Cross Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards
(133 cards)
1
Q
What is an HSI?
A
Horizontal situation indicator.
Combines the heading indicator with a CDI to provide better situational awareness of location with respect to the course line (VOR or ILS).
2
Q
What is RNAV?
A
Area Navigation. Provides enhanced navigation capability by computing the aircraft position, actual track and ground speed. RNAV systems include INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS systems.
3
Q
What is DME?
A
Measures the slant distance of an aircraft from the DME navigation aid.
4
Q
Give a brief description of GPS.
How many satellites are in the GPS constellation?
How many satellites are always visible?
How many satellites to establish 3-dimensional position
A
It uses the signals from multiple satellites in order to triangulate the aircraft’s position on earth.
24 satellites in the constellation.
5 satellites are visible at all times/locations.
4 satellites are required to establish 3D position.
5
Q
Within which frequency band does the VOR equipment operate?
A
VHF 108.00 - 117.95 MHz
6
Q
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
A
a. VOT check; +- 4 degrees
b. Ground checkpoint; +- 4 degrees
c. Airborne checkpoint; +- 6 degrees
d. Dual VOR check; 4 degrees between each other
e. Select radial over a know ground point; +- 6 degrees
f. A certified technician can use a calibrated signal
§91.171
7
Q
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
A
S.L.E.D - Signature, Location, Error, Date.
Each person making a VOR check shall enter the Date, bearing Error, Location of place, and Sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.
8
Q
Where can a pilot find the location of the nearest VOT testing station?
A
a. in the Chart Supplement
b. IFR area chart
c. and IFR enroute low altitude chart
9
Q
How may the course sensitivity be checked on a VOR receiver?
A
By recording the number of degrees of change in the course selected after you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side. This should be between 10 and 12 degrees
10
Q
How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been taken out of service for maintenance?
A
The coded (morse or voice) identifier is removed during maintenance
11
Q
If a diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary due to an emergency, what procedure should be used?
A
- consider relative distance to all suitable alternates
- select the one most appropriate for the emergency
- determine magnetic course to alternate and divert immediately
- wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/fuel can be computed while enroute to alternate
12
Q
What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at airports without an operating control tower?
A
Inbound traffic - should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Departing aircraft - should monitor and communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi and until 10 miles from the airport unless regulations or procedures require otherwise.
13
Q
You discover that both the transmitter and receiver in your aircraft have become inoperative. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter a traffic pattern and land at a tower controlled airport?
A
a. remain outside or above the surface area
b. determine direction and flow of traffic
c. join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signal
d. daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.
14
Q
When a control tower located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?
A
Class E rules take effect. Check the Chart Supplement for specific details for the airport.
15
Q
If the rotating beacon is on at an airport during daylight hours, what significance does this have?
A
Ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet, meaning the airport is under IFR conditions. ATC clearance is required for takeoff and landing.
16
Q
Runway markings
A
a. displaced threshold
b. threshold markings
c. designation (magnetic heading of runway)
d. centerline marking
e. touchdown zone markings (500 feet apart)
f. aiming point marking (1000 feet from threshold)
17
Q
Where are runway incursions most likely to occur?
A
At complex, high volume airports where there are parallel/intersecting runways, multiple taxiway/runway intersections, complex taxi patterns, and/or the need for traffic to cross active runways.
18
Q
Describe a displaced threshold.
A
An area at the end of a runway which is not the “designated” beginning of the runway. Displacement of the threshold reduces the length of the runway availalble for landing.
19
Q
Describe a tri-color light VASI system.
A
A three colored visual approach path indicating system which uses the following indications:
- Red - Below glidepath
- Green - On glidepath
- Amber - Above glidepath
20
Q
What is a PAPI?
A
Precision Approach Path Indicator. Uses a single row of either two or four lights. Has an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day. Uses the following indications:
All white - High
Two Red, Two White - On Path
All red - Low
21
Q
Can a commercial pilot allow a passenger to carry alcohol on board an aircraft for the purpose of consumption?
A
No, a person who is intoxicated (or becomes intoxicated) must not be allowed on board an aircraft.
22
Q
No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a blood alcohol level of what value?
A
0.04% BAC by weight
23
Q
When are the operation of portable electronic devices not allowed on board an aircraft?
A
Portable electronic devices (PEDs) may not be operated when:
“The aircraft is being operated under IFR and the PIC determines that the device may cause interference with navigation or communication systems.”
(Ref: 14 CFR §91.21)
Exemptions include:
- Portable voice recorders
- Hearing aids
- Pacemakers
- Electric shavers
24
Q
Are the any exceptions allowed concerning portable electronic equipment on board aircraft?
A
- portable voice recorders
- hearing aids
- heart pacemakers
- electric shavers
- any other portable electronic device the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference.
25
Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information?
N - NOTAMSs
W - Weather
K - Known Air Traffic Control Delays
R - Runway Lengths
A - Alternate Airport
F - Fuel (enough to reach the destination, plus alternate and 45 minutes at cruising speed)
T - Takeoff and Landing Distances
91.103
26
When are flight crewmembers required to wear their seatbelts?
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. Shoulder harness must be worn during takeoff and landing only.
27
Is the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses required when operating an aircraft on the ground?
Yes. Each person on board a U.S. registered aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing
28
What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a Class D surface area?
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.
No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kts.
29
What regulations pertain to altimeter setting procedures?
Below 18,000 feet MSL:
* The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nm of the aircraft
* If there is no station within the area described above, the current reported altimeter of an appropriate available station.
* In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.
At or above 18,000 feet MSL set to 29.92" Hg
30
What are the regulatory fuel requirements for both VFR and IFR flight (day and night)?
VFR
fly to the first point of intended landing plus
* 30 minutes (day)
* 45 minutes (night)
IFR
fly to the first airport of intended landing, to the alternate airport plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
31
What mimimum flight visiblity and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in Class C, D, or E airspace (controlled)?
Less the 10,000 feet MSL:
* Visibility: 3 sm
* Clound Clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
At or above 10,000 feet MSL:
* Visibility: 5 sm
* Clound Clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 sm horizontal
32
What mimimum flight visiblity and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in Class G airspace (uncontrolled)?
1,200 feet or less above the surface (reguardless of MSL altitude):
* Day
* Visibility: 1 sm
* Cloud clearance: clear of clouds
* Night
* Visibility: 3 sm
* Clound clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL:
* Day
* Visibility: 1 sm
* Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
* Night
* Visibility: 3 sm
* Clound clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:
* Visibility: 5 sm
* Cloud clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 sm horizontal
33
When conducting IFR flight operations, what minimum altitudes are required over surrounding terrain?
If no applicable minimum altitudes apply:
1. Mountainous area
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nm of the course to be flown
2. Any other case
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm of the course to be flown
34
Where is an altitude encoding transponder (Mode C) equipment required?
- Within Class A, and within & above Class B & C (up to 10,000' MSL)
- Within the 30NM Mode C Veil (surface to 10,000' MSL).
- Above 10,000' MSL (unless below 2,500' AGL)
- When Crossing ADIZ (12NM off coast)
"A, B, C, ADIZ, and 30, 10, 2500"
Class A/B/C + ADIZ + 30 NM veil + 10,000 MSL + 2,500 AGL buffer.
91.215
Exception: If flying without Mode C, you may request a transponder deviation at least one hour in advance from ATC. (Along with some gliders / balloons that aren't certified).
35
Where are aerobatic flight maneuvers not permitted?
1. over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement
2. over an open air assembly of persons
3. within the lateral boundries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D or E airspace designated for an airport.
4. within 4 nm of the center line of any federal airway
5. below an altitude of 1,500 feet AGL
6. when visibility is less than 3 sm
36
When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
During maneuvers which involve
1. a bank of more than 60 degrees
2. a nose up or nose down attitude of more than 30 degrees
This does not apply to:
1. flight tests for pilot certifications or ratings
2. training with a certified flight instructor
37
What is primary radar?
Secondary radar?
* Primary radar - Uses a simple radio wave sent out by the radar site. Detects aircraft (or birds / non-electronics) by the reflected signal. Range & bearing only.
* Secondary radar - Relies on aircraft’s transponder to reply to ground radar. More info provided: Aircraft position, Altitude, Squawk code.
38
What is airport surveillance radar?
Approach control radar used to detect and display an aircrafts position in the terminal area.
39
Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft?
1. Basic radar service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring
2. TRSA service - sequencing and separation service for participating VFR aircraft in a TRSA area.
3. Class B, C service - provides basic radar service plus approved separation between IFR, and VFR aircraft
40
What is the "guard" frequency?
121.5
41
If operations are not being conducted in airspace requiring a transponder, can an aircraft equipped with a transponder leave it off.
If the aircraft is equiped with a transponder it should be operating at all times unless otherwise requested by ATC.
42
At what altitude would a pilot expect to encounter military aircraft when navigating throught a military training route designated "VR1207"?
**Less than 1,500 feet AGL**. Military training routes with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by four-digit characters; e.g. IR1206, VR1207. MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by three-digit characters; e.g. IR206, VR207
43
What is a composite flight plan?
Flight plans which specify VFR operations for one portion of the flight and IFR for another portion.
1. The pilot should report the departure time to the FSS with which he filed his VFR/IFR flight plan
2. At the point of change over, close the VFR portion
3. Request ATC clearance from the FSS nearest the change over point.
4. Remain in VFR weather conditions until operating in accordance with the IFR clearance.
44
What is an "abbreviated" IFR flight plane?
Usually used in what 2 situations?
An IFR flight plan which requires only that information needed for the purpose of ATC.
It is usually used by aircraft which are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by aircraft on the ground which desire to climb to VFR-On-Top conditions.
45
How long will a flight plan remain on file after the proposed departure time has passed?
A minimum of 1 hour after the proposed departure time.
Most Centers delete flight plans 2 hours after proposed departure time.
46
If you fail to report a change in arrival time or forget to close your flight plan, when will search and rescure procedures begin?
Within 30 mins after your ETA
47
What consititutes a change in flight plan?
1. altitude change
2. destination and/or route change
3. change of true airspeed by +- 5 percent or 10 kts which ever is greater
48
What is a DVFR flight plan?
Defense VFR; VFR flights into a coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to file DVFR flight plans for security purposes. Flight plan must be on file before departure.
49
What is an ADIZ?
**Air Defense Identification Zones**. They are the border of the U.S. airspace. All aircraft entering the U.S. must be identified prior to entry.
50
Where are Air Defense Identification Zones normally located?
* Domestic ADIZ - located along an international boundary of the U.S.
* Coastal ADIZ - located over the coastal waters of the U.S.
* Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ) - located over the coastal waters of Alaska
* Land based ADIZ - located over U.S. metropolitan areas, which is activated and deactivated as needed. Disseminated via NOTAM.
51
What are the operational requirements to fly over an ADIZ?
1. Flight plan - IFR or DVFR
2. Two-way radio
3. Transponder - Mode C
4. Position reports - for DVFR flights estimated time of ADIZ entry at least 15 minutes prior.
5. Aircraft position tolerances
- Land: +- 5 minutes to reporting points and within 10 nm from the centerline of track
- Water: +- 5 minutes to reporting points and within 20 nm from the centerline of track
52
Briefly described the six classes of U.S. airspace.
* Class A - from 18,000 ft. MSL to FL600. Includes airspace overlying the waters within 12 nm of the coast of the U.S.
* Class B - from surface to 10,000 ft. MSL surrounding the nations busiest airports. The configuration of each class B airspace is tailored to the instrument procedures of each airport. Clearance is required for entry. Clould clearence for VFR operations is "clear of clouds".
* Class C - Usually has a 5 nm center ring from the surface to 4,000 ft. AGL, and an 10 nm ring from 1,200 ft. to 4,000 ft. AGL.
* Class D - from the surface to 2,500 ft. AGL surrounding an airport with a control tower.
* Class E - controlled airspace which is not designated Class A, B, C, or D. Extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlaying or adjacent controlled airspace. Examples include: Surface areas designated for an airport, enroute domensions to a surface area, airspace used for transition, enroute domestic areas, federal airways, offshore airspace areas.
* Class G - uncontrolled airspace. Airspace not designated A, B, C, D or E airspace.
53
What is a Prohibited Area?
For security or other reasons, aircraft flight is prohibited.
54
What are Restricted Areas?
Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft. Must have permission to enter from ATC.
55
What are Military Operations Areas (MOA)?
Designed to separate military training from IFR traffic. Permission is not required, but VFR flight should excercise caution.
56
What is a Warning Area?
Has the same hazards as a restriced area. Established beyond the 3 mile limit of International Airspace. Permission is not required, but a flight plan is advised.
57
What is an Alert Area?
Airspace containing a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. No permission is required, but VFR flights should excercise caution.
58
What is a Controlled Firing Area?
Contain activities which could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The activities in a CFA will be suspended when an aircraft is thought to be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.
59
What are National Security Areas?
A designated area where increased security and safety are necessary — often around military or sensitive government facilities.
You can legally fly through an NSA unless it’s temporarily converted into prohibited airspace via a NOTAM.
60
What is a temporary flight restrictions (TFR) area and how would you know it exists?
A temporary prohibited flight area. The FAA will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) to notify pilots of the TFR. Usually issued for airshows, major sporting events or other situations to protect persons or property on the surface.
61
What is a TRSA?
Terminal Radar Service Area. Airspace surrounding designated Class D airports where ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is not mandatory. Identified with thick black lines.
62
What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing behind a larger aircraft, on the same runway?
Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
63
What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing behind a larger aircraft, on a parallel runway closer then 2,500 feet?
Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path and note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
64
What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing behind a larger aircraft, on a crossing runway?
Cross above the larger aircraft's flight path
65
What procedure should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway?
Note the larger aircraft's rotation point, and land well before it.
66
What procedure should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing behind a departing larger aircraft on a crossing runway?
If the rotation point is past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If the rotation point was prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft's flight path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersecton.
67
What procedure should be used in avoiding wake turbulance when departing behind a larger aircraft?
Note the larger aircraft's rotation point, rotate prior to the larger aircrafts rotation point. Continue to climb above the larger aircrafts wake until turning clear of it.
68
Who is responsible for wake turbulence avoidance, the pilot or the air traffic controller?
The pilot has accepted responsibility once he has accepted instructions from ATC about traffic information, visual approach clearance etc.
69
What is hydroplaning?
When the tires are lifted off runway surface due to aircraft speed and a thin film of water being present.
70
What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?
* Follow recommendations by the manufacturer
* If none are given:
* Lower the nose as soon as possible
* Carefully retract the flaps, if able
71
What is runway width illusion?
A narrower than usual runway creates the illusion that the aircraft is higher than it actually is, and the pilot tends to compensate by flying a lower approach.
72
What is runway and terrain slope illusion?
Upsloping runway/terrain creates the illusion that the aircraft is higher than it actually is, and the pilot tends to compensate by flying a lower approach.
73
What is the most effective method of scanning for other air traffic?
With a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field. Each area should be observed for at least 1 second.
74
Explain the arrangement and interpretation of the position lights on an aircraft.
* Red light - left wing tip
* Green light - right wing tip
* White light - on the tail
75
Position lights are required to be on during what period of time?
From sunset to sunrise.
76
What are the different types of rotating beacons used to identify airports?
1. white and green - lighted land airport
2. white and yellow - lighted water airport
3. green, yellow and white - lighted heliport
4. white, white and green - military airport
77
What color are runway edge lights?
White.
78
What are REIL lights?
Runway end identifier lights. They are a pair of synchronized flashing lights which help with rapid identification of the approach end of a runway.
79
What color are taxiway edge lights?
Blue
80
What color are taxiway center line lights?
Steady-burning, green lights
81
How does a pilot determine the status of a light system at a particular airport?
Check the Chart Supplement and NOTAMs.
82
How does a pilot activate a radio-controlled runway light system while airborne?
On the proper frequency key the microphone:
* 7 times for high intensity
* 5 times for medium intensity
* 3 times for low intensity
(must be keyed within 5 seconds)
83
What are the regulations concerning the use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft?
At cabin pressure altitudes:
1. above 12,500 ft. MSL - the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes above 12,500 ft.
2. above 14,000 ft. MSL - the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time above 14,000 ft.
3. above 15,000 ft. MSL - each occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen.
84
What are the regulations pertaining to the use of supplemental oxygen on board a "pressurized" aircraft?
1. Above 25,000 feet (FL250)
If one pilot leaves the controls, the remaining pilot must wear and use an oxygen mask that is continuously supplying oxygen unless the aircraft is equipped with quick-donning masks.
2. Above 35,000 feet (FL350) up to 41,000 feet (FL410)
At least one pilot must wear and use an oxygen mask at all times unless the aircraft is equipped with quick-donning masks (which can be donned and secured within 5 seconds).
3. Above 41,000 feet (FL410)
Both pilots must wear and use oxygen masks at all times.
§91.211
85
What are the requirements to operate within Class A airspace?
1. IFR clearance
2. Aircraft is equipped with instruments required for IFR
3. Instrument rated pilot
4. Two-way radio and mode C transponder
86
What additional equipment is required when operating above Flight Level 240?
* DME or
* RNAV
87
What type of navigational charts are used when operating at altitudes above 18,000 feet?
Enroute high altitude charts. Includes:
* jet routes
* NAVAIDs with frequencies
* geographic coordinates
* selected airports
* reporting points
revised every 56 days
88
When is immediate notification to the NTSB required?
NTSB 830
1. Flight control system malfunction
2. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
3. Turbine engine failure of structural components
4. In fight fire
5. Aircraft collision in flight
6. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000
7. Overdue aircraft (believed to be in an accident)
89
After an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB?
1. Within 10 days after an accident;
2. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing.
90
Define aircraft accident
An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight an all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
91
Define aircraft incident.
An occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.
92
Define the term serious injury.
Any injury which:
1. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.
2. A fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose);
3. Severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
4. Involves any internal organ
5. Second or third degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body.
93
Define the term substantial damage.
Damage or failure which adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which normally requires major repair or replacement of the affected component.
94
Will notification to the NTSB be necessary in any aircraft "accident" even if there were no injuries?
If there was substantial damage to the aircraft.
95
Where are accident or incident reports filed?
With the NTSB field office nearest the accident or incident.
96
What is the DME frequency range?
960 MHz to 1215 MHz
97
VOR frequency range
108.0 through 117.95
98
How to preflight the installed GPS
- check that it is properly installed and certified
- databases current
- check GPS + WAAS NOTAMs
- GPS RAIM check
- operational status of ground-based NavAids + VORs for the route
- GPS Manual or POH supplement on-board and available
99
What are NDBs and ADFs
NDB is a ground-based radio transmitter in all directions.
It transmits on 190 MHz to 535 MHz.
ADF determines bearing to station.
100
What is a Maximum Elevation Figure?
The highest elevation including terrain and vertical objects in that quadrant in thousands of feet rounded to nearest hundred.
101
What do operations in Class D (even to non-towered satellite airports) require?
Communication with the tower
102
When Class D tower closes, what rules apply?
The airspace reverts to either Class E surface area or Class G airspace, as detailed in the Chart Supplement
103
What type of airport is white and green rotating beacon (or just green alone)?
Lighted land airport
104
What type of airport is white and yellow rotating beacon (or just yellow alone)?
Lighted water airport
105
What type of airport is green, yellow, white beacon?
Lighted heliport
106
What type of airport is white, white, and green beacon?
Military airport
107
What are the VFR fuel requirements for Day & Night?
Day - to point of intended landing + 30 minutes
Night - to point of intended landing + 45 minutes
108
Runway clearance readback must include (4)
- Runway assigned
- Clearance to enter specific runway
- instructions to hold short or line up and wait
- Aircraft's ID number
109
LAHSO visual aids can include what 3 items?
- yellow hold-short markings
- red + white signs
- in-pavement lights
(not all airports have these)
110
What colour is the runway holding sign?
Red background, white lettering.
111
What is a displaced threshold?
Runway that's available for takeoff, but not for landing.
112
What are the indications from a Pulsating VASI?
- pulsating white - above glidepath
- steady white - on glidepath
- steady red - slightly below glidepath
- pulsating red - well below glidepath
113
What preflight taxi ops should be reviewed?
- airport signage and markings
- diagrams
- taxi route
- hot spots
- NOTAMs + ATIS
114
What are the IFR fuel requirements?
Enough to fly to the point of intended landing, then to an alternate, with an additional 45+ minutes.
115
What BAC can you not act as a crewmember at?
.04% or greater
116
What is a risk of landing at an uncontrolled tower with calm wind
Another aircraft could be landing / taking off on more than one runway.
117
What is the max airspeed under 10,000 ft, within Class B, within Class C & D surface areas, and under a Class B shelf (e.g. VFR Corridor)?
- In class C/D at/below 2500' and within 4 NM of primary airport: 200 knots
- In Class B and below 10,000' MSL: 250 knots
118
When below 18,000 feet, what options do you set your altimeter based on?
91.121
- current reported from station within 100NM
- or appropriate source if above not available
- departure airport
119
When is a transponder required?
- at/above 10,000MSL (except below 2500 AGL)
- within 30NM of Class B (Mode C Veil)
- within and above Class B
- within 10 miles of certain airports
- when entering ADIZ
120
When is a parachute required to be worn?
- entering 60 degree bank or more turns
- 30+ degrees nose up or down
The exception is for flight tests and spins required for a cert/rating when given by CFI or ATP.
121
Name the 4 terminal radar service types
- Basic radar service
- TRSA service
- Class C
- Class B
122
Describe the 4 basic radar service types
Basic radar service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring and sequencing
TRSA service - radar sequencing, separation for participating VFR traffic
Class C - basic radar, IFR separation with VFR, sequencing of VFR traffic to primary airport
Class B - basic radar, IFR separation with VFR, sequencing of VFR traffic to primary airport
123
What is the altitude of Military Training Routes with 4 digits (e.g. VR1207)?
What about MTRs with 3 digits (e.g. VR207)
4 digits - all of the route is below 1500 ft AGL
3 digits - the route has a segment above 1500 ft AGL
124
When will SAR start?
30 minutes after failure to report/cancel flight plan
125
List and describe the 3 hydroplaning types
1. Dynamic Hydroplaning
Occurs when a layer of water builds up between the tires and runway, preventing tires from making direct contact with the surface. Typically happens in 1/10" or deeper water.
2. Viscous Hydroplaning
Happens when a thin film of water mixes with oil, rubber, or dust on a smooth runway, reducing friction. Can occur at lower speeds than dynamic hydroplaning and on damp, rather than fully wet, runways.
Most common on asphalt runways, rubber-coated touchdown zones, or painted surfaces.
3. Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning
Occurs when locked-up tires trap water beneath them, creating steam that lifts the tire off the runway.
The steam reverts the rubber to a softened, smooth state, reducing friction further.
Typically happens during hard braking or prolonged skidding, especially if anti-skid systems fail or are not used.
126
How can you reduce speed if hydroplaning?
- touchdown as slow as possible
- hold nosewheel off, and apply moderate braking when it does touch down
- raise the nose and use aerodynamic braking and drag
127
List 4 runway illusions
Runway width
Runway and Terrain slope illusion
Featureless terrain slope illusion
Atmospheric illusions (rain/haze)
128
Could be on collision course if other plane's lights are
Red on right, green on left!
129
What are the 3 types of aviation obstruction lights used on tall buildings, towers, and other high obstacles?
- aviation red - flashing red or steady red
- high-intensity white - flashing in day, reduced at night
- dual lights - red for night, white for day
130
What are the Supplemental Oxygen Regulations?
- 12,500 to 14000
- 14,000+ MSL
- 15,000+MSL
91.211
- 12,500 to 14,000, after 30 minutes minimum flight crew provided and uses supplemental oxygen
- >14,000 MSL, flight crew provided and uses supplemental oxygen for the entire trip
- >15,000 MSL - each occupant provided with supplemental oxygen
131
What are the Class A requirements?
- Pilot must be IFR rated
- Must have instruments and equipment for IFR
- radio for pilot/controller communication
- transponder 91.215
132
Equipment required above FL240
if VOR is required must also have DME or suitable RNAV
133
When is the NTSB required to be notified for these events?
- accident
- overdue aircraft missing
- incident
- accident - 10 days after accident
- overdue aircraft - 7 days
- incident - as requested
