for VFR flight; however, it is strongly recommended that one be filed with an FAA FSS when making extended cross-country flights. This will ensure that you receive VFR Search and Rescue Protection.

Answer 169

The FAA prefers users to file ICAO format flight plans for all flights. An ICAO format flight plan must be used when: 1) A flight will enter international airspace, including oceanic airspace controlled by FAA facilities 2) A flight excepts routing or separation based on performance-based navigation (PBN) - i.e. RNAV SIDs and STARs 3) A flight will enter reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM) airspace - i.e. FL 290 or above 4) A flight expects services based on ADS-B

Answer 170

Defense VFR; VFR flights into a Coastal or Domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to file VFR flight plans for security purposes. The flight plan must be filed before departure.

Answer 171

No, the pilot is responsible for ensuring that his/her VFR or DVFR flight plan is canceled. The pilot is responsible for closing the flight plan at non-towered airports, too.

Answer 172

A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. The term includes vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet blast, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash, both on the ground and in the air.

Answer 173

All aircraft generate turbulence and associated wingtip vortices. In general, avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft, especially at low altitudes. Also of concern is the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The greatest cortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

Answer 174

Landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway - Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it. Landing behind a larger aircraft, when parallel runway is closer than 2,500 feet - Consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path, and note its touchdown point. Landing behind a larger aircraft, crossing runway - Cross above the larger aircraft's flight path. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway - Note the larger aircraft's rotation point and land prior to it. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft, crossing runway - Note the larger aircraft's rotation point. If past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft's flightpath. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection. Departing behind a large aircraft - Note the larger aircraft's rotation point and rotate prior to it. Continue climbing above the larger aircraft's climb path until turning clear of the larger aircraft's wake. Avoid subsequent headings that will cross below and behind a larger aircraft. Intersection takeoffs, same runway - Be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, especially of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid subsequent heading which will cross below a larger aircraft's path. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch-and-go landing - Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground. Because of this, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a larger aircraft has executed a low approach, missed approach or a touch-and-go landing, particularly in light quartering wind conditions. You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before your takeoff or landing. En route VFR (thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet) - Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft's path. If a larger aircraft is observed above on on the same track, adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

Answer 175

Runway width illusion - A narrow-than-usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. A wider-than-usual runway can have the opposite effect, with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway. Runway and terrain slopes illusion - An upsloping runway, upsloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. A downsloping runway, downsloping approach terrain, or both, can have the opposite effect. Featureless terrain illusion - An absence of ground features, as when landing over water, darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. Atmospheric illusions - Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach.

Answer 176

LAHSO is an acronym for "land and hold short operations". At controlled airports, ATC may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the PIC determines the aircraft can safely land and stop within the available landing distance (ALD). Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will compromise safety or if weather is below basic VFR conditions (minimum ceiling of 1,00 feet and 3 SM visibility).

Answer 177

ALD data is published in the special notices section of the Chart Supplement US and in the US Terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide it upon request.

Answer 178

Before takeoff - Prior to taxiing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, pilots should scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach areas. Climbs and descents - During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic,, pilots should execute gentle banks left and right at a frequency that allows continuous visual scanning of the airspace. Straight and level - During sustained periods of straight-and-level flight, a pilot should execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals. Traffic patterns - Entries into traffic patterns while descending should be avoided. Traffic at VOR sites - Due to converging traffic, sustained vigilance should be maintained in the vicinity of VORs and intersections. Training operations - Vigilance should be maintained and clearing turns should be made prior to a practice maneuver. During instruction, the pilot should be asked to verbalize the clearing procedures (call out clear "left, right, above and below"). High-wing and low-wing aircraft should momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look for traffic prior to commencing the turn.

Answer 179

Unmanned aircraft systems cannot operate in controlled airspace without obtaining a waiver from the FAA. However, it's possible I might see drones in my area. Drones must fly below 400 feet AGL, can only operate in daylight hours, and must stay clear of clouds.

Answer 180

Communications - Misunderstanding the given clearance; failure to communicate effectively. Airport knowledge - Failure to navigate the airport correctly; unable to interpret airport signage Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation - Failure to maintain situational awareness

Answer 181

1) Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting 2) Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any hot spots 3) Review the altest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity, etc. 4) Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport. 5) Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route (complex intersections, crossing runways, etc.) 6) Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi

Answer 182

A runway safety-related problem area or intersection on an airport. Typically, hot spots are complex or confusing taxiway-taxiway or taxiway-runway intersections. Pilots should be increasingly vigilant when approaching and taxiing through these intersections. Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams as circles or polygons designated as "HS1", "HS2", etc. Additional information on hot spots can be found in the appropriate Chart Supplement US.

Answer 183

Pilots must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by non-flight-related matters unrelated to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft. Refraining from nonessential activities during ground operations is essential. Passengers should be briefed on the importance of minimizing conversations and questions during taxi as well as on arrival, from the time landing preparations begin until the aircraft is safely parked.

Answer 184

If the pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or for any reason confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing, a request may be made for progressive taxi instructions, which include step-by-step routing directions.

Answer 185

A common pitfall of pre-taxi and pre-landing planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions from ATC. Pilots need to follow the instructions that they actually receive, and not the ones they expect to receive. Short term memory is of limited duration.

Answer 186

Writing down taxi instructions, especially complex instructions, can reduce a pilot's vulnerability to forgetting part of the instructions and provides a reference for read-back of instructions to ATC. It can also be used as a means of reconfirming the taxi route and any restrictions at any time during taxi operations.

Answer 187

No. Aircraft must receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point to which to taxi, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. ATC is required to obtain a read back from the pilot of a runway hold short instructions.

Answer 188

1) The runway assignment 2) Any clearance to enter a specific runway 3) Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait

Answer 189

1) A current airport diagram should be available for immediate reference during taxi 2) Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the big picture 3) Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing 4) Use all available resources to keep the aircraft on its assigned taxi route 5) Cross-reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you're on the assigned taxi route 6) Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize "clear left, clear right" 7) Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency 8) If in doubt, ask

Answer 190

To the extend possible and consistent with aircraft equipment, operating limitations, and pilot procedures, pilots should illuminate exterior lights as follows: 1) Engines running - Turn on the rotating beacon whenever an engine is running 2) Taxiing - Prior to commencing taxi, turn on navigation/position lights and anti-collision lights 3) Crossing a runway - All exterior lights should be illuminated when crossing a runway 4) Entering the departure runway for takeoff - All exterior lights (except landing lights) should be on to make your aircraft more conspicuous to aircraft on final and ATC. 5) Cleared for takeoff - All exterior lights, including takeoff/landing lights should be on.

Answer 191

Aircraft may be landing and/or taking off on more than one runway at the airport. Also, aircraft may be using an instrument approach procedure to runways other than the runway in use for VFR operations. The instrument approach runway may intersect the VFR runway. It is also possible that an instrument arrival may be made to the opposite end of the runway from which a takeoff is being made.

Answer 192

No. At airports with an operating control tower, pilots should never stop or reverse course on the runway without first obtaining ATC approval.

Answer 193

Listen on the appropriate frequency (CTAF) for inbound aircraft information and always scan the full length of the runway, including the final approach and departure paths, before entering or crossing the runway. Self-announce your position and intentions and remember that not all aircraft are radio-equipped.

Answer 194

Two minutes or more

Answer 195

To aid search and rescue in case of an accident.

Answer 196

To tell ATC where you’re going and how long it will take you to get there. You would file one when going on a long trip and/or if no one knows that you are going on a trip.

Answer 197

A crosswind, because it will fight against the wake and keep it on the runway longer.

Answer 198

Pre-landing checklist Gas Undercarriage (is the landing gear extended) Mixture (full rich) Prop (for fixed pitch only) Switches/Seatbelts

Cross-Country Flight Planning Flashcards

(241 cards)