CRQ Orthopedics Flashcards

(147 cards)

1
Q

Chronic dislocation of the patella may predispose the patient to a condition called:

A) osteomyelitis

B) chrondomalacia

C) rheumatoid arthritis

D) osteoporosis

A

B) chrondomalacia

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2
Q

In a total hip replacement, which structure is reamed?

A) Acetabulum

B) Greater trochanter

C) Lesser trachanter

D) Femoral head

A

A) Acetabulum

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3
Q

Prositioning for procedures can include all of the following except:

A) Supine in traction for a compression hip nailing

B) lateral for a Total Hip Arthroplasty

C) semi-fowler for a Bristow Procedure

D) Prone for a Total Knee Arthroplasty

A

D) Prone for a Total Knee Arthroplasty

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4
Q

An infection in the bone is termed

A) osteomalacia

B) osteomyelitis

C) osteitis

D) osteoporosis

A

B) osteomyelitis

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5
Q

The shaft of the long bone is_________ and the end of the long bone is________.

A) diaphysis,epiphysis

B) epiphysis,diaphysis

C) symphysis,diaphysis

D) symphysis,epiphysis

A

A) diaphysis,epiphysis

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6
Q

Bone healing is termed

A) osteoporosis

B) osteoplasty

C) osteogenesis

D) osteomalacia

A

C) osteogenesis

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7
Q

In orthopedic surgery, the veiwing of the progression of a prcedure on a television screen is known as

A) image intensification

B) radiography

C) portable filming

D) X-ray

A

A) image intensification

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8
Q

A dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius is called a/an?

A) Pott’s fracture

B) Colles’ fracture

C) Smiths Fracture

D) Bennetts Fracture

A

B) Colles’ fracture

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9
Q

During a procedure involving a power saw in use, the surgical technician in the scrub role should

A) clean the blade

B) lightly apply irrigation to the blade in use

C) suction bone debris

D) do nothing

A

B) lightly apply irrigation to the blade in use

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10
Q

The stage of osteogenesis where there is a proliferation of cells from a fracture site into the fibrin to form fibrous connective tissue and cartilage called:

A) osteoid stage

B) blood clot formation stage

C) remodeling stage

D) callus stage

A

D) callus stage

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11
Q

Benign outpouchings of synovium from intercarpal joints are called

A) ganglia

B) exostosis

C) polyps

D) synovitis

A

A) ganglia

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12
Q

The bony process which can be involved in an ankle fracture is the:

A) medial malleolus

B) medial meniscus

C) lateral trochanter

D) calcaneous

A

A) medial malleolus

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13
Q

Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?

A) Closed

B) Compound

C) Comminuted

D) Simple

A

B) Compound

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14
Q

Th epower drill or saw used to divide bone with a “side to side” cutting action is a/an:

A) reciprocating saw

B) rotary drill

C) oscillating saw

D) drill/reamer

A

C) oscillating saw

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15
Q

A “freeing up” of an entrapped nerve is referred to as a/an:

A) neuropexy

B) kyphosis

C) neurolysis

D) kyphoplasty

A

C) neurolysis

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16
Q

An overgrowth of bone is referred to as an:

A) exostosis

B) osteoblast

C) osteocyte

D) osteoclast

A

A) exostosis

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17
Q

A surgical procedure designed to stiffen or fuse a joint is called:

A) Arthropexy

B) Arthroplasty

C) Arthrotomy

D) Arthrodesis

A

D) Arthrodesis

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18
Q

A total hip replacement would be indicated when the patient has

A) degenerative hip joint disease

B) hip fracture

C) congenital hip dislocation

D) hip cancer

A

A) degenerative hip joint disease

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19
Q

An abnormal thoracic curve of the spine resulting in the pathology known as “hunchback”is called:

A) Scoliosis

B) Lordosis

C) Kyphosis

D) Spina Bifida

A

C) Kyphosis

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20
Q

Baker’s cysts are found in the :

A) popliteal fossa

B) interdigital fossa

C) intercarpal fossa

D) olecranon fossa

A

A) popliteal fossa

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21
Q

The dressing applied at the end of an orthopedic procedure which gives compression to the wound is a/an:

A) kerlix fluff

B) xerofoam

C) ace or elastic bandage

D) fiberglass or plaster cast

A

C) ace or elastic bandage

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22
Q

A Putti-Plat procedure is performed on the

A) Shoulder

B) Wrist

C) Knee

D) Elbow

A

A) Shoulder

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23
Q

A congenital deformity known as club foot is surgically referred to as

A) talipes valgus

B) talipes varus

C) hallux valgus

D) exotosis

A

B) talipes varus

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24
Q

Decreased bone mass results in a condition called

A) osteoporosis

B) osteomyelitis

C) ossification

D) ecchymosis

A

A) osteoporosis

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25
The intraoperative use of bone allografts requires all of the following responses from the scrub team EXCEPT A) culture before implant B) wash with an antibiotic solution C) completely thaw D) Both A and B
C) completely thaw
26
Bone retrieved from the patient for bone grafting is called _________ bone. A) cadaveric B) autogenic C) xenogenic D) allogenic
B) autogenic
27
The fixation device most commonly used for intratrochanteric fractures of the femur includes: A) compression plates and screws B) hinged replacement prothesis C) rods/nails D) Kirschber wires
A) compression plates and screws
28
Equipment used to debride and clean infected wounds and joints is: A) periosteal elevator B) drill/reamer C) suction irrigator D) impactor
C) suction irrigator
29
Use of a prothesis to replace arthritic joints in the hand is referred to as a/an: A) Triple Arthrodesis B) Carpal Tunnel Release C) Bankhart Procedure D) Metacarpal Arthroplasty
D) Metacarpal Arthroplasty
30
The loosening of a joint with some displacement of the articular surface from the joint capsule is called a/an: A) dislocation B) avulsion C) fracture D) subluxation
D) subluxation
31
Removal of a fluid filled sac protruding between the wrist joints for cosmesis or discomfort describes which procedure? A) Excision of Ganglion B) Patellectomy C) McBride Procedure D) Metacarpal Arthroplasty
A) Excision of Ganglion
32
A tear in the lateral or medial knee cartilage is repaired by performing a/an: A) Synovectomy B) Menisectomy C) Patellectomy D) Arthrodesis
B) Menisectomy
33
After surgery on a shoulder, the arm may be bound against the side of the patient for A) comfort B) abduction C) immobilization D) mobilization
C) immobilization
34
Seamless tubular cotton that stretches to fit a contour and is used for padding is called A) Ace bandage B) Webril C) sheet wadding D) stockinette
D) stockinette
35
The three phrases of bone healing in order are: (1) remodeling (2) inflammatory phrase (3) repairative phrase A) 1,2,3 B) 2,1,3 C) 2,3,1 D) 3,1,2
C) 2,3,1
36
A Triple Arthrodesis does not include fusion of which bones? A) calcaneocuboid joint B) metacarpophalangeal joint C) talocalcaneal joint D) talonavicular joint
B) metacarpophalangeal joint
37
The condition where, fibrous bands cause contractures in the fingures, commonly the ring finger and the little finger is A) compartment syndrome B) dupuytrens C) exostosis D) ganglion
B) dupuytrens
38
Place the stages of fracture healing in order: (1) hematoma formation,(2) remodeling,(3)fibrin network formation,(4)callus formation,(5)invasion of osteoblasts. A) 1,3,5,4,2 B) 1,2,5,4,3 C) 1,3,2,4,5 D) 5,3,4,1,2
A) 1,3,5,4,2
39
The most commonly used implants in hand surgery are made of flexible A) polypropylene B) Silastic C) tantellum D) polyethylene
B) Silastic
40
A pneumatic tourniquet is placed A) as soon as the patient enters the OR B) directly after the patient is prepped and draped C) before the patient is prepped and draped D) as soon as anesthesia says its ok
C) before the patient is prepped and draped
41
What is the proper wrapping procedure utilizing and Esmarch bandage? A) Start at the distal end of the extremity B) Start at the Proximal end of the extremity C) Start after the cuff is inflated D) Start at the incision site
A) Start at the distal end of the extremity
42
All of the following are guidelines to be followed when using polymethylmethacrylate except? A) mix immidiatley before use B) Use fume evacuator C) mix with gloved hand D) supply to the sugeon in a syringe for injection into the medullary canal
C) mix with gloved hand
43
A pressurized solution of antibiotics or saline, commonly used for wound debridement and irrigation is called A) pulse lavage system B) ancillary system C) inactive irrigation system D) topical irrigation system
A) pulse lavage system
44
An open fracture, where bone protrudes through the skin, is also referred to as a ___________ fracture. A) Greenstick Fracture B) Closed Traumatic fracture C) Comminuted Fracture D) Compound Fracture
D) Compound Fracture
45
Which of the following anatomical structures is the best site for the removal of cortical bone for grafting purposes? A) Ilium B) Ileum C) Fibula D) Femur
A) Ilium
46
A Free Lock compression screw system is indicated for correction of a/an _____fracture. A) hip B) wrist C) elbow D) cervical
A) hip
47
Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as A) Dupuytren’s contracture B) carpal tunnel syndrome C) ganglia D) Volkmann’s contracture
B) carpal tunnel syndrome
48
What skeletal traction requires the use of sterile supplies for application of a traction appliance? A) Thomas splint B) Russell C) Crutchfield D) Buck’s extension
C) Crutchfield
49
Surgery that requires incision of the long extensor tendon of the interphalangeal of the four lateral toes and subsequent fusion is called A) exostectomy B) Keller procedure C) hammer toe correction D) Mcbride procedure
C) hammer toe correction
50
A Colles’ Fracture is often treated by: A) ORIF B) steinman pins C) Closed Reduction D) Wrist Arthroplasty
C) Closed Reduction
51
The conplete displacement of the joint is referred to as a/an: A) Subluxation B) Dislocation C) Avulsion D) Strain
B) Dislocation
52
Which fracture commonly occurs in childhood? A) Spiral B) Compound C) Greenstick D) Comminuted
C) Greenstick
53
The surgical repair of a torn tendon is A) triple arthrodesis B) percutaneous tendonectomy C) tendonitis D) tenorraphy
D) tenorraphy
54
A fracture requiring debridement and closure prior to casting would be a; A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compound D) spiral
C) compound
55
All of the following are indications of external fixation EXCEPT A) infected joints B) clean long-bone fractures C) highly comminuted closed fractures D) major alignment and length deficits
B) clean long-bone fractures
56
In orthopedic surgery, absorbable suture would most likely be used on: A) tendons B) periosteum C) ligaments D) bone
B) periosteum
57
An abduction pillow would be used to A) immobilize hip joints after hip surgery B) stabilize a femoral fracture C) immobilize the tibia post surgery D) rotate the hips outward after hip reconstruction
A) immobilize hip joints after hip surgery
58
The medical term for a bunion is called A) Talipes Valgus B) Hallux Valgus C) Hallux Varus D) Talipes Varus
B) Hallux Valgus
59
A fracture of the femoral shaft would require a /an? A) Body Jacket cast B) Long Leg Cast C) Hip Spica Cast D) Short Leg Cast
C) Hip Spica Cast
60
Concepts concerning polymethylmethacrylate use on the surgical field include all of the following except: A) room and component temperature will affect the setting time B) contact of the polymer and your skin may cause a dermatitis reaction C) avoid excessive exposure to the vapors produced during mixing of the polymer and the powder D) polymethylmethacrylate should be prepared at the beginning of the case so it is ready at the desired time of use
D) polymethylmethacrylate should be prepared at the beginning of the case so it is ready at the desired time of use
61
Water temperature for plaster cast application is A) 50*F -55*F B) 70*F-75*F C) 85*F-90*F D) 95*F-100*F
B) 70*F-75*F
62
The condition that involves the proximal interphalangeal(PIP) joint of the foot is called A) bunion B) dupuytrens C) hammertoe D) hallux valgus
C) hammertoe
63
The general term for joint reconstruction is: A) osteotomy B) arthrodesis C) osteoarthritis D) arthroplasty
D) arthroplasty
64
Before the insertion of cement into to the femoral medullary canal during a total hip arthroplasty , which of the following is placed with an inserter to occlude the femoral medullary canal? A) Polyethylene insert B) Cement restrictor C) Broach D) Distal centralizer
B) Cement restrictor
65
The tendon involved causing the inability to plantar flex the foot is A) Achilles B) lateral matatarsal C) capsular tendon D) digitorum tendon
A) Achilles
66
Orthopedic implants are covered by all of the following rules EXCEPT A) different metals should not be mixed because they may react chemically B) If the imkplantg is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used C) a template must be used for sizing purposes D) handle as little as possible before insertion
B) If the imkplantg is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used
67
A potential complication of ischemia of the femoral head is: A) intermittant claudication B) intussusception C) avascular necrosis D) chrondromalacia
C) avascular necrosis
68
The patient would be placed in the prone position for which of these procedures? A) Excision of a Baker’s Cyst B) AK Amputation C) Knee Arthroscopy D) Triple Arthrodesis of the Ankle
A) Excision of a Baker’s Cyst
69
A fracture where thetendonous attachments of the bone are torn away is called a/an A) tendon fracture B) epiphyseal separation C) avulsion D) compound fracture
C) avulsion
70
Thew most commonly fractured carpal bone is the A) scaphiod B) lunate C) trapezium D) capitate
A) scaphiod
71
The implant used of small bone fragments or as part of skeletal traction is called: A) cancellous screw B) steinmann pin C) cortical screw D) nail
B) steinmann pin
72
Baker’s cysts are found in the A) popliteal fossa B) interdigital fossa C) intercarpal joints D) olecranon fossa
A) popliteal fossa
73
The patients position for a Bristow procedure is: A) semi-Fowler B) prone C) Sims D) lithotomy
A) semi-Fowler
74
An infectious musculoskeletal condition affecting bone and marrow is A) osteomalacia B) osteoporosis C) osteomyelitis D) Paget,s disease
C) osteomyelitis
75
Polymethylmethacrylate is commonly known as: A) a material implants are made from B) material used to coat implants when placing a noncemented prosthesis C) A material soft tissue allografts are made of D) material used to hold the prosthesis when placing a cemented prosthesis
D) material used to hold the prosthesis when placing a cemented prosthesis
76
Plaster is ready for application A) when air bubbles cease to rise B) when air bubbles begin to rise C) after 2 minutes of submersion D) after 10 minutes of submersion
A) when air bubbles cease to rise
77
A Colle’s Fracture occurs in which bone? A) radius B) humerus C) tibia/fibula D) clavicle/acromion
A) radius
78
What connects bone to bone? A) Ligament B) Tendon C) Muscle D) Bursa
A) Ligament
79
The method of fracture treatment where a pulling force is exerted directly on the bone itself via a pin in the bone using a system of weights and pulleys is called: A) Buck’s traction B) external fixation C) open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) D) skeletal traction with balanced suspension
D) skeletal traction with balanced suspension
80
Osteogenesis or bone growth can be induced by A) bone grafting, autogenous B) bone grafting, homogeneous C) hormone installation D) electrical stilulation
D) electrical stilulation
81
Casting material can be made form all the following materials except: A) hydroxyapatite B) gypsum C) anhydrous calcium sulfate-impregnated crinoline D) fiberglass
A) hydroxyapatite
82
A fixation device that provides maximum holding and rigid fixation of a fracture by tightening bone fragments together is called a/an A) compression plate and screws B) intramedullary nailing C) Ilizarov technique D) interlocking nail fixation
A) compression plate and screws
83
Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) is a type of bone cement most commonly used in what procedure? A) Arthroplasty procedures B) Kellar procedures C) ACL repair D) Triple srthrodesis
A) Arthroplasty procedures
84
An olecranon fracture occurs in the A) wrist B) knee C) elbow D) finger
C) elbow
85
The patella is what type of bone? A) Flat B) Short C) Sesmoid D) Round
C) Sesmoid
86
Orthopedic saws are identified by the movement of the blade. Which saw blade is mounted along the same axis as the handle and moved back and forth? A) Saggital B) Reciprocating C) Oscillating D) Rotating
C) Oscillating
87
Visualization of a joint for diagnosis and conservative treatment of joint disease is called: A) arthroplasty B) arthrotomy C) arthroscopy D) arthrorrhaphy
C) arthroscopy
88
Death to bone tissue due to a lack of circulation is: A) arthritis B) avascular necrosis C) malunion D) osteomyelitis
B) avascular necrosis
89
X-ray views usually obtained during orthopedic surgery include all of the following except: A) sagittal B) oblique C) anterior/posterior D) lateral
A) sagittal
90
The excision of the kneecap for degenerative arthritis is called to as a/an: A) Bristow Procedure B) Patellectomy C) Putti-Platt Procedure D) Rotator Cuff Correction
B) Patellectomy
91
Screws come in which types? A) cortical only B) cortical and Kirschner C) cancellous and cortical D) trochanteric and kirschner
C) cancellous and cortical
92
Orthopedic surgery prepping A) is done under sterile conditions B) is done the day before surgery C) is eliminated D) is increased in time only
A) is done under sterile conditions
93
An orthopedic screw is the most commonly used type of orthopedic implant. All are orthopedic screws EXCEPT A) cancellous B) lag C) self-tapping D) depth screw
D) depth screw
94
A surgical procedure designed to stiffen or fuse a joint is called A) arthropexy B) arthroplasty C) joint fixation D) arthrodesis
D) arthrodesis
95
The yellow, elastic tissue connecting the lamina is called the: A) nucleus pulposa B) anterior cruciate ligament C) ligamentum flavum D) coraco-acromium ligament
C) ligamentum flavum
96
A fractured metacrapal would require a: A) Long arm cast B) Short arm cast C) Cylinder cast D) Splint
B) Short arm cast
97
Reconstruction of a joint to restore or improve range of motion and stability or to relieve pain is referred to as an: A) arthotomy B) arthroplasty C) arthrogenesis D) arthoscopy
B) arthroplasty
98
Bunionectomy is also known as A) metatarsal arthroplasty B) hallux valgus C) triple arthrodesis D) hammer toe
A) metatarsal arthroplasty
99
Femoral prostheses such as Austin Moore and Thompson are used to correct all of the following diagnoses EXCEPT A) avascular necrosis B) nonunion fractures C) displaced femoral neck fractures D) rheumatoid arthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
100
Surgery on the medial malleolus would be of the A) fibula B) jaw C) tibia D) radius
C) tibia
101
A hemostatic agent used to control bleeding from an open bone is: A) heparin sodium B) protamine sulfate C) methylene blue D) bone wax
D) bone wax
102
After shoulder surgery: A) the unaffected arm is immobilized against the torso of the patient B) the affected arm is not immobilized, as the patient will not move it due to postoperative discomfort C) the affected arm is not immobilized, as the patient needs to begin range of motion in the joint immediately D) the affected arm is immobilized against the torsoof the patient and padding is placed between skin surfaces which will contact one another
D) the affected arm is immobilized against the torsoof the patient and padding is placed between skin surfaces which will contact one another
103
Galvanic corrosion is a process that occurs postoperatively because of A) poor handling of device during implant B) mixed use of metals for implant C) misplacement of implant D) damage of a implant device
B) mixed use of metals for implant
104
A rotator cuff tear occurs in which region of the body? A) knee B) shoulder C) vertebrae D) ankle
B) shoulder
105
A fracture that consists of multiple bone fragments is A) comminuted B) greenstick C) spiral D) impacted
A) comminuted
106
A hemostatic agent used on bone is A) heparin B) bone wax C) lidocaine D) cottonoid
B) bone wax
107
A Putti-Platt is used to correct A) ankle B) wrist C) patella D) shoulder
D) shoulder
108
Excision of a tendon sheath and its associated synovium is referred to as a: A) tenorrhaphy B) tenotomy C) tendopexy D) tenosynovectomy
D) tenosynovectomy
109
An Austin Moore prosthesis is used at which joint? A) knee B) hip C) shoulder D) ankle
B) hip
110
Which orthopedic hip procedure is indicated for patients with degenerative joint disease or rheumatoid arthritis? A) AO external fixation B) Total hip arthroplasty C) Femoral endoprosthesis D) Modular endo prosthesis
B) Total hip arthroplasty
111
The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine for which a stabiolization procedure may be done is: A) Scoliosis B) Osteoporosis C) Exostosis D) herniated nucleus pulposa
A) Scoliosis
112
Fracture commonly treated with angled blade plates or a long cancellous screw would be: A) patella fracture B) tibial plateau fracture C) humeral shaft fracture D) femoral shaft fracture
B) tibial plateau fracture
113
A procedure done to correct recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder that involves reattachment of the rim of the glenoid fossa is called a A) bankhart B) Putti-Platt C) Bristow D) Monteggia
A) bankhart
114
A progressive disease of the palmar fascia is termed A) Dupuytren’s graft B) tendinitis C) carpal tunnel syndrome D) synovitis
A) Dupuytren’s graft
115
An immobilization device used after total hip arthroplasty is A) adduction pillow B) abduction pillow C) sling D) Splint
B) abduction pillow
116
A colles fracture is a fracture of A) distal radius B) femur C) patella D) fibula
A) distal radius
117
A traction that requires surgical insertion of metal rods or pins through bone, and are attached to a traction device that applies force or is attached to a weighted pulley is known as A) skin traction B) applied traction C) manual traction D) skeletal traction
D) skeletal traction
118
What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve? A) External fixation of radius B) ORIF C) Carpal tunnel release D) MPJ replacement
C) Carpal tunnel release
119
A fracture where healing has not taken place in the usual amount of time is reffered to as a/an: A) nonunion B) malunion C) delayed union D) subluxation
C) delayed union
120
Joint reconstruction is known as A) arthrodesis B) arthroplasty C) arthrotomy D) arthropexy
B) arthroplasty
121
The placement of fixation pins through the skin into the bone proximal and distal to the fracture site, which are then connected to stabilizing bars, is called; A) external fixation B) skeletal fixation C) internal fixation D) compression fixation
A) external fixation
122
Methods of prosthetic fixation and stabilization include all of the following except: A) biofixation using hydroxyapatite B) biofixation using poloymethylmethacrylate C) polymethylmethacrylate cement fixation D) direct bone contact with a press fit
B) biofixation using poloymethylmethacrylate
123
The type of fracture that includes splintered or crushed bone is: A) Colles’ B) greenstick C) compound D) comminuted
D) comminuted
124
A fracture commonly found in children is a: A) comminuted B) greenstick C) Colles’ D) longitudinal
B) greenstick
125
Which graft/grafts are used to replace the anterior cruciate ligament during an ACL repair? A) Patella tendon B) Cadaver C) Hamstring or quadracep D) All of the above
D) All of the above
126
The most frequent site of cartilage tears in the knee joint are at the A) collateral ligament B) cruciate ligament C) lateral meniscus D) medial meniscus
D) medial meniscus
127
Equipment needed to repair a femoral neck fracture using a compression screw and sliding plate includes all of the following EXCEPT A) fracture table B) C-arm(fluro) C) Kwires D) pneumatic tourniquet
D) pneumatic tourniquet
128
What is the most commonly used donor tendon for a free flexor tendon graft? A) Palmaris longus B) Plantaris tendon C) abductor pollicis longus D) Both A and B
D) Both A and B
129
The procedure which consists of excision and fusion of the middle phalangeal joint of the foot with incision of the flexor tendon is: A) Bunionectomy B) Triple Arthrodesis C) Correction of Hammer Toe Deformity D) Metacarpal Arthroplasty
C) Correction of Hammer Toe Deformity
130
All of the following are considered good methods of maintaining strict asepsis within an orthopedic surgical suite EXCEPT A) ultraviolet light B) laminar flow rooms C) charcoal masks D) space suits
C) charcoal masks
131
Plaster Rolls for casting should be submerged in A) Hot Water B) Cold water C) Neutral Temperature D) Slightly warm
D) Slightly warm
132
When implanting plates and screws, what medication is used on the surgical field? A) heparin sodium for anticoagulation B) polymixin for decreased edema C) Hypaque for hemostasis D) Bacitracin for antimicrobial prophylaxis against osteomyelitis
D) Bacitracin for antimicrobial prophylaxis against osteomyelitis
133
The rare use of the laser during orthopedic surgery may be seen in the use of the CO2 laser during a revision arthroplasty to A) remove a cemented implant B) vaporize protein C) weld tissue for collagen bonding D) create hemostasis
A) remove a cemented implant
134
When a tourniquet is inflated during surgery, the surgeon is notified at which recommended time intervals? A) At the half hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter B) at the half hour and every half hour thereafter C) at the hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter D) at the hour and every half hour thereafter
C) at the hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter
135
The three main components of a knee arthroplasty are: (1) femoral (2) acetabular (3) tibial base plate (4) patella component A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3,4 D) 4,2,1
A) 1,3,4
136
When performing a skin prep for surgery on the tibia, the skin prep would extend: A) from the hip joint to the toes B) from above the knee joint to the toes C) from the incision site down to the toes D) from the hip joint to the knee joint
B) from above the knee joint to the toes
137
When assisting with the application of a plaster cast, you would do all of the following except: A) secure a bucket of hot water B) prepare only one plaster bandage or strip at the time C) gently squeeze excess water from the plaster bandage after bubbles have ceased to rise D) clean plaster from the patient and equipment as soon as possible
A) secure a bucket of hot water
138
The Keller and McBride procedures are types of A) bunionectomy procedures B) shoulder repairs C) ankle repairs D) patellectomy
A) bunionectomy procedures
139
Which of the following would not be used as cast padding? A) webril B) felt C) esmarch bandage D) stockinette
C) esmarch bandage
140
The proper position for the patient undergoing arthroscopic knee surgery is A) skeletal traction on fracture table B) lateral position, foot of table flexed at 45* C) the alvarado knee holder D) supine position, foot of table flexed at 90*
D) supine position, foot of table flexed at 90*
141
Compression force of the distal femur upon the tibia produces varying types of fractures of the A) patella B) tibia plateau C) femoral condyle D) head of the femur
B) tibia plateau
142
Long Cancellous screws placed with a gliding hole for the shaft provide: A) compression of bone fragments B) approximatiuon of bone fragments C) distraction of bone fragments D) subluxation of bone fragments
A) compression of bone fragments
143
Which one of the following is the correct order for screw placement? A) drill,tap,measure,screw B) drill, measure, tap, screw C) tap, drill, measure, screw D) tap, measure, drill, screw
B) drill, measure, tap, screw
144
Electrical stimulation is artificially applied post operative electrical current that influences A) osteomalacia B) osteogenesis C) osteoporosis D) osteoarthritis
B) osteogenesis
145
Limb exsanguination is accomplished by using A) limb elevation B) tourniquet application C) kling bandage D) Esmarch bandage
D) Esmarch bandage
146
Which position is the patient placed in for an Anterior Cervical Discectomy and Fusion? A) Supine B) Prone C) Sims D) Kraske
A) Supine
147
The ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is A) young and healthy person B) young with arthritis C) old and healthy D) old with osteoporotic bone disease
A) young and healthy person