csat pyq fc - Sheet1

Question 1

1,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies. 2. Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”,”In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.”,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 1

1,d,Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage nowhere makes any assertion indicating that collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies. In fact, the passage suggests that “More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal”, indicating how the municipal system (under the government) is already stressed. Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage nowhere makes any assertion indicating that resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises. The passage only limits itself to saying that “which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value.” and further that “The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.” So, the passage makes a case for the mode of resource recovery and recycling, i.e., bio methanation, rather than which sector should perform it.

Question 2

2,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage? a) Generation of energy from municipal solid waste is inexpensive. b) Bio methanation is the most ideal way of generating energy from municipal solid waste. c) Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to- energy plants. d) The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is not adequate to provide energy from waste efficiently/effectively.”,”In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.”,c) Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to- energy plants.

Answer 2

2,c,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage nowhere specifies or even dwells upon the cost of generation of energy from municipal solid waste. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does outrightly state that “The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.” However, ‘major solution’ cannot be equated with ‘most ideal way’ in the strict sense. Further, the question is asking us to suggest the crux of the passage. The fact about bio methanation offering a major solution is a solution to the crux of the passage, which is about the issue of the rarity of segregation of municipal waste at source and achieving waste-to-energy amidst such a challenging scenario. Option (c) is correct: The passage begins with laying the central theme that “In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare.” Further, it goes on to say, “Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally, it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill.” This line lays the sequential chain of waste processing, which can further be re-aligned to generate energy. Hence from these lines, it is clear that the segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to-energy plants. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage clearly refutes this by mentioning that “The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.”

Question 3

3,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers. 2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2”,”There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.”,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 3

3,b,Statement 1 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect because of the use of the word “inherently”. The passage states that “The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike…in ways that could harm them as well.” Therefore, we must infer that organic farming is not inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers, but might be unsafe due to factors such as lack of regulation, “organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale”, “If, not applied in the right dose” etc. Statement 2 is correct: This assumption closely aligns with the content of the passage. The passage discusses the confusion among farmers and consumers due to the lack of regulation and research in the organic farming industry. This implies that there is a need for more education about what constitutes eco-friendly food and how it should be produced and consumed safely.

Question 4

4,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical massage conveyed by the author of the passage? a) In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming. b) There are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers. c) In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable. d) The aim of organic farming should not be to generate huge profits as there is still no global market for its products.”,”There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.”,c) In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable.

Answer 4

4,c,Option (a) is incorrect: It is a little extreme in drawing an inference that In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming. The passage is using a cautionary, rather than an exaggerated, tone regarding organic farming. Further, the author is nowhere found comparing or even promoting conventional farming at the cost of organic farming in the passage. Option (b) is incorrect: This option is extreme. Nowhere has the author indicated that there are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers. In fact the author of the passage states the contrary that “since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India” implying that safe (can assume safe) organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers are present, but not accessible or readily available. Option (c) is correct: The passage mentions, “The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well.” The passage in the further lines goes on to explain the same. Therefore, we can correctly infer that In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable. Option (d) is incorrect: This option is extreme. The passage does not discuss the profit or market aspect of organic farming at all.

Question 5

5,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition. 2. Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem. 3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security. 4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity. Which of the above assumptions are valid? a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”,”Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional corps/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.”,b) 2 and 3 only

Answer 5

5,b,Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage neither promotes monoculture nor refers to it as inevitable. In fact, it makes a case against it in the line, “Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem” Statement 2 is correct: The passage makes many indications that dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem. This is evidenced by the lines, “disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets.” and “For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production, particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional crops/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.” Statement 3 is correct: The passage mentions, “disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets”, “food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition”, “For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples….impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem…”. This makes a strong case for the government to incorporate nutritional security in its policies regarding food planning. Statement 4 is incorrect: While this statement might be true in its own right, the passage does not mention anything about subsidies or any particular reason(s) behind monoculture.

Question 6

6,”A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements: 1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at least one colour is 175. 2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of each colour is 167. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2”,”Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI UPSC SARTHI ~ CSAT-2023 Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional corps/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.”,b) 2 only

Answer 6

6,c,The box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Value of n We have to find out the minimum possible number of balls that should be drawn from the box such that the balls drawn must contain one full group of at least one colour. Say, it may have all 14 black balls, or all 20 blue balls, etc. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Let’s think about the worst-case scenario. What is the maximum number of balls that we can draw without selecting a full group of any colour? Let’s select 13 black balls, 19 blue balls, 25 green balls, 27 yellow balls, 37

Question 7

7,”If ‘ZERO’ is written as ‘CHUR’, then how is ‘PLAYER’ written?”,”a) SOCACT b) SODBGT c) SODBHT d) SODBHU”,c) SODBHT

Answer 7

7,d,Here, we are required to decipher or decode the pattern. ZERO is written as CHUR. We can see that the underlying pattern is very simple, as shown below: Z + 3 = C E + 3 = H R + 3 = U O + 3 = R We will follow a similar pattern to code PLAYER. P + 3 = S L + 3 = O A + 3 = D Y + 3 = B E + 3 = H R + 3 = U So, the required code is SODBHU. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 8

8,”Consider the following statements: 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F is older than A. How many statements given above are required to determine the oldest person/persons?”,”Only two Only three Only four All five”,

Answer 8

8,d,The given statements are: 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F is older than A. So, the persons we need to consider are: A, B, C, D, E, and F, i.e. 6 in total. We must use statements 2 and 3, as C has been mentioned only in statement 2, and E has been mentioned only in statement 3. Now, we need to account for A, B, D and F. We can account for A and B using statement 1, and for D and F using statement 4. Using statements 1 and 3, we get: A > B > E Using statements 2 and 4, we get: C = D > F Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI However, we still need statement 5 to find out the relative ages of these two groups. Using statement 5, we get: C = D > F > A > B > E So, C and D are the oldest and to find this out we need to use all the given five statements. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 9

9,”Consider the following including the Question and the Statements: There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family. Question: What is the relation of E to B ? Statement-1: A and B are a married couple. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Statement-2: D is the father of C. Statement-3: E is D’s son. Statement-4: A and C are sisters. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Questions and Statements?”,”Statement-1, Statement-2 and Statement-3 are sufficient to answer the Question. Statement-1, Statement-3 and Statement-4 are sufficient to answer the Question. All four statement together are sufficient to answer the Question. All four statements are not sufficient to answer the Question.”,b) Statement-1, Statement-3 and Statement-4 are sufficient to answer the Question.

Answer 9

9,c,The 5 family members are A, B, C, D, and E. The given statements are: Statement 1: A and B are a married couple. Statement 2: D is the father of C. Statement 3: E is D’s son. Statement 4: A and C are sisters. We need to find the relation of E with B. We must use statements 1 and 3, as B and E have not been mentioned in any other statement. Option (a): Statements 1, 2 and 3 alone are not sufficient, as we cannot find a link between B and E in these statements. Option (b): Statements 1, 3 and 4 alone are not sufficient, as we cannot find a link between B and E in these statements. Option (c): Using all the four statements, we get the following family tree: So, E is the brother-in-law of B. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 10

10,”Choose the group which is different from the others: a) 17, 37, 47, 97 b) 31, 41, 53, 67 c) 71, 73, 79, 83 d) 83, 89, 91, 97”,”a) 17, 37, 47, 97 b) 31, 41, 53, 67 c) 71, 73, 79, 83 d) 83, 89, 91, 97”,b) 31, 41, 53, 67

Answer 10

10,d,Prime numbers in 1-100 range are: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97. We can see that all the numbers in options (a), (b), and (c) are prime numbers. However, number 91 in option (d) is not a prime number. As, 91 = 13 × 7. So, this group is different from the others. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 11

11,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication conveyed by the passage?”,”Arbitrary curbs on vehicles to reduce pollution are difficult to implement. Knee-jerk reactions cannot but an evidence-based approach will be more effective. A heavy penalty should be enforced on those driving without periodic pollution tests. In the absence of laws to deal with the problem of pollution, the administration tends to make arbitrary decisions.”,b) Knee-jerk reactions cannot but an evidence-based approach will be more effective.

Answer 11

11,b,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage suggests that arbitrary curbs on vehicles to reduce pollution are pointless/ ineffective measures, rather than being difficult to implement. For example, the passage mentions “To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use of odd-even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles are a way forward. Even then the air is not clean. “ Therefore, as per the passage, the issue is not of implementation but policy flaws. The passage further explains the flaw, for example, “Vehicles more than 15 years old comprise one percent of the total; and taking them off the road will not make any difference. Banning certain fuels and car types arbitrarily is not proper. Diesel engines produce more PM 2.5 and less CO2 than petrol or CNG engines. On the other hand, both diesel and CNG engines produce more NOx than petrol engines. No one has measured the amount of NOx that CNG engines are emitting. Arbitrary bans on vehicles that have passed mandated fitness tests and periodic pollution tests are unfair.” Option (b) is correct: The passage suggests how knee-jerk reactions such as “temporary use of odd- even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles” are not effective solutions. “Even then the air is not clean.” It makes a case for a proper evidence-based approach as being more effective. “What is needed is the scientific and reliable information about the source of pollutants on a continuing basis and the technologies that will work to reduce pollution from them.” Option (c) is incorrect: The passage makes a case against knee-jerk and temporary reactions. Imposing a heavy penalty on those driving without periodic pollution tests is an example of such a short-term type of measure. The passage advocates well-researched policies, based on scientific and reliable information. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not state there is a dearth of laws. Rather, the tone (for example, “policymakers think that drastic actions”) indicates that there are many steps and policies being taken to tackle air pollution, but all of them are ineffective. Further, as per the passage, this ineffectiveness is not due to the absence of a law, but rather due to a lack of well-researched policies, based on scientific and reliable information.

Question 12

12,”Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above?”,”Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhance access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.”,a) It is an important agenda of the countries around the world to ensure access to good external financing. b) Good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms. c) International capital markets ensure that the firms maintain good corporate governance. d) Good corporate governance paves the way for robust supply chains.,b) Good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms.

Answer 12

12,b,Option (a) is incorrect: While this option presents a correct argument as per the passage, it is the supporting/secondary and indirect argument. The passage states that “A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by firms…” So, countries around the world are trying to put in place good corporate governance, in order to access good external financing. Also, again good external financing is not the ultimate aim, but “greater investment, higher growth and employment.” Option (b) is correct: The passage mentions that “Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control…. Effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.” Therefore, we can infer that the central theme of the passage revolves around how good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms. Hence this option best reflects the logical inference from the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: While this option presents a correct argument as per the passage, it is the supporting argument. Also, the passage focusses on good corporate governance leading to improvement in the credibility of the firms in the international markets, rather than the other way round, i.e. international capital markets benefitting corporate governance. Option (d) is incorrect: There is no direct mention of supply chains in the passage.

Question 13

13,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?”,”Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for the regeneration of others, which in turn provide sustenance to others herbivorous animals. Elephants eat plants, fruits and seeds, propagating the seeds when they defecate in other places as they travel. Elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals and acts as a breeding ground for insects. In times of drought, they access water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife.”,a) The home range of elephants needs to be a vast area of rich biodiversity. b) Elephants are the keystone species and they benefit the biodiversity. c) Rich biodiversity cannot be maintained in the forests without the presence of elephants. d) Elephants are capable of regenerating forests with species as per their requirement.,b) Elephants are the keystone species and they benefit the biodiversity.

Answer 13

13,b,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss what qualifies for the home range of the elephants. It rather discusses the importance and benefits of elephants for the forest ecosystem. Option (b) is correct: The passage discusses this aspect in the entire and each line of the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: While this option might seem true, as the passage does discuss the importance of elephants to a point where their presence might seem critical in the forest ecosystem, the passage does not go to the extent of stating that the rich biodiversity in the forests cannot be maintained without the presence of elephants. For example, there might be another species/ multitude of species that could maintain the rich biodiversity of forests even in the absence of elephants. Hence, it would be extreme and incorrect to infer that the rich biodiversity of the forests cannot be maintained in the forests without the presence of elephants. Option (d) is incorrect: This option is incorrect because it mentions “as per their requirement”. The passage shows that elephants regenerate forests in an involuntary manner (not as per their consciousness or own requirements per se), for example, they “propagate(ing) the seeds when they defecate…Elephant dung acts as a breeding ground for insects.” Further, one might argue that the passage mentions “In times of drought, they access the water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife” which they do “for their requirement”. However, how such access to water benefits other wildlife is not consciously controlled by them, i.e. they are only accessing water here for their own requirement, and not facilitating regeneration in the forest for their own requirement.

Question 14

14,”If 7  9  10 = 8, 9  11  30 = 5, 11  17  21 = 13, what is the value of 23  4  15 ?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 6 b) 8 c) 13 d) 15

Answer 14

14,a,Here, we are just adding up the numbers and then summing up the digits of the resultant number. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI 7 ⨁ 9 ⨁ 10 = 7 + 9 + 10 = 26 = 2 + 6 = 8 9 ⨁ 11 ⨁ 30 = 9 + 11 + 30 = 50 = 5 + 0 = 5 11 ⨁ 17 ⨁ 21 = 11 + 17 + 21 = 49 = 4 + 9 = 13 So, 23 ⨁ 4 ⨁ 15 = 23 + 4 + 15 = 42 = 4 + 2 = 6 Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 15

15,”Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) Infinitely many

Answer 15

If 7x + 96 is divisible by x, It means that 96/x is a whole number
So, x is a factor of 96 ie 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 16, 24, 32, 48, and 96 = 12 possible values. Hence (c) is correct.
(a + 1) × (b + 1)

Question 16

16. If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q) (r + s) ?
    (a) 230
    (b) 225
    (c) 224
    (d) 221

Answer 16

16,b,Single digit positive numbers are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. To maximize the value of (p + q) (r + s), we need to ensure that we multiply the biggest numbers possible. So, we will only consider the numbers 6, 7, 8, and 9. Also, we should ensure that the numbers being multiplied are as close in value as possible. So, the required answer = (6 + 9) (7 + 8) = 15 × 15 = 225 Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 17

17,”A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 11 b) 9 c) 7 d) 1

Answer 17

17,a,Method I: N = 9999 …… 99 times Any digit repeated (P - 1) times is divisible by P, where P is a prime number > 5. So, 9999 …… repeated 13 - 1 = 12 times will be divisible by 13. So, 9999 …… repeated 12 × 8 = 96 times will be divisible by 13. That is, Remainder [9999…… 96 times / 13] = 0 Or Remainder [9999…… (96 times) 000 / 13] = 0 So, we just need to find out the remainder when we divide the remaining three digits by 13. Remainder [999 / 13] = 11 Hence, option (a) is correct. Method II: We can analyze the pattern of remainders. Remainder [9/13] = 9 Remainder [99/13] = 8 Remainder [999/13] = 11 Remainder [9999/13] = 2 Remainder [99999/13] = 3 Remainder [999999/13] = 0 This pattern can be seen getting repeated thereafter too. Remainder [9999999/13] = 9 Remainder [99999999/13] = 8 …and so forth. So, if total number of 9s is six, twelve, eighteen, ……., ninety, ninety six, etc., the remainder is 0. So, if the number has ninety seven 9s, the remainder is 9. [Following the pattern] So, if the number has ninety eight 9s, the remainder is 8. So, if the number has ninety nine 9s, the remainder is 11. Therefore, the answer is 11. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 18

18,”Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the Resulting number?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 64 b) 80 c) 81 d) 100

Answer 18

18,c,Method I: Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI 11 × 11 = 121 111 × 111 = 12321 1111 × 1111 = 1234321 Following the same pattern, we get: (1111 …. 9 times) × (1111 …. 9 times) = 12345678987654321 Sum of the digits of the resulting number = 2 × (1 + 2 + 3 + …. + 8) + 9 = 2 × [8 × 9/2] + 9 = 72 + 9 = 81 [ Sum of first n natural numbers = n (n + 1) / 2 ] Hence, option (c) is correct. Method II: Since each digit of a 9-digit number is 1, so the sum of its digits = 9. So, this number is divisible by 9. Any multiple of such a number will also be divisible by 9. So, the sum of the digits of the resulting number of the multiplication (111111111) × (111111111) must also be divisible by 9. Therefore, the correct answer will be the option which is a multiple of 9, i.e. 81. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 19

19,”What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100 ?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 855 b) 856 c) 910 d) 221

Answer 19

19,b,We have to find the sum of all the digits of the numbers from 10 to 100. Let’s leave aside 100 for now. We are left with 9 sets of 10 numbers each. 10, 11, ….. 19 20, 21, ….. 29 90, 91, ….. 99 Counting Units Digits Sum of unit digits of each of these 9 sets = 0 + 1 + 2 + …. + 9 = 9 × 10 / 2 = 45 [ Sum of first n natural numbers = n (n + 1) / 2 ] So, sum of all the unit digits of the 9 sets = 45 × 9 = 405 Counting Tens Digits Let’s count the tens digits of 10, 20, 30 …, 90, and then 11, 21, 31, …, 91, and so on. Sum of tens digits of 10, 20, 30 …, 90 = 1 + 2 + 3 + …. + 9 = 9 × 10 / 2 = 45 So, sum of all the tens digits = 45 × 10 = 450 So, the sum of all the digits of the numbers from 10 to 100 = 405 + 450 + 1 = 856 Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 20

20,”ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as vertices out of these six points?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 16 b) 18 c) 20 d) 24

Answer 20

ABCD square. Points on sides AB, CD, BC, DA.
abcd is a square
The total number of ways to choose 3 points out of 6 is given by the combination formula C(n, r) = n! / [r!(n-r)!], where n is the total number of items, r is the number of items to choose, and “!” denotes factorial.

So, the total number of triangles is C(6, 3) = 6! / [3!(6-3)!] = 20.

Question 21

21,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage?”,”The emissions humans put into the atmosphere now will affect the climate in the middle of the century and onwards. Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future transition away from fossil fuels cheap or it might not, leaving the world with a terrible choice between sharply reducing emissions at huge cost or suffering through the effects of unabated warming. Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail. The world cannot afford such recklessness on climate change.”,a) Businesses that cause emissions may need to close down or pay for pollution in future. b) The only solution is technological development related to the issues of climate change. c) Waiting to deal with carbon emissions until technology improves is not a wise strategy. d) Since future technological change is uncertain, new industries should be based on renewable energy sources.

Answer 21

21,c,Option (a) is incorrect: The only part of the passage pertaining to this assertion is the line, “Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail.” The passage nowhere specifies that businesses would need to close down or pay for pollution in future. Hence, we cannot assume the same, as there is no definite or sufficiently indicative basis for the safe. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not convey any solutions to the issue of climate change. Further, the statement is also too extreme (“only solution”) to be true. Option (c) is correct: The passage mentions, “Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future transition away from fossil fuels cheap or it might not, leaving the world with a terrible choice between sharply reducing emissions at huge cost or suffering through the effects of unabated warming. Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail. The world cannot afford such recklessness on climate change.” Hence, we can safely conclude that waiting to deal with carbon emissions until technology improves will not be a wise strategy. This is the main message of the author. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not convey any solutions to the issue of climate change. Further, the statement is also too specific, whereas the passage does not discuss the same.

Question 22

22,”Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be made from the passage?”,”Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea appears almost impossible to adopt. With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death, literally. And yet, barring a few, there seems to be the same collective lethargy towards making their choices.”,a) We are likely to spend more money on cure than prevention. b) It is the job of the government to solve our environmental and public health problems. c) Health can be protected even if environmental problems go on unattended. d) Loss of traditional lifestyle and the influence of western values led to some unhealthy way of living.

Answer 22

22,a,Option (a) is incorrect: This option is not directly addressed in the passage. The passage discusses the difficulty in adopting substantial changes in lifestyle to reduce environmental or health problems, but does not provide information about spending patterns on cure versus prevention. Therefore, it cannot be considered the most rational assumption. The passage states that unlike environmental issues, individual choices can make a big impact when it comes to health – “can make the difference between life and death”. Some students may equate environmental measures to preventive measures and health measures to curative measures. This may make option (a) seem correct. However, it’s a wrong parallelism. How we deal with health can be both preventive and curative – we all have heard about preventive healthcare, isn’t it? Option (b) is incorrect: As this is not suggested by the passage. The passage mainly focuses on individual attitudes towards environmental and health problems and doesn’t mention the role of the government. While the passage mentions the collective lethargy towards making choices, it does not explicitly state that it is the government’s job to solve environmental and public health problems. The passage focuses more on the individual choices and their potential impact on health. Thus, this option does not directly imply the most rational assumption based on the passage. Option (c) is correct: Refer to the lines: “With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death…” Individual efforts have negligible effects on environmental concerns, but they can have transformative effects when it comes to health concerns. Therefore, it is correct to say that health can be protected even if environmental problems go on unattended. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage only says that substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems. That means there is some issue with the contemporary lifestyle. Now, what is the underlying reason behind these lifestyles is not discussed in the passage. Therefore, this answer option is beyond the scope of this passage. A Caveat: If we confine ourselves to the passage provided to us, option (c) sure looks like the optimum choice. However, we have accessed the source text of this passage, and it suggests that option (a) may be the right choice, as the statement in option (a) has directly been quoted from there.

Question 23

23,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?”,”Many people are not eating the right food. For some, it is simply a decision to stick with food they enjoy but which is not too healthy. This is leading to an increase in non-communicable diseases. This in turn leads to major burden on our health-care systems that have the potential to derail the economic progress which is essential for the poor to improve their lives. For others, it is about limited access to nutritious food or a lack of affordability, leading to monotonous diets that do not provide the daily nutrients for them to develop fully. Part of the reason nutrition is under threat worldwide is that our food systems are not properly responding to nutritional needs. Somewhere along that long road from farm to fork, there are serious detours taking place.”,a) The scheme of Universal Basic Income should be implemented worldwide as a way of poverty alleviation. b) We must place food-based nutrition at the centre of our policy debate. c) Nutritional status of food should be improved by creating appropriate genetically modified crops. d) Using modern food processing technologies, we must fortify food items with required nutrient elements.

Answer 23

23,b,Option (a) is incorrect: This option does not reflect the core of the passage. The passage discusses the problems surrounding food choices and accessibility, as well as their impact on health and economic progress. Universal Basic Income as a solution or even as a concept is not mentioned. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Option (b) is correct: This Option appears to be the most accurate reflection of the crux of the passage. The passage discusses issues with food consumption, accessibility, and their effects on health and economic progress. This suggests that placing food-based nutrition at the centre of policy debates could address these interconnected problems. Option (c) is incorrect: Although this could be one potential solution to the problems outlined in the passage, the passage itself does not discuss genetically modified crops. Thus, this option is not the most accurate reflection of the passage’s main point. Option (d) is incorrect: This option, like (c), presents a potential solution to the issue at hand. However, the passage does not specifically discuss fortifying foods or using modern food processing technologies, making it a less accurate reflection of the passage’s main point.

Question 24

24,”Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following: 1. p + q + r – s - t is definitely even. 2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd. Which of the above statements is/are correct?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 24

24,a,Among p. q, r, s, and t, there are three even and two odd numbers. Let the numbers be 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Statement 1: p + q + r – s - t No matter how we arrange the numbers, we always end up with an even number. So, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2: 2p + q + 2r – 2s + t Let’s put some values in this expression and check. (2×5) + 6 + (2×3) – (2×2) + 4 = 10 + 6 + 6 – 4 + 4 = 22 (an even number) So, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 25

25,"Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c. 1.p+c/p-c can be even. 2. p+c can be odd. 3. pc can be odd. Which of the statements given above are correct?","No Passage Provided",a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 25

25,d,Let’s place some numbers in place of p and c in the given expressions and check them out. Statement 1: (p + c)/(p - c) = (11 + 9)/(11 - 9) = 20/2 = 10 (an even number) So, statement 1 is correct.Statement 2: 2p + c = (2×3) + 9 = 15 (an odd number) So, statement 2 is correct. Statement 3: pc = 3×9 = 27 (an odd number) So, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 26

26,"A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. What is the value of A+B+C?","No Passage Provided",a) 18 b) 16 c) 15 d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Answer 26

3-digit number ABC The problem states that when a 3-digit number ABC is multiplied by D, it gives 37DD. Here, A, B, C, and D are different non-zero digits. To solve this, we need to find a value for D such that 37DD is a 4-digit number. The only possible values for D are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. If D = 1, then 37DD is not a 4-digit number. If D = 2, then 37DD is not a 4-digit number. If D = 3, then 37DD is not a 4-digit number. If D = 4, then 37DD = 3744, which is a 4-digit number. Therefore, D = 4. Now, we need to find a 3-digit number ABC such that ABC * 4 = 3744. The only 3-digit number that satisfies this equation is 936. Therefore, A = 9, B = 3, and C = 6. Finally, we need to find the value of A + B + C. A + B + C = 9 + 3 + 6 = 18. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 18.

Question 27

27,"For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6 digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by:","No Passage Provided",a) 7 and 11 only b) 11 and 13 only c) 7 and 13 only d) 7, 11 and 13

Answer 27

27,d,Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI XYZXYZ = XYZ000 + XYZ = XYZ (1000 + 1) = XYZ × 1001 Now, 1001 = 7 × 11 × 13 So, any number of the form XYZXYZ must be divisible by 7, 11 and 13. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 28

28,"125 identical cubes are arranged in the form of cubical block. How many cubes are surrounded by other cubes from each side?","No Passage Provided",a) 27 b) 25 c) 21 d) 18

Answer 28

28,a,We have to find the number of internal cubes, i.e. the number of cubes that are not exposed. There are 125 cubes. Now, 5^3 = 125. So, n = 5 Number of internal cubes = (n - 2)^3 = (5 - 2)^3 = 3^3 = 27 Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 29

29,"How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions?","No Passage Provided",a) 12 b) 18 c) 36 d) 72

Answer 29

29,c,In an eight-digit number there are 4 odd and 4 even positions. In the number 11223344, there are 4 odd numbers (1, 1, 3, 3) and 4 even numbers (2, 2, 4, 4). Now, the number of ways these 4 odd numbers (1, 1, 3, 3) can be arranged in 4 odd positions = 4!/(2 × 2) = 6 Similarly, the number of ways these 4 even numbers (2, 2, 4, 4) can be arranged in 4 even positions = 4!/(2 × 2) = 6 So, number of such distinct numbers = 6 × 6 = 36 Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 30

30,"A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. A alone Work’s on Monday, B alone works on Tuesday, C alone works on Wednesday; A alone, again Work’s on Thursday and so on. Consider the following statements: 1. The work will be finished on Thursday. 2. The work will be finished in 10 days.","No Passage Provided",a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 30

30,a,A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. Let the total amount of work be LCM (8, 16, 12) = 48 units So, Efficiency of A = 48/8 = 6 units/day Efficiency of B = 48/16 = 3 units/day Efficiency of C = 48/12 = 4 units/day The amount of work done in 3 days (Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday) = 6 + 3 + 4 = 13 units Thereafter, the amount of work done in subsequent 3 days (Thursday + Friday + Saturday) = 6 + 3 + 4 = 13 units Thereafter, the amount of work done in subsequent 3 days (Sunday + Monday + Tuesday) = 6 + 3 + 4 = 13 units Thereafter, the amount of work done in subsequent 2 days (Wednesday + Thursday) = 6 + 3 = 9 units So, amount of work done in 11 days = 13 + 13 + 13 + 9 = 48 units So, work will get finished in 11 days on Thursday. It means that Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 31

31,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, practical and immediate action required to ensure fair and equitable allocation of water to different stakeholders?","We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters. Of the 20 major river systems, 14 are already water-stressed;75% of the population lives in water-stressed regions, a third of whom live in waterscare areas. Climate change, the demands of rising population and the need for agriculture to keep pace, and increased rate of urbanization and industrialization will exacerbate water stress. According to the Constitution of India, water is a State subject and not that of the Union, except for regulation of inter-State rivers. Key to ensuring balance between competing demands of various stakeholders is a basin-based approach to allocate water amongst constituent regions and States. Allocating fair share of water to them requires assessments based on objective criteria, such as specificities of the river basin, size of dependent population, existing water use and demand, efficiency of use, projected future use, etc. while ensuring the environmental needs of the river and aquifers.",a) A national, pragmatic, legal and policy framework for water allocation should be made. b) All river systems of the country should be linked and huge aquifers created. c) Water channels between regions of water surplus and regions of water deficit should be created. d) To mitigate water crisis, water demand of sectors such as agriculture and industry should be reduced.,a) A national, pragmatic, legal and policy framework for water allocation should be made.

Answer 31

31,a,Option (a) is correct: This is a plausible solution as it aligns with the mention of the need for balance and objective criteria for water allocation. A comprehensive framework would presumably take these factors into account, and since water regulation for inter-State rivers is a Union matter, it is reasonable to propose a national policy. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not explicitly mention linking all river systems or creating aquifers. While this might be a long-term solution, it doesn't seem to be the necessary immediate and practical action as the passage suggests. Option (c) is incorrect: Similar to option (b), this is not mentioned in the passage and may not address the complexities involved in the issue, such as the need for a basin-based approach and specific criteria for water allocation. Option (d) is incorrect: While reducing water demand could potentially alleviate water stress, the passage doesn't suggest this as a solution. Rather, it highlights the need for a balanced approach considering several factors, including existing water use and demand, use efficiency, and projected future use.

Question 32

32,"Which one the following statements best reflects what is implied by the passage?","More than half of Indian women and almost a quarter of Indian men of working age suffer from anaemia. According to studies, they are anywhere from 5-15% less productive than they could be, as a result thereof. India also has the largest tuberculosis burden in the world, costing 170 million workdays to the country annually. But what is just as important as lost productivity now is lost potential in the future. It is becoming increasingly clear that on many measures of cognitive ability, malnourished Indian children perform, two or three times worse than their adequately nourished peers. For an economy that will be more dependent on highly skilled workers, this poses a significant challenge. And it is one that really should be addressed given India's demographic outlook.",a) Education system must be strengthened in rural areas. b) Large scale and effective implementation of skill development programme is the need of the hour. c) For economic development, health and nutrition of only skilled workers needs special attention. d) For rapid economic growth as envisaged by us, attention should be paid to health and nutrition of the people.,d) For rapid economic growth as envisaged by us, attention should be paid to health and nutrition of the people.

Answer 32

32,d,Option (a) is incorrect: While education might be indirectly related to the issue discussed in the passage, the text does not specifically address or imply anything about education or the rural area. It focuses on health and nutrition issues affecting productivity and cognitive abilities. Option (b) is incorrect: This option, like (a), does not directly tie into the specific issues addressed in the passage. The primary focus is on health and nutrition problems and their impact on productivity and cognitive abilities, not on skill development. Option (c) is incorrect: This is partly correct, as the passage implies that the health and nutrition of workers (skilled or otherwise) affect productivity and cognitive abilities, which are crucial for economic development. However, the passage does not suggest that only skilled workers need special attention in this respect. It mentions malnourished children and people of working age in general. Option (d) is correct: For rapid economic growth as envisaged by us, attention should be paid to the health and nutrition of the people: This Option is most aligned with the passage's implications. The text discusses the impact of health issues like anemia and tuberculosis on productivity, the effect of malnutrition on cognitive abilities in children, and the future needs of an economy increasingly reliant on highly skilled workers. The implication is that addressing health and nutrition issues is crucial for India's economic growth.

Question 33

33,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?","In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive capabilities to climate change, perhaps because of credit and other constraints. So, one cannot expect autonomous adaptation to climate change. Even if it was possible, it would not be sufficient to offset losses from climate change. To deal with this, adaptation to climate change is paramount, alongside a fast mitigation response. Another solution is to have a planned or policy-driven adaptation, which would require the government to come up with policy recommendations. Perception is a necessary pre- requisite for adaptation. Whether farmers are adapting agricultural practices to climate change depends on whether they perceive it or not. However, this is not always enough for adaptation. It is important how a farmer perceives the risks associated with climate change.",a) Adaptation to climate change and mitigation response are basically the responsibilities of the government. b) Climate change causes a change in government policies regarding land use patterns in the country. c) Risk perceptions of farmers are important for motivating them for taking adaptation decisions. d) Since mitigation is not possible, governments should come up with policies for quick response to climate change.,c) Risk perceptions of farmers are important for motivating them for taking adaptation decisions.

Answer 33

33,c,Option (a) is incorrect: While the passage suggests that government involvement could be beneficial, it does not state outright that these are exclusively the government's responsibilities. The farmers' perception and adaptation practices are also considered important. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage doesn't provide information regarding climate change causing changes in government policies specifically about land use patterns. The author's focus is on the adaptation to climate change and potential policy intervention to support that adaptation. Option (c) is correct: This option aligns well with the passage. The author discusses that the farmers' perception of the risks associated with climate change is important for adaptation. However, the author also states that perception alone is not enough for adaptation. However, it's worth noting that the author emphasizes that perception alone is not sufficient for adaptation and suggests that there may be a need for planned or policy-driven adaptation strategies by the government. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not state that mitigation is not possible. It talks about the necessity of adaptation alongside a fast mitigation response. Hence, this Option does not correctly reflect the author's message.

Question 34

34,"Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair of shoes to wear, what is the maximum number of attempts he has to make?","No Passage Provided",a) 27 b) 36 c) 44 d) 45

Answer 34

34,d,Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. So, he has 20 red shoes, 18 white shoes, and 16 black shoes. To find the maximum number of attempts we need to visualize the worst-case scenario. Let Raj draw all white and black shoes, which amounts to 18 + 16 = 34 shoes. Now, if he picks any two shoes, they are certainly going to be red. However, we also need to ensure that the red shoes picked by him make a pair, i.e. there should be one red shoe for left foot and one red shoe for right foot. For this to happen we need to pick 11 red shoes. So, maximum number of attempts to get a red pair of shoes = 34 + 11 = 45 Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 35

35,"In how many ways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring shots?","No Passage Provided",a) 18 b) 19 c) 20 d) 21

Answer 35

In how many ways a batsman can score 25 runs ? This problem can be solved by using the concept of integer solutions of an equation. Let’s denote the number of singles as x, the number of fours as y, and the number of sixes as z. We are looking for the number of solutions to the equation: x + 4y + 6z = 25 We also know that x, y, and z must be non-negative integers (since you can’t score a negative number of runs or a fraction of a run). We can start by finding the maximum possible values for x, y, and z. The maximum value for x is 25 (if all runs are scored as singles), for y is 6 (if all runs are scored as fours), and for z is 4 (if all runs are scored as sixes). Now, we can start by assuming the maximum value for z and then find the possible values for y and x. If z = 4, then the remaining runs to be scored are 1, which can only be scored as a single. So, there is 1 solution in this case. If z = 3, then the remaining runs to be scored are 7. These can be scored as 1 four and 3 singles, or 7 singles. So, there are 2 solutions in this case. If z = 2, then the remaining runs to be scored are 13. These can be scored as 3 fours and 1 single, 2 fours and 5 singles, 1 four and 9 singles, or 13 singles. So, there are 4 solutions in this case. If z = 1, then the remaining runs to be scored are 19. These can be scored as 4 fours and 3 singles, 3 fours and 7 singles, 2 fours and 11 singles, 1 four and 15 singles, or 19 singles. So, there are 5 solutions in this case. If z = 0, then all runs must be scored as fours or singles. These can be scored as 6 fours and 1 single, 5 fours and 5 singles, 4 fours and 9 singles, 3 fours and 13 singles, 2 fours and 17 singles, 1 four and 21 singles, or 25 singles. So, there are 7 solutions in this case. Adding up all these solutions, we get a total of 1 + 2 + 4 + 5 + 7 = 19 solutions. So, the answer is (b) 19. In how many ways a batsman can score 25 runs ?

Question 36

36,"There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one envelope with the correct address. If the letters are randomly inserted into the envelopes, then consider the following statements: 1. It is possible that exactly one letter goes into an incorrect envelope. 2. There are only six ways in which only two letters can go into the correct envelopes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?","No Passage Provided",a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 36

36,b,Statement 1: If one letter is placed in an incorrect envelop, then the letter that belonged to that envelop must have also been placed in an incorrect envelop. So, it’s not possible that only one letter gets placed in an incorrect envelop. Either no letter will get misplaced, or at least two letters will get misplaced. So, Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2: We need to place two letters in correct envelops and two in incorrect envelops. We can choose the two letters to be placed in correct envelops in 4C2 ways, i.e. 6 ways. The remaining Two letters will automatically get chosen to get placed in each other’s envelops (i.e. incorrect envelops). So, Statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 37

37,"What is the remainder when 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 is divided by 100?","No Passage Provided",a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

Answer 37

37,a,In 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 there are two 5’s (in 85 and 95) and a 4 (in 96). We know that, 5 × 5 × 4 = 100 So, the given expression is completely divisible by 100. So, remainder will be zero. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 38

38,"What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242)9×7×5×3×1 ?","No Passage Provided",a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

Answer 38

38,a,(57242)9×7×5×3×1 = (57242)945 The unit digit of the resultant number only depends on the unit digit of the given number 57242, i.e. 2. Now, we know that: 21 = 2 22 = 4 23 = 8 24 = 16 (unit digit 6) 25 = 32 (unit digit 2) . . . And so on. So, 2 has a cyclicity of 4. Exponent of any number ending in 2 will produce a number that will end in 2, 4, 8, or 6. Now, 945 = 944 + 1 944 is divisible by 4. So, the last digit of (57242)945 will be the same as that of (57242)1, which is 2. Hence, option (a) is correct

Question 39

39,"If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E, and F are distinct non-zero digits such that ABC+ DEF= 1111, then what is the value of A+B+C+D+E+F ?","No Passage Provided",a) 28 b) 29 c) 30 d) 31

Answer 39

39,d,ABC + DEF = 1111, wherein A, B, C, D, E, and F are distinct non-zero digits. We may get a resultant of 1111 if: C + F = 11, say 2 + 9 = 11 B + E = 10, say 3 + 7 = 10 A + D = 10, say 4 + 6 = 10 We can double check this by adding 432 + 679 = 1111 So, A + B + C + D + E + F = 4 + 3 + 2 + 6 + 7 + 9 = 31 Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 40

40,"D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between the digit at the hundred's place and the digit at the unit's place of D?","No Passage Provided",a) 0 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

Answer 40

40,c,Let the three-digit number be XYZ. This number is such that (100X + 10Y + Z) / (X + Y + Z) is the least possible. For 100, this ratio is 100/1 = 100 For 101, this ratio is 101/2 = 50.5 For 109, this ratio is 109/10 = 10.9 For 110, this ratio is 110/2 = 55 For 119, this ratio is 119/11 = 10.81 For 129, this ratio is 129/12 = 10.75 So, we can see that in 100-199 range, this ratio will be the least for 199, which is 199/19 = 10.47 Similarly, in 200-299 range, this ratio will be the least for 299, which is 299/20 = 14.95 Similarly, in 300-399 range, this ratio will be the least for 399, which is 399/21 = 19 We can see this ratio is slowly increasing. For 999, it would be 999/27 = 37 So, this ratio is the least for 199. The difference between the digit at the hundred's place and the digit at the unit's place = 9 – 1 = 8 Hence, option (c) is correct. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI

Question 41

41,"In India, while the unemployment rate is a frequently used measure of poor performance of the economy, under conditions of rising school and college enrolment, it paints an inaccurate picture. The reported unemployment rate is dominated by the experience of younger Indians who face higher employment challenges and exhibit greater willingness to wait for the right job than their older peers. The unemployment challenge is greater for people with secondary or higher education, and rising education levels inflate unemployment challenges.","No Passage Provided",a) Enrolment in schools and colleges is high but there is no quality education. b) Unemployment must be seen as a function of rising education and aspirations of young Indians. c) There are no labor-intensive industries to accommodate the huge number of unemployed people. d) The education system should be properly designed so as to enable the educated people to be self-employed.

Answer 41

41,b,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the quality of education. Instead, it points out how rising enrollment in schools and colleges might distort the unemployment rate. Thus, this option doesn't reflect the author's intended message. Option (b) is correct: This Option aligns well with the passage. The author suggests that higher education levels inflate unemployment challenges and that younger, more educated Indians face a higher employment challenge. Therefore, unemployment is indeed tied to the rising education and aspirations of young Indians. Option (c) is incorrect: The passage doesn't mention anything about the availability or lack thereof of labourintensive industries. Therefore, this Option doesn't accurately represent the author's intended message. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the design of the education system or the concept of selfemployment. Thus, this option does not reflect the author's intended message.

Question 42

42,"""Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate them and point to a goal. It is not possible to run a course aright when the goal itself has not been rightly placed. What science needs is philosophy – the analysis of scientific method and the coordination of scientific purposes and results; without this, any science must be superficial. Government suffers, precisely like science, for lack of philosophy. Philosophy bears to science the same relationship which statesmanship bears to politics: movement guided by total knowledge and perspective, as against aimless and individual seeking. Just as the pursuit of knowledge becomes scholasticism when divorced from the actual needs of men and life, so the pursuit of politics becomes a destructive bedlam when divorced from science and philosophy.""","No Passage Provided",a) Modern statesmen need to be well trained in scientific methods and philosophical thinking to enable them to have a better perspective of their roles, responsibilities and goals. b) It is not desirable to have Governments managed by empirical statesmen unless well mixed with others who are grounded in learning and reflect wisdom. c) As the statesmen/bureaucrats are the products of a society, it is desirable to have a system of education in a society that focuses on training its citizens in scientific method and philosophical thinking from a very early age. d) It is desirable that all scientists need to be philosophers as well to make their work goal- oriented and thus purposeful and useful to the society.

Answer 42

42,b,We have been asked to choose the most rational, logical and practical message. Hence, each of the options need to be tested for these three mentioned aspects. Option (a) is incorrect: This statement suggests training modern statesmen in scientific methods and philosophical thinking, which is ideal but not practical. The passage stresses that government should not just be an empirical machine, bereft of values. We need ingredients of philosophy and scientific aptitude in government. However, it nowhere states how to achieve this. The need for training of statesmen has not been explicitly or implicitly mentioned. This can also be achieved via guidance, external consultancy, etc. Option (b) is correct: The passage makes an analogy between the relationship of science and philosophy with that of politics and statesmanship. Just like philosophy is the guiding light of science, statesmanship is the guiding light of politics. The passage indirectly calls for the presence of politics backed by perspective and knowledge of real needs of society. This line, “... so the pursuit of politics becomes a destructive bedlam when divorced from science and philosophy.” indicates that it is not desirable to have a form of politics which is divorced from scientific thinking and philosophical backing that orients politicians to work for the larger good of society rather than for short-term selfish goals. In other words, it is desirable to have a blend of empirical statesmen and men of farsightedness and wisdom in politics. This is also a practical option as it may not be possible that all politicians have a philosophic orientation and vice-versa. Moreover, the passage has indicated at two places that it is referring to outside help, rather than training scientists and statesmen to be philosophers themselves. This can be seen in the line, “Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate them and point to a goal.”, and “Philosophy bears to science the same relationship which statesmanship bears to politics: movement guided by total knowledge and perspective”. The words “outside” and “guided” indicate more towards external guidance/consistency for statesmen, rather than training them themselves. Note: The term “empirical statesmen” mean statesmen that are facts, observation and data driven, and not valueladen (philosophy can be equated to values). It does not have “colonial empire” connotations here, i.e. we are not talking about British empire or any other empire of any sorts here. Option (c) is incorrect: While the passage mentions the importance of philosophy in science and statesmanship, it doesn't specifically discuss the role of education in cultivating these skills from an early age. Option (d) is incorrect: This reflects the sentiment of the passage to an extent, emphasizing the importance of philosophy in directing and giving purpose to scientific efforts. However, it might be a stretch to say that all scientists need to be philosophers. This statement sounds impractical and extreme.

Question 43

43,"""The last end of the state is not to dominate men, nor to restrain them by fear; rather it is so to free each man from fear that he may live and act with full security and without injury to himself or his neighbour. The end of the state, I repeat, is not to make rational beings into brute beasts and machines. It is to enable their bodies and their minds to function safely. It is to lead men to live by, and to exercise, a free reason; that they may not waste their strength in hatred, anger and guile, nor act unfairly toward one another.""","No Passage Provided",a) Personal safety b) Health of body and mind c) Communal harmony d) Liberty

Answer 43

43,d,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage mentions that the end of the state is to "free each man from fear that he may live and act with full security and without injury to himself or his neighbour," which does suggest personal safety. However, this might be considered as one aspect rather than the ultimate goal. Option (b) is incorrect: While the passage does talk about enabling bodies and minds to function safely, it doesn't suggest this as the ultimate goal of the state. Option (c) is incorrect: The text does imply communal harmony as one of the goals – "that they may not waste their strength in hatred, anger and guile, nor act unfairly toward one another" – but again, this seems more like one of the aspects of the ultimate goal rather than the ultimate goal itself. Option (d) is correct: The passage strongly emphasizes that the end of the state is to lead men to live by, and exercise, a free reason. This suggests liberty as a core goal, encompassing elements of personal safety, the health of body and mind, and communal harmony. Based on the passage, "Liberty" - seems to best express the ultimate goal of the state.

Question 44

44,"What is the remainder if 2^192 is divided by 6?","No Passage Provided",a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

Answer 44

44,d,Method I: 2192 / 6 = 2191 / 3 Remainder [2191 / 3] = (-1)191 = -1 = 2 So, Remainder [2192 / 6] = 2 × 2 = 4 Hence, option (d) is correct. Method II: To find the remainder when 2192 is divided by 6, we can observe a pattern in the remainders of powers of 2 when divided by 6. When we divide powers of 2 by 6, we get the following sequence of remainders: 21 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 2. 22 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 4. 23 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 2. 24 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 4. 25 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 2. We notice that when power of 2 is odd, the remainder is 2; and when power of 2 is even, the remainder is 4. Therefore, the answer would be 4. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 45

45,"Consider the sequence ABC_ _ABC_DABBCD_ABCD that follows a certain pattern.","No Passage Provided",a) DACB b) CDAB c) DCCA d) DDCA

Answer 45

45,d,Method I: The given sequence: ABC_ _ABC_DABBCD_ABCD We can break this sequence in five sets of 4 elements each. On analyzing it in this manner, we can see that the last element moves to the first position in a cyclic manner. The complete sequence is: ABCD DABC CDAB BCDA ABCD Hence, option (d) is correct. Method II: The given sequence: ABC_ _ABC_DABBCD_ABCD There are 20 elements in this series. Let’s break this sequence in four sets of 5 elements each. ABC_ _ ABC_D ABBCD _ABCD The third set ABBCD gives us a clue that one letter is being repeated. Now, we can check from the options to further confirm our presumption. Using option (d), we get the complete sequence: ABCDD ABCCD ABBCD AABCD We can see that in the first set 4th letter D is getting repeated, in the second set 3rd letter is getting repeated, and so on. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 46

46,"AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D. E, F, G, H, I are distinct digits. If E= 0, F=8, then what is A+B+C equal to?","No Passage Provided",a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

Answer 46

Since E = 0 and F = 8, the product of AB and CD must be a number in the form of 08X, where X is a digit from 1 to 9. The only way to get a product of 08X is if one of the numbers (AB or CD) is a multiple of 4 and the other number ends with 2 or 7. The possible pairs of numbers are (12, 34), (17, 24), (24, 17), (34, 12). However, since the sum of DEF and GHI is 975, the sum of the digits D, G, H, I must be 9 (since E = 0 and F = 8). The only pair of numbers that satisfies this condition is (12, 34), which gives a product of 408. Therefore, A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4. So, A + B + C = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 6.

Question 47

47,"Consider the following statements in respect of five candidates P, Q, R, S, and T. Two statements are true and one statement is false. True Statement: One of P and Q was selected for the job. False Statement: At least one of R and S was selected for the job. True Statement: At most two of R, S and T were selected for the job. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn? 1. At least four were selected for the job. 2. S was selected for the job. Select the correct answer using the code given below:","No Passage Provided",a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 47

47,d,The five candidates are P, Q, R, S, and T. The given statements are: True statement: One of P and Q was selected for the job. So, either P was selected or Q was selected. False statement: At least one of R and S was selected for the job. As this statement is false, we can deduce that neither R nor S was selected for the job. True statement: At most two of R, S and T were selected for the job. But we already know that Neither R nor S was selected for the job. So, we are only left with T. It may or may not be selected. The selected candidates’ maybe: P, PT, Q, QT So, the number of candidates that can be selected is either 1 or 2. So, none of the given conclusions is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 48

48,"Let P, Q, R, S and T be five statements such that: I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. Which of the following can be concluded? 1. If T is true, then at least one of P and R must be false. 2. If Q is true, then P is true. Select the correct answer using the code given below:","No Passage Provided",a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 48

48,a,I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. However, if P is false, we cannot say anything about Q and S. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. However, if only one of R and S is true, or both of them are false, then we cannot say anything about T. Now, let’s analyze the given conclusions. Conclusion 1: If T is true, then at least one of P and R must be false. If T is true, then it means that at least one of R and S must be false. Now, if S is false then it means that P must also be false. So, Conclusion 1 is correct. Conclusion 2: If Q is true, then P is true. If Q is true, then it doesn’t necessarily mean that P must be true. So, Conclusion 2 is not correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Statement 2: We need to find the number of cubes having only two painted faces, one with blue and the other with green colour. These cubes can be found in the middle of the four 3 cm edges. There is only one such cube at the middle of each of these four 3 cm edges. So, there are only 4 such cubes. So, Statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 49

49,"A cuboid of dimensions 7cm × 5cm × 3cm is painted red, green and blue colour on each pair of opposite faces of dimensions 7cm × 5cm × 5cm, 5cm × 3cm, 7cm × 3cm respectively. Then the cuboid is cut and separated into various cubes each of side length 1cm. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. There are exactly 15 small cubes with no paint on any face. 2. There are exactly 6 small cubes with exactly two faces, one painted with blue and the other with green. Select the correct answer using the code given below:","No Passage Provided",a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 49

The given cuboid is of dimensions 7 cm x 5 cm x 3 cm. 1. The small cubes with no paint on any face will be the ones that are not on the surface of the cuboid. These will be the cubes that are in the interior of the cuboid. The interior of the cuboid will have dimensions (7-2) cm x (5-2) cm x (3-2) cm = 5 cm x 3 cm x 1 cm = 15 cubes. So, the first statement is correct. 2. The small cubes with exactly two faces painted will be the ones that are on the edges of the cuboid but not at the corners. These will be painted with the colors of the two faces that meet at that edge. The edges with blue and green paint are of length 5 cm and 3 cm. But the corners of these edges will not have exactly two faces painted. So, we subtract 2 from each edge length to get the number of cubes with exactly two faces painted. This gives us (5-2) + (3-2) = 3 + 1 = 4 cubes. So, the second statement is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

Question 50

50,"The letters of the word ""INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES"" are arranged alphabetically in reverse order. How many positions of the letter/letters will remain unchanged?","No Passage Provided",a) None b) One c) Two d) Three

Answer 50

50,c,The given word is INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES. On arranging its letters alphabetically in reverse order, we will get: TSSRPONNMLIIIIIHEEECB Now, let's compare the two to identify the letters with unchanged positions. We find that only two I’s remain in the same position: Hence, option (c) is correct

Question 51

51,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical message implied by the above passage?","Passage-1",a) Modern technology enfeebles societal structure and makes life difficult. b) Modern life is full of uncertainties and endless difficult choices. c) We are influenced by the opinion of others and have no courage to follow our own convictions. d) In our lives, having too few choices may not be a good thing, but having too many can be equally as difficult.

Answer 51

51,d,Option (a) is incorrect: While the passage mentions technology and its role in amplifying our number of choices, it does not directly address how it weakens the societal structure. So, this option might not be the most accurate representation of the passage. Option (b) is incorrect: This Option aligns with the passage's theme, which discusses the paradox of choice and how an abundance of options can cause difficulties in decision-making. However, the passage does not explicitly discuss the uncertainties of modern life. Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the influence of others' opinions on our decision- making or our lack of courage to follow our convictions. Therefore, this option does not reflect the passage's implied message. Option (d) is correct: This Option captures the essence of the passage well, which focuses on the paradox of choice —how both the lack of choices and an overabundance of them can lead to decision- making difficulties.

Question 52

52,"Regarding the financialization of household savings, which of the following statements best reflect the Solutions that are implied by the passage? 1. A flexible environment is needed to develop solutions. 2. Households need customized solutions. 3. Innovations in financial technology are required Select the correct answer using the code given below:","Passage-2",a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 52

52,a,The passage highlights the critical need to encourage the financialization of savings. However, it also opines that people would only jump into financialization after addressing some hurdles. Statement 1 is correct: The line “Hurdles to change include onerous bureaucracy…” implies a rigid and challenging environment creating challenges in the financialization of household savings. Thus, a flexible environment is required to develop solutions to address the challenges related to the financialization of savings. Thus, it is a correct statement. Statement 2 is correct: The line “A lack of basic information about which of the myriad services and provers is best for each family.” reflects that families do not have information and access to solutions that meet their specific needs. This can be solved by providing customized solutions to each household. Thus, it is a correct statement. Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage focuses more on the skepticism of organized financial institutions and the lack of knowledge among households. While financial technology innovations can be beneficial in improving access to information and services, they are not directly implied as a solution in the passage.

Question 53

53,"Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Patent protection given to patentees puts a huge burden on public's purchasing power in accessing patented medicines. 2. Dependence on other countries for pharmaceutical products is a huge burden for developing and poor countries. 3. Providing medicines to the public at affordable prices is a key goal during the public health policy design in many countries. 4. Governments need to find and appropriate balance between the rights of patentees and the requirements of the patients. Which of the above assumptions are valid?","Passage-3",a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 4 c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 3

Answer 53

53,b,Statement 1 is correct: The line, “The patentees enjoy the liberty to determine the prices of medicines, which is time-limited to the period of monopoly, but could be unaffordable to the public” assumes that patent protection puts a huge burden on the purchasing power of the public and may even make its access unaffordable. Statement 2 is incorrect: Although this statement is true in general, it is beyond the scope of the passage as it nowhere talks about the burden imposed on developing and poor countries as a whole in accessing pharmaceutical products. Statement 3 is incorrect: This statement is also true in general, however, the passage does not talk about the public health policy design of the countries and its goals. Statement 4 is correct: The line, “Such patent protection offered to the patentees is believed to benefit the public over the long term through innovation and research and development (R&D), although it comes at a cost, in the nature of higher prices for the patented medicines” indicates the desirability of the patent regime and price protection. At the same time, higher medicines prices put a burden on the public. Therefore, governments need to balance short-term needs with long-term goals.

Question 54

54,"Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Protection of privacy is not just a right, but it has value to the economy. 2. There is a fundamental link between privacy and innovation. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","Passage-4",a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 54

54,c,Statement 1 is correct: The lines, “The ultimate control of data must reside with the individuals who generate it; they should be enabled to use, restrict or monetize it as they wish” highlights how privacy is a matter of right. Also, giving control over the monetization of this data indicates that privacy has an economic value as well. Statement 2 is correct: The line, “No one will innovate in a surveillance-oriented environment or in a place where an individual’s personal information is compromised” establishes a direct link between innovation and privacy. Innovation fosters an environment, where privacy is protected.

Question 55

55,"In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are 100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different ways. What is the value of n?","No Passage Provided",a) 16 b) 17 c) 23 d) 35

Answer 55

The total marks for the four papers is 400 (100 marks each for P, Q, R and S). If a student scores 99% in the examination, then the total marks scored by the student is 99% of 400 = 396 marks. Now, we need to find out the number of ways in which 396 can be expressed as a sum of four integers, each ranging from 0 to 100. The problem can be solved by considering all possible combinations and permutations of the scores in the four papers. 1. All four papers scored 99 marks each. This is one way. 2. Three papers scored 100 marks each and one paper scored 96 marks. This can happen in 4 ways (since the paper scoring 96 marks can be any one of the four papers). 3. Two papers scored 100 marks each, one paper scored 98 marks and one paper scored 98 marks. This can happen in 6 ways (since the two papers scoring 98 marks can be any two of the four papers). 4. Two papers scored 100 marks each, one paper scored 99 marks and one paper scored 97 marks. This can happen in 12 ways (since the two papers scoring 99 and 97 marks can be any two of the four papers). 5. One paper scored 100 marks, two papers scored 99 marks each and one paper scored 98 marks. This can happen in 12 ways (since the two papers scoring 99 marks and the paper scoring 98 marks can be any three of the four papers). So, the total number of ways is 1 + 4 + 6 + 12 + 12 = 35. Hence, the correct answer is (d) 35.

Question 56

56,A flag has to be designed with 4 horizontal strips using some or all of the colours red, green and yellow. What is the number of different ways in which this can be done so that no two adjacent stripes have the same colour?,a) 12,b) 18,c) 24,d) 36

Answer 56

56,c,Let's consider the possibilities for each stripe: For the first stripe, we have three colour options - (red, green, yellow). For the second stripe, we need to choose a colour different from the first stripe. So, we have two colour options. For the third stripe, we need to choose a colour different from the second stripe. So, we have two colour options. For the fourth stripe, we need to choose a colour different from the third stripe. So, we have two colour options. So, total number of possible ways to design the flag = 3 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 24

Question 58

58,There are five persons, P, Q, R, S and T each one of whom has to be assigned one task. Neither P nor Q can be assigned Task-1. Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. In how many ways can the assignment be done?,a) 6,b) 12,c) 18,d) 24

Answer 58

ask-1 cannot be assigned to P or Q. So, it can be assigned to R, S or T in 3 ways. Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. If Task-1 was assigned to R or S, then Task-2 can only be assigned to the remaining person. If Task-1 was assigned to T, then Task-2 can be assigned to either R or S. So, Task-2 can be assigned in 2 ways. The remaining 3 tasks can be assigned to the remaining 3 people in 3! = 6 ways. So, the total number of ways to assign the tasks is 3 * 2 * 6 = 24.

Question 59

59,There is large number of silver coins weighing 2gm, 5gm, 10gm, 25gm, 50gm each. Consider the following statements: 1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins. 2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can use less than 7 coins. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 59

Minimum Number of Coins to Buy 78 gm To buy 78 gm of coins, with the largest coin being 50 gm and the smallest coin being 2 gm, we need to find the minimum number of coins required. If we try to use only one of each coin weight, the sum would be: 50 + 10 + 10 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 78 So, using one coin of each weight, we need to buy 7 coins to get a total of 78 gm. To weigh 78 gm using these coins, one can use 5 coins of 50 gm, 25 gm, 10 gm, -5 gm, and -2 gm. This is done by placing the 50 gm, 25 gm, and 10 gm coins on one side of the balance and the -5 gm and -2 gm coins (which are actually 5 gm and 2 gm coins, but placed on the opposite side) on the other side. Therefore, both statements are correct. The answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Question 60

60,Consider the following: I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B. II. A – B means A is not greater than B. III A × B means A is not smaller than B. IV. A ÷ B means A is neither greater nor equal to B. V. A ± B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B. Statement: P × Q, P – T, T ÷ R, R ± S Conclusion-1: Q±T Conclusion-2: S+Q Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statement and the Conclusions?,a) Only Conclusion-1 follows from the Statement.,b) Only Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.,c) Both Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 follow from the Statement.,d) Neither Conclusion-1 nor Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.

Answer 60

60,b,According to the question, A + B means A > B A – B means A ≤ B A × B means A ≥ B A ÷ B means A < B A ± B means A = B It’s given that, P × Q, P – T, T ÷ R, R ± S Or P ≥ Q, P ≤ T, T < R, R = S Using this we get: S = R > T ≥ P ≥ Q Conclusion I: Q ± T or Q = T. This is not necessarily true. Conclusion II: S + Q or S > Q. This is true. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 61

61,Passage-1: Sourcing food from non-agricultural lands (uncultivated systems such as forests, wetlands, pastures, etc) in addition to agricultural lands enables a systemic approach to food consumption. It allows rural and tribal communities to sustain themselves for the whole year and steer clear of natural disasters and season-inducted shortfalls of agricultural food. Since the productivity of trees is often more resilient to adverse weather conditions than annual crops, forest foods often provide a safety net during periods of food shortages caused by crop failure; forest foods also make important contributions during seasonal crop production gaps. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational massage conveyed by the author of the passage?,a) Food yielding trees should replace other trees in rural and tribal areas and community owned lands.,b) Food security cannot be ensured in India with the present practice of conventional agriculture.,c) Wastelands and degraded areas in India should be converted into agroforestry systems to help the poor.,d) Agroecosystems should be developed in addition to or along with conventional agriculture.

Answer 61

61,d,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage talks about the significance of food from non-agricultural lands such as forests, peat lands, etc., in terms of ensuring food security during food shortages and production gaps and complementing the agricultural system. But it does not recommend replacing other trees with food-yielding trees. Option (b) is incorrect: Although the passage highlights the resilience of forest foods through the lines “Since the productivity of trees is often more resilient to adverse weather conditions.....forest food provides safety net…”, it does not mention that conventional agriculture on its own cannot ensure food safety. Option (c) is incorrect: The line “It allows rural and tribal communities to sustain themselves for the whole year and steer clear of natural disasters and season-induced shortfalls of agriculture food” indicates the vulnerability of Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI the rural and tribal communities. However, the passage nowhere mentions the conversion of wastelands and degraded areas to develop forests and help the poor. Option (d) is correct: The tribal and rural communities are vulnerable to food shortages due to crop failures and during seasonal production gaps as seen in the line “..forest food provides a safety net during periods of food shortages caused by crop failures; forest foods also make important contributions during seasonal crop production gaps.” The development of agro ecosystems along with conventional agriculture would reduce the vulnerability of these communities and ensure their food security.

Question 62

62,Passage-2: While awareness on use/misuse and abuse of antibiotics is common knowledge, as is the impact of dosing poultry with antibiotics, the environmental impact of antibiotics-manufacturing companies not treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far. Pollution from antibiotics factories is fuelling the rise of drug-resistant infections. The occurrence of drug-resistant bacteria surrounding the pharma manufacturing plants is well known. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and practical message Conveyed by the passage?,a) It is necessary to put proper effluent treatment protocols in place.,b) It is necessary to promote environmental awareness among people.,c) Spread of drug-resistant bacteria cannot be done away with, as it is inherent in modern medical care.,d) Pharma-manufacturing companies should be set up in remote rural areas, away from crowded towns and cities.

Answer 62

62,a,Option (a) is correct: The passage highlights the environmental impact of antibiotics manufacturing companies not treating their waste through the line “..the environmental impact of antibiotics- manufacturing companies not treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far. Pollution from antibiotics factories is fueling the rise of drug-resistant infections.” Therefore, the passage emphasizes the need for these companies to implement proper effluent treatment protocols to prevent pollution and minimize the spread of drug-resistant bacteria. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage specifically discusses the environmental impact of antibiotics manufacturing companies not treating their waste and how it contributes to the rise of drug-resistant infections. Therefore, promoting environmental awareness, although a good idea, alone may not directly address the issue at hand. Option (c) is incorrect: This is a pessimistic and broad statement that does not align with the main theme of the passage. Nowhere the passage mentions or suggests that it is not possible to control the spread of drug-resistant bacteria, although it may be challenging. Option (d) is incorrect: Although this statement presents a solution, it is not the most practical and logical solution conveyed by the passage. The passage primarily emphasizes the importance of proper waste treatment by antibiotics manufacturing companies to reduce pollution and the spread of drug- resistant bacteria in the line “Pollution from antibiotics factories is fueling the rise of drug-resistant infections”.

Question 63

63,Passage-3: Benefits of good quality school education accrue only when students complete and leave school after having acquired the gateway skills. Like one learns to walk before running, similarly one picks up advanced skills only after picking the basic foundational skills. The advent of the knowledge economy poses new challenges, and one of the severe consequences of having an uneducated workforce will be our inability to keep pace with the global economy. Without a strong learning foundation at the primary level, there can be no improvement in higher education or skill development. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?,a) To become a global power, India needs to invest in universal quality education.,b) India is unable to become a global power because it is not focusing or promoting knowledge economy.,c) Our education system should focus more on imparting skills during higher education.,d) Parents of many school children are illiterate and are unaware of the benefits of quality education

Answer 63

63,a,Option (a) is correct: The passage highlights the significance of quality education in imparting foundations skills, and its contribution to the knowledge economy through the lines “the advent of the knowledge economy poses new challenges, and one of the severe consequences of having an uneducated workforce will be our inability to keep pace with the global economy”. Thus the statement aligns with the message of the passage on the significance of quality education. Option (b) is incorrect: This statement is not supported by the passage directly. The passage only talks about the challenges posed by the knowledge economy. It does not explicitly state that India is not focusing on or promoting a knowledge economy. Option (c) is incorrect: The lines, “Like one learns to walk before running, similarly one picks up advanced skills only after picking the basic foundational skills.” and “Without a strong learning foundation at the primary level, there can be no improvement in higher education or skill development” clearly emphasize the importance of school education rather than the higher education. Option (d) is incorrect: This statement is beyond the scope of the passage, as the passage does not talk about the literacy and awareness of the parents anywhere.

Question 64

40 children are standing in a circle and one of 5 them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes on to child-2, child-2 passes on to child-4, child-4 passes on to child-7 and so on. After how many such changes (including child-1) will the ring be in the hands of child-1 again? (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17

Answer 64

Sequence of Passing the Ring The ring is passed in the following sequence: 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, 29, 37, 6, 16, 27, 39, 12, 26, 1. This sequence is formed by adding 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 to the position of the child respectively and taking modulo 40 (since there are 40 children in the circle). For example, the ring is initially with child-1. We add 1 to it and get 2. So, the ring is passed to child-2. Then we add 2 to 2 and get 4. So, the ring is passed to child-4. And so on. When we add 15 to 26, we get 41. But since there are only 40 children, we take modulo 40 to get 1. So, the ring is passed back to child-1. Therefore, the ring is back with child-1 after 15 changes. Hence, the correct answer is (b) 15. 40 children are standing in a circle

Question 65

65,What are the middle terms of the sequence Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W,…….,A?,a) H,b) I,c) J,d) M

Answer 65

65,b,The given sequence is: Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W, ……., A So, the number of terms in the given sequence = 2 + 3 + 4 + ….. + 27 = [27 (27 + 1)/2] – 1 = [27 × 28/2] – 1 = 378 – 1 = 377 So, the middle term is 378/2, i.e. 189th Now, 377 – (27 + 26 + 25 + 24 + 23 + 22 + 21 + 20) = 189 So, the 189th term must be I. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 66

66,Is p greater than q? Statement-1: p × q is greater than zero. Statement-2: p2 is greater than q2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer 66

66,d,Statement 1: (p × q) > 0 It means neither p nor q can be 0, and both of them must be positive, or both negative. Say, 2 × 3, or (- 2) × (-3) So, by using statement1 is alone we cannot determine whether p > q. So, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient. Statement 2: p2 > q2 But we do not know whether p and q are positive or negative. Say, 32 > 22, or (-3)2 > (-2)2 So, we cannot determine whether p > q. So, Statement 2 alone is not sufficient. Even by using both the statements together, we cannot determine whether p > q. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 67

67,Is (p + q- r) greater than (p – q + r), where p, q and r are integers? Statement-1: (p - q) is positive. Statement-2: (p-r) is negative. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Answer 67

67,c,Statement 1: (p - q) is positive. This is possible only when p > q Statement 2: (p - r) is negative. This is possible only when p < r Now, (p + q - r) – (p – q + r) = 2q – 2r So, we basically need to find out if q > r, or not. For this, we obviously have to use both the given statements. Using both of the statements, we get: r > p > q So, q < r It means that, (p + q - r) – (p – q + r) = 2q – 2r < 0 In other words, (p + q - r) is not greater than (p – q + r). Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 68

68,In a party, 75 persons took tea, 60 persons took coffee and 15 persons took both tea and coffee. No one taking milk takes tea. Each person takes at least one drink. Question: how many persons attended the party? Statement-1: 50 persons took milk. Statement-2: Number of persons who attended the party is five times the number of persons who took milk only. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer 68

68,a,In a party, 75 persons took tea, 60 persons took coffee and 15 persons took both tea and coffee. We can represent this information via a Venn diagram for better visualization. You may notice that the circles representing Tea and Milk are not overlapping. That’s because no one taking milk takes tea. We can further deduce the following information from the Venn diagram given above. So, the total number of persons that attended the party = 75 + 45 + y = 120 + y Now, let’s consider the given statements. Statement 1: 50 persons took milk. So, x + y = 50. But using this we cannot find out the total number of persons that attended the party, as we cannot find the value of y. So, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient. Statement 2: Number of persons who attended the party is five times the number of persons who took milk only. So, 120 + y = 5y Or 4y = 120 Or y = 30 So, the total number of persons that attended the party = 120 + y = 120 + 30 = 150 So, Statement 2 alone is sufficient. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 69

69,Consider a 3-digit number. Question: What is the number? Statement-1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits. Statement-2: The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the number. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer 69

69,d,Statement 1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits. If the 3-digit number is 123, 132, 213, 231, 312, or 321, then the sum of the digits of the number would be equal to the product of the digits. As, 1 + 2 + 3 = 1 × 2 × 3 Or 6 = 6 Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI So, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient. Statement2: The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the number. We can see that, 132/6 = 22, and 312/6 = 52 So, Statement 2 alone is not sufficient. Even after using both the statements together, we cannot determine a unique 3-digit number. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 70

70,For five children with ages a < b < c < d < e; any two successive ages differs by 2 years. Question: What is the age of the youngest child? Statement-1: The age of the eldest is 3 times the youngest. Statement-2: The average age of the children is 8 years Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statement together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer 70

70,b,Given: a < b < c < d < e Since, any two successive ages differ by 2 years, the ages can also be written as: a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6, a + 8 Statement 1: The age of the eldest is 3 times the youngest. So, a + 8 = 3a Or 2a = 8 Or a = 4 So, Statement 1 alone is sufficient. Statement 2: The average age of the children is 8 years. (a + a + 2 + a + 4 + a + 6 + a + 8) / 5 = 8 Or (5a + 20) / 5 = 8 Or 5a + 20 = 40 Or 5a = 20 Or a = 4 So, Statement 2 alone is sufficient. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 71

71,Passage-1: Scientist studied the vernal window – transition period from winter to the growing season. They found that warmer winters with less snow resulted in a longer lag time between spring events and a more protracted vernal window. This change in the spring timetable has ecological, social and economic consequences – for agriculture, fisheries and tourism. As the ice melts earlier, the birds don't return, causing a delay, or lengthening in springtime ecological events. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Global warming is causing spring to come early and for longer durations. 2. Early spring and longer period of spring is not good for bird populations. Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 71

Explanation – The passage does not make any assumptions about global warming causing spring to come early and for longer durations. It only discusses the effects of warmer winters with less snow, not the cause of these conditions. Therefore, assumption 1 is incorrect. Similarly, the passage does not explicitly state that early spring and longer periods of spring are not good for bird populations. It only mentions that birds do not return as early when ice melts earlier, causing a delay in springtime ecological events. This does not necessarily mean it is bad for the bird populations. Therefore, assumption 2 is also incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Question 72

72,A global analysis of nitrogen use efficiency–measure of the amount of nitrogen a plant takes in to grow versus what is left behind as pollution–says that using too much fertilizers will lead to increased pollution of waterways and the air. Currently, the global average for nitrogen use efficiency is approximately 0.4, meaning 40 per cent of the total nitrogen added to cropland goes into the harvested crop while 60 per cent is lost to the environment, says a study. More than half of the world's population is nourished by food grown with fertilizers containing synthetic nitrogen, which is needed to produce high crop yields. Plants take the nitrogen they need to grow, and the excess is left in the ground, water and air. This results in significant emissions of nitrous oxide, a potent greenhouse and ozone depleting gas, and other forms of nitrogen pollution, including eutrophication of lakes and rivers and contamination of river water. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message implied by the passage?,a) An enhanced efficiency of use of nitrogen is imperative for both food production and environment.,b) Production of synthetic nitrogen fertilizers cannot be stopped as it will adversely affect global food security.,c) Alternatives to crops that require excess of nitrogen should be identified and cultivated.,d) Conventional agriculture using synthetic fertilizers should be replaced with agroforestry, agro ecosystems and organic farming.

Answer 72

72,a,Option (a) is correct: The lines “Currently, the global average for nitrogen use efficiency is approximately 0.4, meaning 40 per cent of the total nitrogen added to cropland goes into the harvested crop while 60 per cent is lost to the environment, says a study….Plants take the nitrogen they need to grow, and the excess is left in the ground, water and air.” and “This results in significant emissions of nitrous oxide…and other forms of nitrogen pollution, … contamination of river water.” highlight the need of nitrogen for plant growth and the result of unused nitrogen on water and air. Thus, improving the nitrogen use efficiency can not only lead to better production but also to reduced pollution. Option (b) is incorrect: While the passage mentions, “more than half of the world's population is nourished by food grown with fertilizers containing synthetic nitrogen”, it does not state that the production of synthetic nitrogen fertilizers cannot be stopped. Option (c) is incorrect: The question is asking us to identify the most logical, rational and crucial message implied by the passage, rather than an inference or solution. The passage only talks about nitrogen use efficiency and the impact of excess nitrogen on the environment. It does not go beyond this to suggest that we must identify and cultivate crops that require excess nitrogen. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Option (d) is incorrect: These alternatives may have their merits, but the passage only highlights the environmental consequences of excessive nitrogen use and pollution caused by synthetic nitrogen fertilizers. It does not explicitly advocate replacing conventional agriculture using synthetic fertilizers with specific alternatives such as agroforestry, agro ecosystems, and organic farming.

Question 73

73,Along with sustainable lifestyles, climate justice is regarded as a significant principle in environmental parlance. Both the principles have bearings on political and economic choices of the nation. So far, in our climate change summits or compacts, both the principles have eluded consensus among nations. Justice, in the judicial sense, is well defined. However, in the context of climate change, it has scientific as well as socio-political connotations. The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources, technologies and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change. Justice in climate is not confined to actions relating to mitigation, but includes the wider notion of support for adaptation to climate change and compensation for loss and damage. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage?,a) Climate justice should be ingrained in detail in the rules of all the new climate compacts/agreements.,b) Environmental resources are unevenly distributed and exploited across the globe.,c) There is an impending issue of dealing with a huge number of climate change victims/climate refugees.,d) Climate changes in all its connotations are mostly due to developed countries and therefore their share of burden should be more.

Answer 73

73,a,Option (a) is correct: The line “The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources, technologies, and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change.” highlights the need for climate justice. To achieve it, it is imperative that climate justice is ingrained in detail in the rules of all the new climate compacts/agreements. Hence this option seems to be the logical, rational, and crucial message conveyed by the passage. Option (b) is incorrect: This statement goes beyond the scope of the passage, which primarily focuses on climate justice rather than the distribution and exploitation of environmental resources. Option (c) is incorrect: While the passage mentions the crucial question of how resources, technologies, and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change, it does not specifically address the impending issue of dealing with a huge number of climate change victims or climate refugees. Thus, this option is beyond the scope of the passage Option (d) is incorrect: Although the passage recommends compensation loss and damages, it does not mention that climate change is mostly due to developed countries or that their share of the burden should be more. Thus this option goes beyond the scope of the passage.

Question 74

74,A principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of Interest. If the same principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual rate of interest, then which one of the following is correct?,a) R = S,b) R > S,c) R < S,d) R ≤ S

Answer 74

74,c,Principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of interest. Principal = P, Amount = Q, Rate = R%, Time = 1 year Q = P [1 + R/(2×100)]2 Q/P = [1 + R/(2×100)]2 …………. (1) Principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual rate of interest. Q = P [1 + S/(100)]1 Q/P = [1 + S/(100)]1 …………. (2) From equation (1) and equation (2), we get: [1 + R/(2×100)]2 = [1 + S/(100)]1 …………. (3) Let R = 20%. Putting the value of R = 20 in equation (3), we get: [1 + 20/(2×100)]2 = [1 + S/(100)]1 Or 1.21 = 1 + (S/100) Or S/100 = 1.21 – 1 = 0.21 Or S = 0.21 × 100 = 21% Thus, S > R. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 75

75,How many natural numbers are there which given a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers?,a) 6,b) 7,c) 8,d) 9

Answer 75

The remainder when a number is divided by another number is the difference between the dividend and the largest multiple of the divisor that is less than or equal to the dividend. In this case, we are given that the remainder is 31 when 1186 is divided by a certain number. This means that the number we are looking for must be a divisor of (1186 – 31) = 1155. The divisors of 1155 are 1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 15, 21, 33, 35, 55, 77, 105, 165, 231, 385, 1155. However, since the remainder is 31, the divisor must be greater than 31. So, the possible numbers are 33, 35, 55, 77, 105, 165, 231, 385, 1155. Hence, there are 9 such natural numbers. So, the correct answer is (d) 9.

Question 76

76,Let pp, qq and rr be 2 digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp + qq + rr =tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, consider the following statements: 1. The number of possible values of p is 5. 2. The number of possible values of q is 6 Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 76

76,c,tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, such that pp + qq + rr = tt0 As pp, qq, and rr are 2-digit numbers, the value of tt0 can be either 110 or 220. Thus, we get: If tt0 = 110 pp + qq + rr = 110 or (10p + p) + (10q + q) + (10r + r) = 110 or 11p + 11q + 11r = 110 or p + q + r = 10 ……. (1) If tt0 = 220 pp + qq + rr = 220 or (10p + p) + (10q + q) + (10r + r) = 220 or 11p + 11q + 11r = 220 or p + q + r = 20 ……. (2) Statement 1: As p < q < r, the possible value of p in equation (1) can be 1 and 2. As p < q < r, the possible value of p in equation (2) can be 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Hence, the number of possible values of p is 5. Thus, Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2: As p < q < r, the possible value of q in equation (1) can be 2, 3 and 4. As p < q < r, the possible value of q in equation (2) can be 6, 7 and 8. Hence, the number of possible values of q is 6. Thus, Statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 77

77,What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated?,a) 7998,b) 8028,c) 8878,d) 9238

Answer 77

77,a,4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated are: 1234, 1243, 1324, 1342, 1423, 1432 Required sum = 1234 + 1243 + 1324 + 1342 + 1423 + 1432 = 7998 Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 78

78,What is the number of selections of 10 consecutive things out of 12 things in a circle taken in the clockwise direction?,a) 3,b) 11,c) 12,d) 66

Answer 78

78,c,Let 12 consecutive things in the circle be x1, x2, x3, …….. x12. We need to select 10 consecutive things out of these 12 things in the circle taken in the clockwise direction. This selection can be made as follows: (x1 to x10), (x2 to x11), (x3 to x12), (x4 to x1), (x5 to x2), (x6 to x3), (x7 to x4), (x8 to x5), (x9 to x6), (x10 to x7), (x11 to x8), (x12 to x9) So, there are 12 possible ways to do so. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 79

79,If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 1010 th day?,a) Wednesday,b) Thursday,c) Friday,d) Saturday

Answer 79

79,b,1010 = 10000000000 Number of odd days in 1010 = Remainder [10000000000/7] = 4 If today is Sunday, then 1010 th day from now will be 4 days after Sunday, i.e. Thursday. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 80

80,There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from red to green. The first signal takes 25 seconds, the second signal takes 39 seconds and the third signal takes 60 seconds to change the colour from green to red. The durations for green and red colours are same. At 2:00 p.m, they together turn green. At what time will they change to green next, Simultaneously?,(a) 4:00 p.m.,(b) 4:10 p.m.,(c) 4:20 p.m.,(d) 4:30 p.m.

Answer 80

80,b,The three traffic signals turn from green to red at an interval of 25 seconds, 39 seconds and 60 seconds. So, the time after which all the three traffic signals will turn red from green together = LCM of 25 Seconds, 39 seconds and 60 seconds = 3900 seconds = 65 minutes = 1 hour 5 minutes Now, durations for green and red colours are same. So, the time after which all the three traffic signals will turn green from red together = 1 hour 5 minutes So, the total time taken by all the three traffic signals to turn green together = 1 hour 5 minutes + 1 hour 5 minutes = 2 hours 10 minutes Thus, the time after which all the three traffic signals will simultaneously change to green again = 2:00 p.m. + 2 hours 10 minutes = 4:10 p.m. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 81

1,Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following? 1. Heavy dependence on fossil fuels 2. Limited availability of resources 3. Expansion of recycling Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 81

1,a,"Statement 1 is correct: The passage directly mentions, “the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels.” Therefore, heavy dependence on fossil fuels is a reason, as per the author, for the unsustainability of production patterns. Statement 2 is correct: Again, the author directly states, “the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. “. Therefore, this statement is correct as well. Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage states that “Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by expanding recycling”. This means that some countries are trying to reduce the effects of unsustainable production via recycling and other methods. Therefore, recycling would reduce the unsustainability in production patterns rather than aggravate it."

Question 82

2,Consider the following statements: Developed countries can support developing countries' transition to sustainable human development by: 1. making clean energy sources available at low cost 2. providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates 3. encouraging them to change their production and consumption patterns Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2 only,c) 2 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 82

2,B","Statement 1 is correct: The author mentions high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Immediately after that, he states that “Developed countries need to support developing countries' transition to sustainable human development”. Therefore, the first statement is correct and it directly follows the assertion made. Explanation for Statement 2: Whether this statement is correct or incorrect depends upon whether we opt for a narrow or broader interpretation of the passage. The passage mentions, “But most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources.” Therefore, it seems that the author is only focusing on issues related to high costs and low availability of clean energy sources as hindrances for developed countries in transitioning towards sustainable human development. However, (taking a broader view) the question does mention “can”- and providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates is certainly one way where developed countries can help developing countries especially to alleviate the worst effects of unsustainable development. Explanation for Statement 3: Likewise, this statement would be incorrect if we take a narrow interpretation of the passage, as it specifically mentions high costs and low availability of clean energy sources as hindrances for developed countries in transitioning towards sustainable human development. But again, the question states “can” and encouragement (via finance etc.) to change production and consumption patterns is certainly an area where developed countries could support the developing"

Question 83

3,According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to which of the following? 1. Depletion of soil resource 2. Shortage of land for the common man 3. Lack of water for cultivation Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 83

3,c,"Statement 1 is correct: The passage mentions, “The desert countries of the world and our own desert areas in Rajasthan are a grim reminder of the consequences of largescale deforestation. Pockets of desert-like landscape are now appearing in other parts of the country including the Sutlej-Ganga Plains and Deccan Plateau. Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season.”. This supports the assertion of the author that deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to the depletion of soil resources. Statement 2 is incorrect: This statement goes beyond the scope of the passage. The passage nowhere mentions anything related to the common man. Statement 3 is correct: This is supported by the part in the passage which mentions, “the harshness of the climatic conditions” and “Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season”."

Question 84

4,What is the value of x in the sequence 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X?,a) 105,b) 120,c) 150,d) 225

Answer 84

4,d,"The given series is: 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X? The terms are decreasing in the initial half, and then they start increasing. The speed at which they increase at the latter half suggest that multiplication may be involved. The pattern is as follows: 20 × 0.5 = 10 10 × 1 = 10 10 × 1.5 = 15 15 × 2 = 30 30 × 2.5 = 75 75 × 3 = 225"

Question 85

5,An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2. Which of the following is a possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number?,a) 8,b) 9,c) 11,d) 12

Answer 85

5,a,"The number has 7 digits, and has been denoted by: ABCDEFG These letters can be replaced by 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, not necessarily in the same order. We have to find the possible value of C + D + E The original number (ABCDEFG) is divisible by 9. It has to be as 1 + 2 + 4 + 5 + 7 + 8 + 9 = 36, which is divisible by 9. This information is utterly useless. After deleting 1 digit from the right, the resulting number (ABCDEF) is divisible by 6. It means that, F = 2, 4 or 8 (i.e. an even number). Also, if even after removing G, the remaining number is divisible by 3, then it means G = 9. After deleting 3 digits from the right, the resulting number (ABCD) is divisible by 4. But it may be useful if we want to know the entire number. The only odd number remaining is 7. So, A = 7. So, the ABC is actually 7B1. B can be 4 or 8. But for 7B1 to be divisible by 3, B must be 4. So, F = 8. So, the seven-digit number is 7412589."

Question 86

6,Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40 m. Then X turns left and runs 50 m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and then stops. How far are the two friends from each other now?,a) 100 m,b) 90 m,c) 60 m,d) 50 m

Answer 86

6,a,"The path taken by them has been represented below: It’s pretty clear that they are 40 + 60 = 100 m apart at the end of their run."

Question 87

7,Which date of June 2099 among the following is Sunday?,a) 4,b) 5,c) 6,d) 7

Answer 87

7,d,"We know that 1st January, 2001 was a Monday. (Just like 1st January, 1601, or 1st January, 1201, i.e. every 400 years). In 100 years from 1st January, 2001 to 31st December, 2100, there will be 24 leap years (as 2100 is not a leap year). So, the number of odd days from 1st January, 2001 to 31st December, 2100 = (24 × 2) + 76 = 48 + 76 = 124 = 5 odd days. (every leap year has 2 odd days, and every non-leap year has 1 odd day) So, the day on 1st January, 2101 must be Monday + 5 = Saturday. So, the day on 1st January, 2100 must be Saturday – 1 = Friday (there is 1 odd day in any non-leap year) So, the day on 1st January, 2099 must be Friday – 1 = Thursday (there is 1 odd day in any non-leap year) The number of odd days in the year 2099 are: January – 3; February – 0; March – 3; April – 2; May – 3; So, the number of odd days from 1st January, 2099 to 31st May, 2099 = 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 = 11 = 4 So, the day on 1st June, 2099 must be Thursday + 4 = Monday So, the first Sunday in the month of June, 2099 will fall on 7th."

Question 88

8,A bill for Rs 1,840 is paid in the denominations of Rs 50, Rs 20 and Rs 10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements: 1. 25 notes of Rs 50 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs 20 and Rs10. 2. 35 notes of Rs20 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs50 and Rs10. 3. 20 notes of 10 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of 50 and 20. Which of the above statements are not correct?,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 88

8,d,"Total amount = Rs. 1840 Let the number of Rs. 50, Rs. 20, and Rs. 10 notes be a, b and c respectively. Now, let’s check the statements. Statement 1: 25 notes of Rs. 50 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (25 × 50) = 1840 – 1250 = Rs. 590. Even if all the remaining 25 notes are of Rs. 20 denomination, we will only get Rs. 500. So, Statement 1 is definitely incorrect. Statement 2: 35 notes of Rs. 20 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (35 × 20) = 1840 – 700 = Rs. 1140. Even if all the remaining 15 notes are of Rs. 50 denomination, we will only get Rs. 750. So, Statement 2 is definitely incorrect. Statement 3: 20 notes of Rs. 10 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (20 × 10) = 1840 – 200 = Rs. 1640. Even if all the remaining 30 notes are of Rs. 50 denomination, we will only get Rs. 1500. So, Statement 3 is definitely incorrect."

Question 89

9,Which number amongst 2^40, 3^21, 4^18 and 8^12 is the smallest?,a) 2^40,b) 3^21,c) 4^18,d) 8^12

Answer 89

9,b,"The given numbers are: 2 40 3 21 , 4 18, and 8 12 . We can also write them as 2 40 , 3 21 , 2 36, and 2 36. (as 4 = 2 2 , and 8 = 2 3 ) So, we basically need to find the smallest one from among 2 36., and 3 21. As we cannot have two correct answers, it must be 3 21 . Note: Sometimes, in Aptitude exams you need not even solve the entire question. This saves you some extra seconds and it eventually makes all the difference. But if you are a typical maths student, this incomplete answer may cause you to feel a mild Zeigarnik effect. So, here’s the rest of the solution: We can rewrite 2 40 and 3 21 as: 212 and 37 4096 > 2187 Hence, 3 21 is the smallest number."

Question 90

10,The digits 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row, Repetition of digits is not allowed. If only three of the four digits 2, 3, 7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many such combinations are possible to be arranged in the three rows?,a) 4,b) 3,c) 2,d) 1

Answer 90

10,c,Correct,"We can only use three of the four digits – 2, 3, 7, and 9, in the first row. The first digit in the first row cannot be 7 or 9, as otherwise thrice the number will not be a three-digit number. So, the first digit in the first row can either be 2, or 3. The possible cases are: 237, 273, 239, 293, 279, 297, 327, 372, 329, 392, 379, or 397. On eliminating the numbers whose 3x is not a three-digit number, we are left with: 237, 273, 239, 293, 279, 297, 327, and 329. We will check these numbers: 237 × 2 =474 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 273 × 2 = 546; 273 × 3 = 819 239 × 2 = 478; 239 × 3 = 717 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 293 × 2 = 586; 293 × 3 = 879 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 279 × 2 = 558 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 297 × 2 = 594 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 327 × 2 = 654; 327 × 3 = 981 329× 2 = 658; 329× 3 = 987 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) So, only two cases are possible."

Question 91

11,Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?,a) We assume that in a democracy, any politician is qualified to administer a State.,b) Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration.,c) We need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office.,d) As voters select their administrators, the eligibility of politicians to administer a State cannot be questioned.

Answer 91

c

Question 92

12,Why is the methodology adopted in India to count the poor' debatable?,a) There is some confusion regarding what should constitute the poverty line'.,b) There are wide diversities in the condition of the rural and urban poor.,c) There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty.,d) (b) It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.

Answer 92

12,d,Correct,"Option (a) is incorrect: There is no “confusion” regarding the methodology or classification- the author does not mention anything as a confusion. (S)he only states that the current methods of estimating poverty are narrow, i.e. inadequate. (S)he tries to convey that poverty goes beyond income and purchasing power- it is about restricted choices and lack of real opportunity. Option (b) is incorrect: The assertion made in this option goes beyond the scope of the passage. In fact, there is no talk of the rural or urban poor in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: This option also goes beyond the scope of the passage. No line in the passage leads to the assumption that “There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty.” Option (d) is correct: This is the main message being stressed by the author, who explains through the various lines of the passage that measuring poverty through the lens of income or purchasing power (buying capacity) is only a narrow way of looking at poverty. We must look at other factors that restrict choices and opportunities for individuals, income being just one part of it. Various lines in the passage indicate the same- For example, “extremely narrow definition of 'who is poor' and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power.”"

Question 93

13,Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the poor'?,a) It talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others.,b) Other deprivations in a human life have nothing to do with lack of purchasing power.,c) Income poverty is not a permanent condition, it changes from time to time.,d) Income poverty restricts human choices only at a point of time.

Answer 93

13,a,Correct,"Option (a) is correct: This option follows from the lines, “income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it.” The author, in the passage, later goes on to describe poverty, in the true sense, stems from a “lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances–to choose other types of living.” Option (b) is incorrect: This option is rather extreme and goes beyond the scope of the passage. Nothing in the passage talks about the factors affecting the purchasing power of a person. Option (c) is incorrect: This option is beyond the scope of the passage. There is no mention in the passage of income being a temporary or permanent condition. Option (d) is incorrect as the passage does not lay out a time consideration (i.e. when does income poverty affect human choices by restricting them- whether only at a point of time or always, till such poverty exists) anywhere while suggesting how income poverty affects or restricts human choices."

Question 94

14,What does the author mean by 'poverty of a life'?,a) All deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but lack of real opportunities,b) Impoverished state of poor people in rural and urban areas,c) Missed opportunities in diverse personal circumstances,d) Material as well as non-material deprivations in a human life which restrict human choices permanently

Answer 94

14,a,Correct,"Option (a) is correct: This option is the best answer. Although the phrase, “all deprivations” might seem extreme, the author does make a case for deprivations stemming from lack of choices (real opportunities), rather than solely income. Option (b) is incorrect: The option goes beyond the scope of the passage as there is no mention of rural versus urban poor in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: The option also goes beyond the scope of the passage. There is no mention of diverse personal circumstances and missed opportunities therein. The author refers to the lack of opportunities rather than missed ones. Option (d) is incorrect: This option states, ‘restricting human choices permanently’. This cannot be assumed. (In fact, the very purpose of discussing poverty and poverty estimations is the hope of reversing the condition of lack of choices and opportunities). So, the use of the phrase ‘permanently’ is incorrect here. No deprivation, material or non-material, restricts choice permanently. In fact, there are many rags to riches stories in the world to deny this."

Question 95

15, X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)?,a) 2,b) 3,c) 4,d) 5

Answer 95

15,b,Correct,"The faster runner will cross the slower one when he covers an extra 300 m. Let their speeds be 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec. So, their relative speed = 3 – 2 = 1 m/sec So, the time taken by the faster runner to cross the slower one = Distance/Relative Speed = 300/1 = 300 seconds It basically means that the faster runner will cross the slower one every 300 seconds, or 5 minutes. Now, the time taken for the faster racer to complete the entire race = Total Distance/Speed = 3000/3 = 1000 seconds. So, the faster racer will cross the slower one 3 times during the entire race – after 300 seconds, 600 seconds, and 900 seconds."

Question 96

16, If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which one of the following represents LUCKNOW?,a) OGXPMLD,b) OGXQMLE,c) OFXPMLE,d) OFXPMLD

Answer 96

16,d,Correct,"We basically need to find the opposite letter of the letters in the given word. Opposite Letter Position = 27 – Letter Position So, in case of LUCKNOW, we get: 27 – 12 = 15 = O 27 – 21 = 6 = F 27 – 3 = 24 = X 27 – 11 = 16 = P 27 – 14 = 13 = M 27 – 15 = 12 = L 27 – 23 = 4 = D The word that we get is OFXPMLD."

Question 97

17, In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?,a) 151,b) 150,c) 149,d) 148

Answer 97

17,c,Correct,"The tournament starts with 150 players. After first round (in which 75 matches are held): 75 players are eliminated, and 75 remain. After second round (in which 37 matches are held): 37 players are eliminated, and 38 remain. After third round (in which 19 matches are held): 19 players are eliminated, and 19 remain. After fourth round (in which 9 matches are held): 9 players are eliminated, and 10 remain. After fifth round (in which 5 matches are held): 5 players are eliminated, and 5 remain. After sixth round (in which 2 matches are held): 2 players are eliminated, and 3 remain. After seventh round (in which 1 match is held): 1 player is eliminated, and 2 remain. After eighth round (in which 1 match is held): 1 player is eliminated, and 1 remain. So, total number of matches = 75 + 37 + 19 + 9 + 5 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 149"

Question 98

18, How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5?,a) 8,b) 12,c) 16,d) 24

Answer 98

18,b,Correct,"We need to find three-digit numbers in which: * All digits are different, and all digits are odd. So, the three digits must be from amongst 1, 3, 5, 7, and 9. * The number is divisible by 5, i.e. the units digit is 5. The number of ways we can fill the first two digits from amongst 4 distinct digits = 4 × 3 = 12."

Question 99

19, Consider the Question Statements given below: Question : Is x an integer? Statement-1 : x/3 is not an integer. Statement-2 : 3x is an integer. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement and statement-2 are sufficient to answer the question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the question

Answer 99

Correct Answer: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper Explanation : Is x an integer? To determine whether x is an integer, we have two statements: Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer. Statement-2: 3x is an integer. Let’s consider each statement separately: Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer. This statement tells us that x cannot be evenly divided by 3, but it does not give us any information about whether x is an integer or not. For example, x could be 2/3, which is not an integer, but it could also be 4, which is an integer. Therefore, Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Statement-2: 3x is an integer. This statement tells us that 3x can be divided evenly by an integer, which means x could be an integer or a fraction that is a multiple of 1/3. For example, if 3x = 6, then x = 2, which is an integer. However, if 3x = 2, then x = 2/3, which is not an integer. Therefore, Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Since neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question, we need to consider both statements together. We know from Statement-1 that x cannot be evenly divided by 3, and from Statement-2, we know that 3x is an integer. Combining these two statements, we can conclude that x must be a fraction that is a multiple of 1/3. For example, if 3x = 6, then x = 2, which is an integer. But if 3x = 2, then x = 2/3, which is not an integer. Therefore, both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question. The correct answer is (d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Question 100

20, The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price?,a) 5%,b) 10%,c) 12.5%,d) 15%

Answer 100

20,b,Correct,"Let the initial price be Rs. 100. After 25% rise, the new price = 100 + 25% of 100 = Rs. 125 After 20% fall, the new price = 125 – 20% of 125 = Rs. 100 After 10% rise, the new price = 100 + 10% of 100 = Rs. 110 So, resultant percentage increase in price = 10%"

Question 101

21, Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Development of agricultural technology is confined to developed countries. 2. Agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 101

21,d,Correct,"Assumption 1 is invalid: The passage mentions, “Application of technology…Americas”. This does not mean that technological development in agriculture is confined to the West. Focus on the use of the word “much” here. From this, we can infer that the West holds a major share of technological development in agriculture, but it does not imply “no technological development (of agriculture) in the developed countries”. (Here, we can assume the West/ Americas synonymous with the developed world, as the author makes a contrast with developing countries in later lines- “In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification, extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity.”) Assumption 2 is invalid: The author only makes a caution about blindly copying and deploying the technologies of the West with respect to their suitability in different climatic regions of the Tropics. He makes a case, instead, for investing in more achievable things such as optimal fertilizer application and better infrastructure. However, this does not imply that agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries at all. Also, this assumption does not state agricultural technology developed in the western world- It refers to agricultural technology in general."

Question 102

22, Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Poor countries need to bring about change in their existing farming techniques. 2. Developed countries have better infrastructure and they waste less food. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 102

22,a,Partially correct,"Assumption 1 is correct: The passage indeed emphasizes the need to adapt agricultural practices, including the latest advances, to improve farming techniques. However, it does not explicitly mention poor countries or developed countries; rather, it discusses the developing world. Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage does not discuss infrastructure or food wastage in developed countries. The comparison made in the passage is between developed and developing countries regarding agricultural technology.",

Question 103

23, Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge. 2. Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 103

23,d,Incorrect,"Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage discusses the problem of agricultural practices and suggests solutions, but it does not explicitly state that ensuring food for future generations would be a challenge. Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about corporate farming.",

Question 104

24, The letters A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E. How many such arrangements are possible?,a) 12,b) 18,c) 24,d) 36

Answer 104

Correct Answer: c. 24 Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper Explanation : Letters A B C D and E are arranged The problem asks for the number of arrangements of the letters A, B, C, D and E such that there are exactly two letters between A and E. There are four possible arrangements for A and E: A _ _ E _, _ A _ _ E, E _ _ A _, and _ E _ _ A. For each of these arrangements, there are 3! = 6 ways to arrange the remaining letters B, C and D. So the total number of arrangements is 4 * 6 = 24.

Question 105

25, Consider the question Statements given below: Question :is Z brother of X? Statement-1 : X in a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z. Statement-2 : X, Y and Z are siblings. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement and statement-2 are sufficient to answer the question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the question

Answer 105

25,d,Correct,"The explanation correctly analyzes each statement and concludes that even when combined, they do not provide enough information to determine the gender of Z.",

Question 106

26, On one side of a 1.01 km long road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other. What the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?,a) 40,b) 40.4 m,c) 50 m,d) 50.5 mm

Answer 106

26,b,Correct,"The explanation correctly calculates the required distance based on the given information.",

Question 107

27, A, B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B to C and three different roads from A to C. In how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these roads?,a) 10,b) 13,c) 15,d) 36

Answer 107

27,c,Correct,"The explanation correctly calculates the total number of ways to go from A to C via B based on the principle of multiplication.",

Question 108

28, A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2 more to C. C gives half of the coins and 2 more to D. The number of coins D has now, is the smallest two digit number. How many coins does A have in the beginning?,a) 76,b) 68,c) 60,d) 52

Answer 108

28,d,Correct,"The explanation correctly calculates the initial number of coins A had based on the given information.",

Question 109

29, In the series AABABCABCDABCDE... which letter appears at the 100th place?,a) G,b) H,c) I,d) J

Answer 109

Given Series = A (1 Letter) AB (2 Letters) ABC (3 Letters) ABCD (4 Letters) ABCDE (5 Letters) …… so on up to 100th letter. Sum of first 13 natural numbers = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 ….. 13 = n(n+1)/2 = 13×14/2 = 91. So, if we have to count upto 100th letter, in the last string (100 – 91) = 9 letters would be there. Which would be – ABCDEFGHI. So I is the correct answer.

Question 110

30, Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue not necessarily in the same order. There are 4 persons between A and B, and 7 persons between B and C. If there are 11 persons ahead of C and 13 behind A, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?,a) 22,b) 28,c) 32,d) 38

Answer 110

30,a,Correct,"The explanation correctly analyzes the cases and determines the minimum possible number of people in the queue based on the given information.",

Question 111

31, According to the passage, natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth as 1. species not fully prepared to face the environmental changes that await them will face extinction 2. all the existing species would get extinct as their genomes will not withstand biological mishaps 3. inability of the genome to withstand environmental changes would result in extinction 4. extinction of species is a common feature Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1, 2 and 3,b) 2, 3 and 4,c) 1, 3 and 4,d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer 111

31,c,Partially correct,"Statement 1 is correct: It aligns with the passage's discussion on natural selection and species extinction. Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that all existing species are at risk of extinction; it specifically mentions those unable to adapt. Statement 3 is correct: It aligns with the passage's discussion on genetic factors contributing to extinction. Statement 4 is correct: It aligns with the passage's statement on extinction being a major feature of biological evolution. However, the passage's statement regarding the survival of some species implies that not all existing species are at risk of extinction, contrary to what Statement 2 suggests."

Question 112

32, The passage suggests that Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because a) it does not satisfy the creationist doctrine b) extinction is a function of environment and biological assaults c) there are no evidences to refute it d) existence of organisms is attributed to a creator

Answer 112

32,c,Correct,"Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not aim to undermine the validity of the creationist doctrine; it simply explains the mechanism of evolution. Option (b) is incorrect: While extinction is discussed in the passage, it is not presented as the reason why the Darwinian theory is not a theory. Option (c) is correct: The passage establishes that the Darwinian theory of evolution is supported by scientific data and has not been refuted, enhancing its credibility. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does suggest that creationist doctrines fail to explain evolution, but it does not specifically state that they fail to explain the existence of organisms.",

Question 113

33, With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Only species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate. 2. More than 90% of the species on the earth are in the danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment. 3. Darwin's theory explains all the natural phenomena. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2 only,c) 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 113

33,a,Correct,"Statement 1 is correct: It aligns with the passage's discussion on extinction driven by non-adaptation to environmental challenges. Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not predict future extinction probabilities; it only discusses past extinction rates. Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that Darwin's theory explains all natural phenomena; it specifically discusses its applicability to evolution.",

Question 114

34, Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?,a) People should be persuaded to continue with the mainly Indian traditional cereal-based diets.,b) India needs to focus on developing agricultural productivity and capacity for more energy generation in the coming years.,c) Modern technological developments result in the change of cultural and social behavior of the people.,d) Water management practices in India need to change dramatically in the coming years.

Answer 114

34,d,Correct,"Option (d) is the best choice as it reflects the primary concern highlighted in the passage regarding the dramatic increase in water consumption associated with modern dietary patterns.",

Question 115

35, How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes and X seconds?,a) 11580x,b) 11581x,c) 694860x,d) 694861x

Answer 115

35,d,Correct,"The explanation correctly converts the time units and calculates the total time in seconds based on the given information.",

Question 116

36, P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. R is the spouse of Q. U is the mother of T and S is the daughter of U. P's daughter is T and R's son is P. There are two couples in the family. Which one of the following is correct?,a) Q is the grandfather of T,b) Q is the grandmother of T,c) R is the mother of P,d) T is the granddaughter of Q

Answer 116

36,d,Correct,"The family tree correctly identifies T as the granddaughter of Q based on the given information.",

Question 117

37, Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P, Q and R in a State : Question: How far is city P from city Q? Statement-1: City Q is 18 km from city R. Statement-2 : City P is 43 km from city R. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Answer 117

37,d,Incorrect,"As we do not know the respective positions of P and Q, we cannot find the distance between them, even after using the information in both the statements.",

Question 118

38, Two Statements followed by four Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/ follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts : Statement-1: All pens are books. Statement-2 :No chair is a pen. Conclusion-I : All chairs are books. Conclusion-II : Some chairs are pens. Conclusion-III : All books are chairs. Conclusion-IV : No chair is a book. Which one of the following is correct?,a) Only Conclusion-I,b) Only Conclusion-II,c) Both Conclusion-III and Conclusion-IV,d) None of the Conclusions follows

Answer 118

38,d,Incorrect,"The possible Venn diagrams do not support any of the conclusions.",

Question 119

39, Three Statements followed by three Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/ follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts: Statement-1 : Some doctors are teachers. Statement-2 : All teachers are engineers. Statement-3 : All engineers are scientists. Conclusion-1 : Some scientists are doctors. Conclusion-II : All engineers are doctors. Conclusion-III : Some engineers are doctors. Which one of the following is correct?,a) Only Conclusion-I,b) Only Conclusion-II,c) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-III,d) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II

Answer 119

39,c,Correct,"The possible Venn diagrams support conclusions I and III.",

Question 120

40, Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre of the table, not necessarily in the same order. B and D sit neither adjacent to C nor opposite to C. A sits in between E and D, and F sits in between B and H. Which one of the following is definitely correct?,a) B sits in between A and G,b) C sits opposite to G,c) E sits opposite to F,d) None of the above

Answer 120

40,d,Incorrect,"None of the given options are definitely correct based on the possible circular arrangements depicted.",

Question 121

41, The passage is based on the idea that,a) man should not work hard,b) the great evil of our age is overstrain,c) man cannot think well,d) man cannot care for his spiritual welfare

Answer 121

41,b,Correct,"Option (b) correctly identifies the central idea of the passage, which highlights the issue of overstrained labor and limited leisure time for spiritual and intellectual pursuits.",

Question 122

42, Man does not seek self-improvement because he,a) is not intellectually capable,b) has no time to do so,c) is distracted by materialism,d) loves amusement and is mentally idle

Answer 122

D.

Question 123

43, Which of the following would invariably happen in a country, when the demographic dividend has begun to operate? 1. The number of illiterate people will decrease. 2. The ratio of very old and very young will decrease for a while. 3. Population growth rate will quickly stabilize. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 123

43,b,Correct,"Statement 2 correctly identifies the relationship between demographic dividend and the ratio of very young and very old populations, as discussed in the passage.",

Question 124

44, With reference to the passage, which of the following inferences can be drawn? 1. Demographic dividend is an essential condition for a country to rapidly increase its economic growth rate. 2. Promotion of higher education is an essential condition for a country for its rapid economic growth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 124

44,d,Incorrect,"Both statements are incorrect. The passage discusses the advantages of demographic dividend and the importance of education for economic growth but does not explicitly state that demographic dividend or higher education is essential for economic growth.",

Question 125

45, Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below: 1. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did. 2. P and Q together purchased 21 notebooks. 3. Q purchased 5 notebooks less than P did. 4. X and Y together purchased 28 notebooks. 5. P purchased 5 notebooks more than X did. If each notebook is priced 40, then what is the total cost of all the notebooks?,a) 2,600,b) 2,400,c) 2,360,d) 2,320

Answer 125

45,a,Correct,"The solution correctly calculates the total cost of all the notebooks based on the given information.",

Question 126

46, A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is,a) 10 minutes slow,b) 5 minutes slow,c) 10 minutes fast,d) 5 minutes fast

Answer 126

46,d,Correct,"The solution accurately calculates the actual time based on the given information about the man's travel time and the difference between the village clock and the actual time.",

Question 127

47, A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. What is the minimum number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one gets is an even number?,a) 147,b) 150,c) 294,d) 300

Answer 127

Correct Answer: c. 294 Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper Explanation : Person X wants to distribute some pens. Let the number of pens received by B, C, D, E, and F be represented by b, c, d, e, and f respectively. According to the problem, A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E, and six times that of F. We can write these relationships as: A = 2b A = 3c A = 4d A = 5e A = 6f Now, we want to find the minimum number of pens X should buy so that each child gets an even number of pens. To do this, we can find the least common multiple (LCM) of 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. The LCM is the smallest number that is a multiple of all these numbers. LCM(2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60 So, A must receive at least 60 pens to satisfy the conditions. Using the relationships above, we can find the number of pens for each child: A = 60 B = A/2 = 60/2 = 30 C = A/3 = 60/3 = 20 D = A/4 = 60/4 = 15 E = A/5 = 60/5 = 12 F = A/6 = 60/6 = 10 However, we need to make sure that all the children receive an even number of pens. The only odd number of pens is given to D, so we must adjust the number of pens for A to make sure D also gets an even number of pens. If we increase A to 120 pens (the next multiple of 60), we can calculate the new numbers of pens for each child: A = 120 B = A/2 = 120/2 = 60 C = A/3 = 120/3 = 40 D = A/4 = 120/4 = 30 E = A/5 = 120/5 = 24 F = A/6 = 120/6 = 20 Now all the children have an even number of pens. The minimum number of pens X should buy is: Total pens = A + B + C + D + E + F Total pens = 120 + 60 + 40 + 30 + 24 + 20 Total pens = 294 So, the correct answer is c. 294.

Question 128

48, Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Question: Who is sitting on the immediate left of A? Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E. Statement-2 : F is sitting on the immediate left of B. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Answer 128

orrect Answer: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper Explanation : To determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A, we need to analyze the given statements. Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E. From this statement, we can deduce the following seating arrangement (clockwise): B is opposite to C. D is opposite to E. However, this statement does not provide any information about the position of A or who is sitting on the immediate left of A. So, Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Statement-2: F is sitting on the immediate left of B. This statement gives us information about the position of F in relation to B, but it does not provide any information about the position of A. So, Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Combining Statement-1 and Statement-2: We know the following: B is opposite to C. D is opposite to E. F is sitting on the immediate left of B. However, even after combining both statements, we still do not have enough information to determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A. Thus, the correct answer is: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Question 129

49, Consider the Question and Statements given below : Question: What is the age Manisha? Statement-1 : Manisha is 24 years younger than her mother. Statement-2 : 5 years later, the ages of Manisha and her mother will be in the ratio 3: 5. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Answer 129

49,c,Correct,"Both statements together are sufficient to determine Manisha's current age. The solution correctly uses both statements to find Manisha's age.",

Question 130

50, Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Question: Which lecture is in the third period? Statement-1: Lecture F is preceded by A and followed by C. Statement-2 : There is no lecture after lecture B. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Answer 130

50,d,Correct,"Neither statement alone is sufficient to determine the order of lectures. Even together, the statements do not provide enough information to determine the order.",

Question 131

In an economic organization, allowing mankind to benefit by the productivity of machines should lead to a very good life of leisure, and much leisure is apt to be tedious except to those who have intelligent activities and interests. If a leisured population is to be happy, it must be an educated population, and must be educated with a view to enjoyment as well as to the direct usefulness of technical knowledge. 51. Which of the following statements best reflects the underlying tone of the passage? a) Only an educated population can best make use of the benefits of economic progress. b) All economic development should be aimed at the creation of leisure. c) An increase in the educated population of a country leads to an increase in the happiness of its people. d) Use of machines should be encouraged in order to create a large leisured population.

Answer 131

51,a,Correct,"Option (a) is the most appropriate choice despite being extreme because it aligns with the author's discussion on the advantages of an educated population for utilizing leisure time effectively.",

Question 132

52, With reference to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?,a) It is not possible for adults to feel thrilled by presents.,b) There can be more than one reason why adults feel less thrilled by presents.,c) The author does not know why adults feel less thrilled by presents.,d) Adults have less capacity to feel the joy of loving or being loved.

Answer 132

52,b,Correct,"Option (b) correctly identifies the reasons why adults may feel less thrilled by presents, aligning with the author's arguments presented in the passage.",

Question 133

53, The author of the passage is against,a) worrying too much about the past and future,b) being in the habit of thinking about presents,c) not being thrilled by new things,d) giving and receiving joy only partially

Answer 133

53,a,Correct,"Option (a) accurately reflects the author's emphasis on living in the present and not worrying too much about the past or future, which is evident in the passage.",

Question 134

54, Let A, B and C represent distinct non zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition. Consider the following statements: 1. The 4-digit least value of x is 1332. 2. The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888. Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 134

Correct Answer: a. 1 only Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper Explanation : Sum of all 3-digit numbers formed by distinct non-zero digits (A, B, C) Let’s consider all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition: ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB and CBA. The sum of these numbers is x = ABC + ACB + BAC + BCA + CAB + CBA. We can rewrite x as: x = 100A + 10B + C + 100A + 10C + B + 100B + 10A + C + 100B+10C+A+100C+10A+B+100C+10B+A. By grouping the terms we get: x = (222)(A+B+C). Since A,B,C are distinct non-zero digits the minimum value for A+B+C is when A=1,B=2,C=3 so the minimum value for x is (222)(1+2+3)=1332. Therefore statement 1 is correct. Statement 2: The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888: False, as the least value of x is 1332.

Question 135

55, There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN with certainty?,a) 6,b) 8,c) 10,d) 12

Answer 135

Numeric Lock 3 digit PIN Combinations All Possible Values for a 3-digit PIN are 753, 752, 751, 742, 741, 731, 642, 641, 631, 531. So, the maximum number of attempts one need to find out the PIN with certainty is 10.

Question 136

56, There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How many right-angled triangles can be drawn using these points as vertices and taking the diameter as one side of the triangle?,a) 24,b) 16,c) 12,d) 8

Answer 136

There are eight equidistant points on a circle Angle subtended by the diameter chord at the circumference of the circle is 90. To form a right-angled triangle using the diameter of the circle as one side and the eight equidistant points as vertices, we need to select two points on the circle that are equidistant from both ends of the diameter. There are four such pairs of points. To form a right-angled triangle, we need to choose one of these pairs of points as the endpoints of the diameter and then select one of the remaining six points as the third vertex. There are six ways to choose the third vertex for each pair of points, so the total number of right-angled triangles is: 4*6 = 24

Question 137

57, 24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men and 24 women do the same piece of work?,a) 30 days,b) More than 30 days,c) Less than 30 days or more than 30 days,d) Data is inadequate to draw any conclusion

Answer 137

57,d,Correct,"The solution correctly concludes that the data is inadequate to determine the time taken by 12 men and 24 women to complete the work.",

Question 138

Q. What is the remainder when 91 × 92× 93 ×94 ×95 ×96 ×97 ×98 ×99 is divided by 1261? a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0

Answer 138

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper Explanation : 91 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 97 × 98 × 99 is divided by 1261. Factors of 1261 are 13 and 97. So, dividing the given expression by 13 × 97. (91 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 97 × 98 × 99)/(13 × 97) = 7 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 98 × 99 It means this expression is completely divisible by 1261. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Question 139

59, Consider the following statements in respect of a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 8 cm: 1. It is possible to cut the sheet exactly into 4 square sheets. 2.It is possible to cut the sheet into 10 triangular sheets of equal area. Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 139

59,c,Correct,"Both statements are correct. Statement I is correct because the rectangle can be cut into 4 square sheets, even if they are not equal in area. Statement II is correct because the rectangle can be cut into 10 triangles of equal area.",

Question 140

Q. When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the value of z. Which one of the following is correct? a. z < x < y b. x < y < z c. y < x < z d. z < y < x

Answer 140

Correct Answer: a. z < x < y When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. We can represent this information as an equation: y + 0.70x = 1.65y When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the value of z. We can represent this information as another equation: z + 0.60x = 1.65z Now we can solve the system of equations: From the first equation, we can express x in terms of y: 0.70x = 1.65y – y 0.70x = 0.65y x = 0.65y / 0.70 x = 13y/14 Now, substitute x in the second equation: z + 0.60x = 1.65z z + 0.60(13y/14) = 1.65z z + 13y/23 = 1.65z Now, let’s solve for z in terms of y: 13y/23 = 1.65z – z 13y/23 = 0.65z z = 13y/23 / 0.65 z = 13y/15 Now we have: x = 13y/14 z = 13y/15 Since 13/15 < 13/14, we can conclude that z < x. Now let’s compare x and y. Since x = 13y/14, this means that x < y (because 13/14 < 1). Thus, we have established the following relationship: z < x < y. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) z < x < y

Question 141

61, Which one of the following is implied by the passage?,a) Most of the people do not accumulate money for their needs.,b) Most of the people never fail to accumulate money for their needs.,c) There are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs.,d) There is no need to accumulate money.

Answer 141

61,c,Correct,"Option (c) is correct because the passage implies that there are groups of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, but it does not specify whether they constitute the majority or not.",

Question 142

62, What is the main idea of the passage?,a) People should not be influenced by the opinions of others.,b) People should accumulate as much money as they can. People should neither give nor accept the opinions.,c) People will succeed in any undertaking if they do not accept any opinion at all.

Answer 142

62,a,Correct,"Option (a) is correct because the passage concludes by stating that people should not be influenced by the opinions of others when making decisions.",

Question 143

63, With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are correct?,1. Conventions are the sources of rights of man.,2. Rights of man can be exercised only when there is a social order. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 143

63,c,Correct,"Both statements are correct. Statement (1) establishes that the social order is the basis of all other rights, while statement (2) reinforces the idea that the rights of man can only be exercised when there is social order.",

Question 144

64, Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?,a) 15000,b) 12000,c) 9600,d) 5000

Answer 144

Two candidates X and Y contested an election Let’s assume the total number of voters in the voter list as “T”. 80% of the voters cast their votes which means the total number of votes cast is (80/100) x T = 0.8T. Now, we know that X got 56% of the votes cast, which means X got 0.56 x 0.8T = 0.448T votes. Let’s assume Y got “y” votes. Since there were no invalid votes, the total number of votes cast is the sum of votes received by X and Y, i.e., 0.448T + y = 0.8T. Solving for y, we get y = 0.352T. Now, we know that X won by 1440 votes. This means X got 1440 more votes than Y. So, we can write an equation as: 0.448T – 0.352T = 1440 Simplifying the equation, we get 0.096T = 1440, which implies T = 15000. Therefore, the total number of voters in the voter list is 15000, option (a) is the correct answer.

Question 145

65, What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?,a) 1063,b) 1073,c) 1083,d) 1183

Answer 145

65,c,Correct,"The solution correctly determines the smallest number greater than 1000 that is a multiple of the given numbers.",

Question 146

66, Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If pxq=2430, then what is the difference between p and q?,a) 45,b) 27,c) 18,d) 9

Answer 146

Let’s say that p = 10x + y and q = 10y + x where x and y are digits. Then p × q = (10x + y)(10y + x) = 100xy + 10xy + 10xy + xy = 2430. Simplifying this equation gives us xy = 2430/121 = 20. Since x and y are digits, the only possibility is that x=5 and y=4 or vice versa. Therefore p=54 and q=45 or vice versa. The difference between p and q is |54-45|=9.

Question 147

67, Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and a such that p is a prime number and q is a composite number :,1. pxq can be an odd number.,2. q/p can be a prime number.,3. p+q can be a prime number.,Which of the above statements are correct?,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 147

67,d,Correct,"The solution correctly evaluates all three statements and concludes that they are all correct.",

Question 148

68, Consider the following statements :,1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide.,2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide.,Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 148

68,c,Correct,"Both statements are correct. Statement 1 accurately calculates the time at which the hour and minute hands will coincide, and statement 2 correctly identifies the time at which the minute and second hands will coincide.",

Question 149

69, There are two containers X and Y. X contains 100 ml of milk and Y contains 100 ml of water. 20 ml of milk from X is transferred to Y. After mixing well, 20 ml of the mixture in Y is transferred back to X. If m denotes the proportion of milk in X and n denotes the proportion of water in Y, then which one of the following is correct?,a) m=n,b) m > n,c) m

Answer 149

69,a,Correct,"The solution correctly calculates the proportion of milk in container X after the given operations.",

Question 150

70, A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D and E in a household. If B, C, D and E correspond to 90°, 50°, 45° and 75° respectively, then what is the percentage of expenditure on item A?,a) 122/9,b) 125/6,c) 155/9,d) 250/9

Answer 150

The total angle in a pie chart is 360°. The sum of the angles for items B, C, D and E is 90° + 50° + 45° + 75° = 260°. Therefore, the angle for item A is 360° – 260° = 100°. Since the total angle in a pie chart represents 100%, each degree represents 100/360 = (5/18)%. Therefore, the percentage of expenditure on item A is (5/18) * 100 = (500/18)% ≈ (250/9)%. So the correct answer is d. (250/9)

Question 151

71, The author's assumption about scientific research is that,a) it is never very valuable,b) it is sometimes very valuable,c) it is never without some value,d) it is always very valuable

Answer 151

71,c,Correct,"Option (c) is correct because the passage clearly states that scientific research is probably never completely valueless.",

Question 152

72, According to the author,a) not many research results can be of value to an intelligent investigator,b) a research result is always valuable to an intelligent investigator,c) any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator,d) a research result must always be of some value to an intelligent investigator

Answer 152

72,d,Correct,"Option (d) is correct because the passage suggests that research efforts, seemingly futile, could find utility in the eyes of those who can utilize them.",

Question 153

73, Which one of the following best reflects the practical, rational and lasting solution?,a) Constructing huge concrete storage tanks and canals across the country,b) Changing the cropping patterns and farming practices,c) Interlinking of rivers across the country,d) Buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers

Answer 153

73,d,Correct,"Option (d) is correct because the solution proposes a practical and sustainable solution for water management that aligns with the temporal aspects mentioned in the passage.",

Question 154

74, If 15 x 14 x 13 x... x3x2 x 1 = 3 𝑚 x n where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?,a) 7,b) 6,c) 5,d) 4

Answer 154

74,b,Correct,"Option (b) is correct because it accurately identifies the maximum value of 'm' based on the conditions given in the question.",

Question 155

75, What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?,a) 248,b) 252,c) 258,d) 262

Answer 155

2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X Consider the differences between consecutive terms: 12 – 2 = 10 36 – 12 = 24 80 – 36 = 44 150 – 80 = 70 Now let’s examine the differences between these differences: 24 – 10 = 14 44 – 24 = 20 70 – 44 = 26 We see that the differences between the differences are increasing by 6 each time. Therefore, to find the next difference between consecutive terms, we can add 6 to the last difference between differences: 26 + 6 = 32 Now we can add this difference to the last difference between consecutive terms in the original sequence: 70 + 32 = 102 Finally, to find the value of X, we can add this difference to the last term in the original sequence: 150 + 102 = 252 Thus, the value of X is 252 (option b).

Question 156

76, One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are be used in forming passwords, such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such passwords can be generated?,(a) 105,(b) 525,(c) 945,(d) 1050

Answer 156

To form a password, we need one non-zero digit, one vowel (in capital), and one consonant (in capital). The password must start with a vowel and end with a consonant. Therefore, the password format will be Vowel-Digit-Consonant. There are 5 vowels in the English alphabet (A, E, I, O, U). There are 21 consonants in the English alphabet (the remaining letters after excluding the vowels). There are 9 non-zero digits (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9). For each position in the password, we can use the number of available options for that specific position. So, to calculate the total number of possible passwords, we can multiply the available options for each position: Total passwords = Number of vowels × Number of non-zero digits × Number of consonants Total passwords = 5 × 9 × 21 Total passwords = 945 Thus, 945 such passwords can be generated (option c)

Question 157

77, There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should contain at least one cup of coffee?,(a) 18,(b) 27,(c) 54,(d) 81

Answer 157

There are 9 cups placed on a table Case 1: When we have 3 coffee cups in one row, 2 coffee cups in another row, and 1 coffee cup in the remaining row (3!). For row having 3 coffee cups arrangement can be done in only one way. For row having 2 coffee cups arrangement can be done in three ways. For row having 1 coffee cup arrangement can be done in three ways. Total arrangements for case 1 = 3! × 1 × 3 × 3 = 54. Case 2: When we have 2 coffee cups in each row (1). Each row has 2 coffee cups arrangement can be done in three ways. Total arrangements for case 2 = 1 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 27 So, total arrangement for given conditions = 54 + 27 = 81. Hence, the correct answer is an option(4) i.e., 81.

Question 158

78,"The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?","a) Only one","b) Only two","c) Only three","d) No such possibility is there",,,,,

Answer 158

\Possibilities of three consecutive integers whose sum equals their product. Let’s assume the three consecutive integers to be n-1, n, and n+1. Their sum would be (n-1) + n + (n+1) = 3n Their product would be (n-1)n(n+1) = n^3 – n As per the question, their sum is equal to their product, so we can equate them: 3n = n^3 – n Rearranging the equation: n^3 – 4n = 0 n(n^2 – 4) = 0 n = 0 or n = ±2

Question 159

79,"What is the number of numbers of the form 0.XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits?","a) 72","b) 81","c) 90","d) 100",,,,,

Answer 159

Counting distinct non-zero digit combinations in the decimal form 0.XY The number of numbers of the form 0.XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits, can be found by counting the number of possibilities for X and Y, and then multiplying them together. There are 9 choices for X (all digits except 0), and once X is chosen, there are 8 choices for Y (all digits except the chosen value of X). Therefore, the total number of numbers of the form 0.XY is: 9 × 8 = 72 Therefore, the answer is (a) 72.

Question 160

Q. The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F? a. 40.5 kg b. 40.8 kg c. 41 kg d. Cannot be determined as data is Inadequate

Answer 160

A + B + C)/3 = 40 A + B + C = 120 ——-(1.) (B + D + E)/3 = 42 B + D + E = 126 ——–(2.) As B = F, so we can write F in place of B in equation (2.) We get, F + D + E = 126 ——-(3.) Adding equation (1.) and (3.), we get A + B + C + D + E + F = 120 + 126 A + B + C + D + E + F = 246 Avereage weight of A, B, C, D, E and F = 246 / 6 = 41 Hence, option 3 is correct.

Question 161

1,"With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such thing as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be a judge of each other’s religion, there is no such things as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.","a) No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.","b) It is the duty of everyone to propagate one’s religious denomination","c) Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man","d) Men do not understand their own religious denomination."

Answer 161

1,C,,"The passage states that, with the perspective of the looker, the meaning of religion changes. When we consider our own religion to be the correct one and all others as false or untrue, we are presuming that all men are not united by any shared common values."

Question 162

2,"It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship, but must be made so. Besides, men’s natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unitynor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.","a) Seditions, wars and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.","b) It is not the people, but the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.","c) That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship.","d) It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion."

Answer 162

2,C,,"In the given options, option (c) is the most logical and rational inference, because if there are high number of crimes in dominion/place with comparison to another, it is due to laws without foresight and the theory sovereign has not pursued well for unity."

Question 163

3,"Inequality violates a basic democratic norm; the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect of some fundamental characteristic that they share in common. Equality is, morally speaking, a default principle. Therefore, persons should not be discriminated on grounds such as race, caste, gender, ethnicity, disability, or class. These features of human condition are morally irrelevant. The idea that one should treat persons with respect not only because some of these persons possess some special features or talent, for example skilled cricketer, gifted musicians, or literary giants, but because persons are human beings, is by now part of commonsense morality.","a) Equality is prerequisite for people to participate in the multiple transactions of society from a position of confidence.","b) Occurrence of inequality is detrimental to the survival of democracy.","c) Equal standing of all citizens is an idea that cannot actually be realized even in a democracy.","d) Right to equality should be incorporated into our values and day-to-day political vocabulary."

Answer 163

3,a,,"The passage states that equality is most important in democracy which encourages people to participate society with confidence. When inequality persist the violation of democratic norms bound to take place so can assume that occurrence of inequality is detriments the survival of democracy."

Question 164

4,"Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself by the incautious scramble for immediate wealth. But even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy. Its basic principle is the equal right of all to hold office and determine public policy. This is, at first glance, a delightful arrangement; it becomes disastrous because the people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. The people have no understanding and only repeat what their rulers are pleased to tell them. Such a democracy is tyranny or autocracy -Plato","a) Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.","b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.","c) Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.","d) Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government."

Answer 164

Q1: Correct Answer – (b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle. Explanation – The statement that best reflects the crux of the passage given above is (b) “Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.” The passage describes how different forms of government – aristocratic, oligarchic and democratic – can ruin themselves by taking their basic principles to an extreme. For example, democracy can ruin itself “by excess of democracy” when people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. So the correct answer would be (b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle. Option (a) states that “Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.” While the passage does mention different forms of government – aristocratic, oligarchic and democratic – it does not explicitly state that human societies experiment with them. Option © states that “Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.” The passage does mention that democracy can become disastrous when people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. However, it does not state that education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy. Option (d) states that “Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.” The passage does mention that democracy can become tyrannical or autocratic when people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. However, it does not state that having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government. So based on the information given in the passage, option (b) “Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle” best reflects the crux of the passage while options (a), ©, and (d) are not explicitly supported by the text

Question 165

5,"In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons in the group can speak English. The number of Indians who can speak English is","a) 20","b) 30","c) 30 or less","d) 30 or more"

Answer 165

5,d,,"Total number of persons = 120 Number of Indians = 80 and number of foreigners = 120 – 80 = 40 Number of persons who can speak English = 70 If all foreigners (40) speak English, the number of Indians who can speak English = 70 – 40 = 30. If none of the foreigner speak English, then the number of Indians who can speak English is 70. So minimum English-speaking Indians can be 30 and maximum 70."

Question 166

6,"Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digit) obtained using three nonzero digits which are multiples of 3. Let Us be their sum. Which of the following is/are correct?","1. S is always divisible by 74.","2. S is always divisible by 9.","a) Only 1","b) Only 2","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 166

6,c,,"Three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3 are 3,6 and 9 Using these 3 digits, we can make 3! i.e. 6 three numbers. So, their sum (s) = 369 + 396 + 639 + 936 = 3996 .. 3996 is divisible by both 74 and 9."

Question 167

7,"There are two classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In class A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In class B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Four students are shifted from class A to class B. Consider the following statements: 1. The average score of class B will definitely decrease. 2. The average score of class A will definitely increase. Which of the above statements is/are correct?","a) Only 1","b) Only 2","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 167

7,a,,"We know that, Sum of all scores = Average score* Number of students 1. Since, 4 students are moved from A to B, therefore average of class B will definitely decrease as range of marks for class A is less than range of marks for class B. .. Statement 1 is correct. 2. According to the question, we are not sure regarding the marks of the 4 students that have been moved from class A .. We cannot determine whether the average score of class A will increase or decrease. Statement 2 is incorrect."

Question 168

8,"Consider two statements and a question: Statement 1 Priya is 4 rank below Seema and is 31st from the Bottom. Statement 2 Ena is 2 rank above Seema and is 37th from the bottom. Question What is Seema’s rank from the top in the class of 40 students? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements and the Question?","a) Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question","b) Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.","c) Either statement 1 alone or statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the questions","d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are required to answer the question."

Answer 168

8,c,,It is given total number of students = 40. Seema’s rank from top can be calculated using either of the statements.

Question 169

9,"Consider two statements and a question: Statement 1 Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the heaviest. Statement 2 A is heavier than D, but is lighter than C. Question Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements and the question?","a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.","b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question","c) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are required to answer the question.","d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question."

Answer 169

c

Question 170

10,"In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on and at the end Y and Z are interchanged. Which will be the fourth letter to right of the 13th letter?","a) N","b) T","c) H","d) I"

Answer 170

10,b,,"The English alphabet is: ABCD EFGH IJKL MNOP QRSTUVWXYZ As per the question, letters are arranged as follows DCBA HGFE LKJI PONM TSRQ XWVU ZY .. 4th letter to the right of the 13th letter = 13+ 4 = 17th letter .. The required letter is T."

Question 171

11,"Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?","a) India’s energy decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.","b) India’s energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals.","c) India’s energy and climate actions are not compatible with its broader social economic and environmental goals.","d) India’s energy decision-making process is straightforward supply-oriented and ignores the demand side."

Answer 171

11,a,,"The passage highlights about India's challenges in energy sector and climate policy. The problems are multiple such as flawed fossil fuel production capabilities, unstable global market, and other illustrates how energy decision-making process is complex and interconnected."

Question 172

Q. There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promotes in the 1990s, the major pork exporters say it is producing more pigs – and the animals get fewer diseases. Q 1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above? (a) People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming. (b) Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin. (c) Using antibiotics on animals should be banned. (d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases. \

Answer 172

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 CSAT Paper Explanation : Q1: Correct Answer – (d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases. Explanation – The passage describes the issue of antibiotics being used as growth promoters in poultry and other livestock. It mentions that overusing these substances can create superbugs that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along to humans. The passage also mentions that some farming companies have stopped using antibiotics to make chickens gain weight faster and that Denmark has banned antibiotic growth promoters in the 1990s, resulting in more pigs being produced and fewer diseases among the animals. Based on this information provided in the passage, statement (d) “Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases” best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage. This statement acknowledges the potential negative consequences of overusing antibiotics as growth promoters while also recognizing that antibiotics can still play an important role in treating diseases.]

Question 173

13,"Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices. 2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) Only 1","b) Only 2","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 173

13,,,"Statement 1 is incorrect, because the passage states that the increasing food prices are the result of high fuel price However it nowhere mentioned oil-producing being one of the reasons. Statement 2 is also incorrect, as the passage is not specifically single out the emerging economies are causative agent of food crisis in future. It only states that the emerging economies will be highly affected."

Question 174

14,"A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they mean growth in GDP. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country. 2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) Only 1","b) Only 2","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 174

14,,,"Statement 1 is incorrect as with the reference of the passage, only rising GDP cannot be the essential criteria for a developed country, but income redistribution also important. Statement 2 is also incorrect, as throughout the passage, rising GDP is not sure short guarantees reasonable distribution to all households."

Question 175

15,"Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R and S are law reports; the rest are Gazetteers. Books of old Gazetteers with blue covers are","a) Q and R","b) Q and U","c) Q and T","d) T and u"

Answer 175

15,c,,"Only S and U are new books. So, R, Q, T are old books having the blue cover of which R is a law report, remaining two are gazetteers. So, Q and T are old gazetteers with blue covers."

Question 176

16,"Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28, 43, 40 where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern.","a) O","b) 1","c) 3","d) 6"

Answer 176

16,a,,"Given series, Since, odd term and even terms follow the same pattern as per the given in question. ‘2’ will be replaced with ‘0’."

Question 177

17,"Following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry(?) accordingly. 7B 10A 3C 3C 9B 6A 10A 13C ?" ,"a) 9B","b) 3A","c) 3B","d) 3C"

Answer 177

17,c,,"Given pattern is as follow 10-7 = 3 and BAC 9-3 = 6 and CBA 13-10=3 and ACB ? =3B"

Question 178

18,"You are given two identical sequences in two rows Sequence-I 8 4 6 15 52.5 236.25 Sequence-II 5 A B C D E What is the entry in the place of C for the sequence-II?","a) 2.5","b) 5","c) 9.375","d) 32.8125"

Answer 178

The inherent pattern in the two sequences has been represented below. Sequence I 8 × 0.5 = 4 4 × 1.5 = 6 6 × 2.5 = 15 15 × 3.5 = 52.5 52.5 × 4.5 = 236.25 Sequence II 5 × 0.5 = 2.5 (A) 2.5 × 1.5 = 3.75 (B) 3.75 × 2.5 = 9.375 (C)

Question 179

19,"A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15km. X walks with a uniform speed of 1.5km/h and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1km/h in the first hour, with a uniform speed of 1.25km/h in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5km/h in the third hour and so on. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. They take 5 h to meet. 2. They meet midway between A and B. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:","a) Only 1","b) Only 2","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 179

19,c,,"Distance between A and B = 15 km Speed of X = 1.5 km/h .. Distance covered by X in 5 h= 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 km Speed of Y in 1st hour = 1 km/h So, distance covered by Y in 1st hour = 1 km. According to the question, Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Total distance covered by Y in 5 h = 1 + 1.25 + 1.5 + 1.75 + 2 = 7.5 km Both the statements are correct/true."

Question 180

20,"A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5:6:7: 8:9:10. Overall he scored 60%. In how many numbers of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?","a) 2","b) 3","c) 4","d) 5"

Answer 180

20,b,,": Total marks for 6 subjects = 6 x 100 = 600. Overall marks scored = 60% of 600 60 100 x 600 = 360 According to the question, 5x + 6x + 7x + 8x + 9x + 10x = 360 45x = 360 x = 360 45 = 8 : Marks in the given subjects are 5 x 8,6 x 8,7 X 8, 8 x 8, 9 x 8 and 10 x 8 or 40, 48, 56, 64, 72 and 80. ... In 3 papers only, he scores less than 60% of the maximum marks."

Question 181

21,"On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Fig trees can often be keystone species in natural forests. 2. Fig trees can grow where other large woody species cannot grow. 3. Sacred trees can have a role in biodiversity conservation. 4. Fig trees have a role in the seed dispersal of other tree species. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 and 2 only","b) 3 only","c) 2 and 4 only","d) 1, 3 and 4 only"

Answer 181

21,d,,"Through the passage, we can assume that fig trees not only provide food for wildlife, but also supports frugivores due to scarcity of resources. It can grow in harsh climate zone/area where other plants and trees can't survive. By fig trees seed dispersal of other tree species also takes place."

Question 182

22,"Consider the following. 1. Cover crops 2. Fertigation 3. Hydroponics 4. Mixed farming 5. Polyculture 6. Vertical farming Which of the above farming practices can be compatible with agroecology, as implied by the passage?","a) 1, 4 and 5 only","b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only","c) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only","d) 4 and 6 only"

Answer 182

22,a,,

Question 184

24,"On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. People who are obsessed with personal hygiene tend to ignore the community hygiene. 2. Emergency of multi-drug resistant germ can be prevented by personal cleanliness. 3. Entry of the market in the domain of hygiene increases the risk of infectious diseases. 4. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases. 5. It is community hygiene implemented through public health measures that is really effective in the battle against infectious diseases. Which of the above assumptions are valid?","a) 1 and 2 only","b) 3 and 4 only","c) 4 and 5 only","d) 1, 2 and 4 only"

Answer 184

24,c,,Experiences in Western Europe have proved that community hygiene through public measures are highly effective in reducing infectious diseases. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases. Community hygiene as a public health measure can really be effective against infectious diseases.

Question 185

25,"A statement followed by conclusion-I and conclusion-ii is given below. You have to take the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statement, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statement I Some cats are almirahs. Some almirahs are chairs. All chairs are tables. Conclusion I:Certainly, some almirahs are tables. Conclusion II:Some cats may not be chairs. Which one of the following is correct?","a) Only conclusion I","b) Only conclusion II","c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II","d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II"

Answer 185

25,c,,From statement, Conclusion I:✔ And conclusion II: ✔ Both conclusions follow the statement

Question 186

26,"A boys plays with a ball and he drops it from a height of 1.5m. Every time the ball hits the ground, it bounces back to attain a height 4/5th of the previous height. The ball does not bounce further if the previous height is less than 50 cm. what is the number of times the ball hits the ground before the ball stop bouncing?","a) 4","b) 5","c) 6","d) 7"

Answer 186

26,c,,Given, height = 1.5 m = 150 cm Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground 1st time = 150 Height before striking the ground was 150 > 50. So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground second time = 150× 4 5 =120 Hight before striking the ground second time was 120>50.So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground third time = 120× 4 5 =96 Hight before striking the ground third time was 96> 50.So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground fourth time = 96× 4 5 =76.8 Hight before striking the ground fourth time was 76.8> 50.So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground fifth time = 76.8 × 4 5 =61.44 Hight before striking the ground fifth time was 61.44> 50.So, ball will bounce back. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground sixth time = 61.44× 4 5 =49.152 Hight before striking the ground sixth time was 49.152> 50.So, ball will not bounce back."

Question 187

27,"Images of consonants of the English alphabet (Capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which do not look like their original shapes?","a) 13","b) 14","c) 15","d) 16"

Answer 187

27,b,,All the consonants of the English alphabet are B, C, D, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z. So, there are total 21 consonants. The number of consonants whose images look like them are: H, M, T, V, W, X and Y (Total 7). The number of consonants whose images do not look like them = 21 - 7 = 14

Question 188

28,"A bank employee drives 10km towards south from her house and turns to her left and drives another 20km. she again turns left and drives 40km, then she turns to her right and drives for another 5 km. She again turns to her right and drives another 30km to reach her bank where she works. What is the shortest distance between her bank and her house?","a) 20km","b) 25km","c) 30km","d) 35km"

Answer 188

28,,,"According to the question, Shortest distance between her bank and her house =20+5 + 25km"

Question 189

29,"Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?","a) 6","b) 7","c) 8","d) 9"

Answer 189

29,d,,"According to the question, Required integers - 704, 712.721 730 802, 811 820 901 and 910 Required number of integers = 9"

Question 190

30,"A women runs 12 km towards her North, then 6 km towards her south and then 8 km towards her East. In which direction is she from her starting point?","a) An angle less than 45° to the East of South","b) 45° to the East of North","c) An angle more than 45° to the East of South","d) 45° to the East of North"

Answer 190

]Correct Answer: (b) An angle less than 45o North of East Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 CSAT Paper Explanation : We can visualize the woman’s movements on a coordinate plane. Let’s say she starts at the origin (0,0). When she runs 12 km towards her North, her position changes to (0,12). Then when she runs 6 km towards her South, her position changes to (0,6). Finally when she runs 8 km towards her East, her position changes to (8,6). Now we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the distance between her starting point and ending point. The distance is sqrt((8-0)^2 + (6-0)^2) = 10 km. To find the direction from her starting point to her ending point we can use trigonometry. The angle is tan^-1(6/8) = 36.87 degrees. (Tan 45 degree = 1) 6/8 is less than 1, So angle will be less. So the woman is at an angle less than 45 degrees North of East from her starting point. So the correct answer is (b) An angle less than 45o North of East.

Question 191

31,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given below? Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea-aphids, sap-sucking insects, at night. These were exposed to two different types of light – a white light similar to newer commercial LED lights and an amber light similar to sodium street lamps. The low intensity amber light was shown to inhibit, rather than induce, flowering in a wild plant of the pea family which is a source of food for the pea-aphids in grasslands. The number of aphids was also significantly suppressed under the light treatment due to the limited amount of food available.","a) Low intensity light has more adverse effect on the plants as compared to high intensity light.","b) Light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.","c) White light is better for the flowering of plants as compared to the light of other colors.","d) Proper intensity of light in an ecosystem is important not only for plants but also for animals too."

Answer 191

b

Question 192

\Q 1. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Sustainable production of India’s cereal food grains is impossible without the diversity of pollinating animals. 2. Monoculture of horticultural crops hampers the survival of insects. 3. Pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation. 4. Diversity in insects induces diversity of plants. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 CSAT Paper Explanation :

Answer 192

Q1: Correct Answer – (d) 3 and 4 only Explanation – Based on the information given in the passage above, assumptions 3 and 4 are valid. The passage states that effective pollination requires resources such as refuges of pristine natural vegetation. This supports assumption 3 that pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation. The passage also mentions that pollination is an essential service that is the result of an intricate relationship between plants and animals and that the reduction or loss of either affects the survival of both. This supports assumption 4 that diversity in insects induces diversity in plants. So, option (d) “3 and 4 only” is correct.

Question 193

33,"A study conducted on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu using regional climate models showed an increasing trend for maximum and minimum temperatures, and a decrease in the number of rainy days. These climatic shifts will have an impact on the hydrological cycles in the region, lead to more run-off and less recharge, and affect the groundwater tables. Further, there has been an increase in the frequency of droughts in the State. This has driven farmers to increase dependency on groundwater resources to secure their crops. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?","a) Development of regional climate models helps in choosing climate-smart agricultural practices.","b) Heavy dependence on groundwater resources can be reduced by adopting dry-land cropping systems,","c) Climate changes increase the criticality of water resources while simultaneously threatening it.","d) Climate changes cause the farmers to adopt unsustainable livelihoods and risky coping strategies."

Answer 193

33,c,,"Option (c) is the main crux of the passage Climate change has adverse impact on the hydrological cycles over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu. The climatic shifts have led to more run-off and less recharge, and also affects the groundwater tables."

Question 194

Q 1. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. BPA may alter embryonic development in vivo. 2. Biochemical and cell-based assays are useful in finding out treatments for pollution-induced diseases. 3. Embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants. Which of the above assumptions are valid? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 194

Q1: Correct Answer – (c) 1 and 3 only Explanation – Based on the information given in the passage, assumptions 1 and 3 are valid. The passage states that BPA is known to cause developmental abnormalities in humans and that researchers were able to detect and measure BPA toxicity towards the proper specification of primary germ layers during embryonic development. This supports assumption 1 that BPA may alter embryonic development in vivo. The passage also mentions that researchers used stem cells to gauge the neurotoxic effects of BPA and were able to establish neural progenitor cells. This supports assumption 3 that embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants. However, there is no information given in the passage to support assumption 2 that biochemical and cell-based assays are useful in finding out treatments for pollution-induced diseases. While these assays were used to examine gene expression profiles during differentiation upon treatment with BPA, there is no mention of their use in finding treatments for pollution-induced diseases. Therefore, based on the information given in the passage, assumptions 1 and 3 are valid while assumption 2 is not supported by evidence from the text

Question 195

35,"If 3 2019 is divided by 10, then what is the remainder?","a) 1","b) 3","c) 7","d) 9"

Answer 195

35,c,,We know that, unit place of the power of 3 repeats after every 4 steps (i.e., it has a cyclicity of 4) Now, on dividing 2019 by 4, we get a remainder of 3 Hence, 37019 will have the same last digit as that of (3 3)/10 = 27 10 ... The remainder will be 7

Question 196

36,"The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7, what is the value of the digit P?","a) 1","b) 6","c) 7","d) 9"

Answer 196

36,b,,Given number = 3798125P369 When we check the divisibility by 7, we will divide 3798105 by 7 and get 2 as a remainder. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI .. We will divide the new number 2P369 by 7. Again, by divisibility by 7. 2P36 - 9x2 = 2P18 will be divided by 7. Now, this is a small number to check the divisibility by 7b, Trial and Error method. Required digit, P = 6.

Question 197

37,"From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in rupees per liter) on mth day of the year is 80+0.1 m, where m=1, 2, 3,… , 100 and thereafter remains constant. On the other hand, the price of diesel (in rupees per liter) nth day of 2021 is 69+0.15 n for any n. on which date in the year 2021 are the process of these two fuels equal?","a) 21st May","b) 20th May","c) 19th May","d) 18th May"

Answer 197

37,b,,"Price of the diesel on nth day of the year = 69 + 015 n Price of the petrol on mth day of the year = 80+ 0.1 m where, m= 1 to 100. After which it remains constant. Price of the petrol on and after 100th day = 80 + 0.1 x 100 = 90 and total number of days till 30th April = 31 + 28 + 31+ 30 = 120 days Option wise, from (b): 20th May means 120 + 20 = 140 days. . Price of the diesel = 69+ 0.15 x 140 = 3 90. The prices of these two fuels are equal on 20th may, 2021"

Question 198

38,"A Biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animals will double in size every 12 yr. the population at the beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to be 50 animals. If P represents the population after n years, then which oneof the following equations represents the model of the class for the population?","a) P=12 +50n","b) P = 50 + 12n","c) P = 50(2)12n","d) P = 50(2)n/12"

Answer 198

38,d,,Population is getting doubled every 12 yr., and population in the year 2021 is 50 animals. So, after 12 yr. it will be get doubled to 100 animals. option wise, from option (d): P = 50 x 22 = 50 x 22/12 = 50 x 2 = 100 animals. This value comes out to be way above 100.

Question 199

39,"In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the students are girls. If 30% of the Indian students are girl, then what percentage of foreign students are boys??","a) 45%","b) 40%","c) 30%","d) 20%"

Answer 199

39,d,,Let the total number of students be 100. Students from India = 60% of 100 = 60 In which, 30% are girls Number of Indian girls’ students = 30∗60 100 = 18 Total number of girls students = 50% of 100 = 50 Number of foreign boy students = 40 - (50 -18) = 8 Required percentage = x 100 = 20%

Question 200

40,"A statement followed by conclusion I and conclusion II is given below. You have to take the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statement, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statement Some radios are mobiles. All mobiles are computers. Some computers are watches. Conclusion I:Certainly, some radios are watches. Conclusion II:Certainly, some mobiles are watches. Which one of the following is correct?","a) Only conclusion I","b) Only conclusion II","c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II","d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II"

Answer 200

40,,,"From statement, Or Conclusions I. x II. x Neither I nor II follows from the statement"

Question 201

41,"Which one of the following statements best sums up the passage given above? Medieval merchants risked the hazards of the silk Road to reach the markets of China; Portuguese caravels in the 15th century sailed beyond the bounds of the known world, searching less for knowledge than for gold and spices. Historically, the driver for opening frontiers has always been the search for resources. Science and curiosity are weaker drivers. The only way to open up space, whether the space of solar system or interstellar space is to create an economic engine and that engine is resource extraction.","a) Wealth generation is the primary motive for any human endeavor.","b) Space, whether space is solar system or interstellar space, will govern our future economy.","c) Human beings are motivated to explore new frontiers principally by economic consideration.","d) Wealth generation is based on the risk-taking behavior of some men."

Answer 201

41,,,"The passage states that economic consideration as prime motto for exploration of new world, inventions discovers even the space exploration, wealth generation was the secondary motive along with science and curiosity."

Question 202

42,"The idea which the first part of the passage mention is","a) Agreement about telling lies.","b) Disagreement about telling lies.","c) Disagreement about telling the truth.","d) Disagreement about the harm in telling the truth."

Answer 202

42,D"Since, the first part of the passage is missing and the given question is related with the first part. However, after unplaying our idea, it can be assumed that the first part is exchanging the idea of agreement in telling lies, while in the following passage they disagree in truth."

Question 203

43,"Which one of the following habits is found more often in good people?","a) Mixing up the true and false","b) Intentional mixing up of truth with the false.","c) Falsification of facts.","d) Complete concealment of truth."

Answer 203

43,b,,"The passage states that good people intentionally mix up truth with false to reduce the harm from telling the truth. Sometimes, it is with the intention of preventing others from experiencing psychological harm as well."

Question 204

44,"A pie diagram shows the percentage distribution of proteins, water and other dry elements in the human body. Given that proteins correspond to 16% and water corresponds to 70%. If both proteins and the other dry elements correspond to P %, then what is the central angle of the sector representing P on the pie diagram?","a) 54°","b) 96°","c) 108°","d) 120°"

Answer 204

44,C,,According to the question, Percentage of other dry elements in the human body = 100 - (70+ 16) = 14% Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI ... Percentage of both proteins and the other dry elements i.e., P = 14+ 16 = 30% : Required angle = 30 100 x 360 = 108°

Question 205

45,"Joseph visits the club on every 5th day, Harsh visits on every 24th day while Sumit visits on every 9th day. If all three of them met at the club on a Sunday, then on which day will all three of them meet again?","a) Monday","b) Wednesday","c) Thursday","d) Sunday"

Answer 205

45,b,,According to the question, The next time they will meet again will be the LCM of these time-periods = LCM of (5, 24, 9) = 360 days Odd number of days in 360 days = Remainder when 360 is divided by 7 = 3. Required day = Sunday + 3 =Wednesday

Question 206

46,"The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits is 54. Consider the following statements 1. The sum of the two digits of the number can determined only if the product of the two digits is known. 2. The difference between the two digits of the number can be determined. Which of the above statements is/are correct?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 206

Let’s say the 2-digit number is 10x + y where x and y are the tens and units digits respectively. When we interchange the positions of the digits, we get a new number: 10y + x. The difference between these two numbers is given as 54. So we have: (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 54 9x – 9y = 54 x – y = 6 From this equation, we can determine that the difference between the two digits of the number is 6. So statement 2 is correct. However, knowing only that x – y = 6 does not allow us to determine the sum of the two digits without additional information. So statement 1 is incorrect.

Question 207

47,"X said to Y, “At the time of your birth I was twice as old as you are at present.” If the present age of X is 42 yr., then consider the following statements 1. 8 yr. ago, the age of X was five times the age of Y. 2. After 14 yr., the age of X would be two times the age of Y. Which of the above statements is/are correct?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 207

47,b,,"Let the present age of Y be x years. According to the question, 42 - x=2x = 3x = 42 =x=42 3 = 14 y. So, at present, the ages of X and Y are 42 yr. and 14 y respectively Statement 1 Ages of X and Y &yr. ago must be 42 - 8 = 34 yr. and 14 - 8 = 6 yr. respectively – Statement is not correct Statement all Ages of X and Y after 14 yr. must be 42 + 14 = 56 yr. and 14 + 14 = 28 yr. respectively Statement il is correct."

Question 208

48,"If the price of an article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is increased by 25%, then what is the net change in the price?","a) 0%","b) 5% increase","c) 5% decrease","d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data"

Answer 208

48,a,,"Let the initial price of the article be 100 Now, price of article on decreasing the initial price by 20% = 100 - 20% of 100 = 80. Again, new price is increased by 25%, so the new price =80+ 25% of 80 = 80 + 20 = 100 Initial price = Final (new) price. ... There is 0% change (or no change) in the price."

Question 209

49,"When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111…). What is the smallest such number?","a) 15713","b) 15723","c) 15783","d) 15873"

Answer 209

49,d,,"As the number comprising all 1's is obtained on multiplied by 7, so it means that 7 is the factor of that number. Our answer will be the smallest number comprising all 1's that will be divisible by 7. 111111 7 = 15873 : 15873 is the smallest such number."

Question 210

50,"A man completes 7/8 of a job in 21 days. How many more day will it take him to finish the job if quantum of the work is further increased by 50%?","a) 24","b) 21","c) 18","d) 15"

Answer 210

50,d,,"Given.7 8 th of a job is completed in 21 days. .. Time taken to complete full work = 2 x 8 = 24 days. According to the question, work is further increased by 50%. Number of total days taken = 24 + 50% of 24 = 24 + 12 = 36 days Since, the man completes the work of 21 days already. .. Now, time taken to complete the remaining work = 36 -21 = 15 days."

Question 211

51,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made 1. Modern democracies rely on the market forces to enable them to be welfare states. 2. Markets ensure sufficient economic growth necessary for democracies to be effective. 3. Government programmes are needed for those left behind in economic growth. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 and 3 only","b) 3 only","c) 2 and 3 only","d) 1, 2 and 3"

Answer 211

51,b,,With reference to the passage, government programmes are needed to complement the market outcomes, as the markets cannot ensure equity. Government programmes are also required to help those who have not benefitted by the efficient distribution of resources of the markets. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Question 212

52,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?","a) School curriculum is not compatible with the expectations of children and parents.","b) Emphasis on academic achievements does give time for development of personality and skills.","c) Preparing the children to be better citizens should be the responsibility of the education system,","d) To be a better citizen, the present world order demands societal and life-coping skills in addition to academic content."

Answer 212

52,d,,"Through the passage, it is clear that, as the present world order demands not only societal and life-coping skills but also academic content for making a better citizen. However, the passage demands for teaching them about the bitter caste divide in our society and also providing knowledge about gender sensitivity."

Question 213

53,"There are three points P, Q and R on a straight line such that PQ: QR=3: 5. If n is the number of possible values of PQ: PR, then what is n equal to?","a) 1","b) 2","c) 3","d) 4"

Answer 213

53,,c,,"According to the questions The number of possible values of PQPR will be only 2, i.e., n = 2 as"

Question 214

54,"On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals along a straight path.","a) 4","b) 6","c) 8","d) 12"

Answer 214

54,b,,"On a chess board's diagonal. 6 consecutive squares can be chosen in 3 ways Total number of ways of choosing 6 consecutive squares on the diagonals along a straight path = 3 + 3 = 6"

Question 216

56,"Using 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 as digits, how many distinct numbers greater than 30000 can be formed?","a) 3","b) 6","c) 9","d) 12"

Answer 216

56,b,,"According to the question Required number of numbers = 4! 2!∗2! = 6"

Question 217

57,"Consider the following statements: 1. The sum of 5 consecutive integers can be 100. 2. The product of three consecutive natural numbers can be equal to their sum. Which of the above statements is/are correct?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 217

57,c,,"From statement 1. Let the 5 consecutive numbers be x -2, x - 1, X, *+ 1 and x + 2 (x - 2) + (x - 1) + x + (x + 1) + (x + 2) = 100 5x = 100 = x= 100 5 = 20 So, the numbers are 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22. .: Statement 1 is correct. From statement 2, We know that, 1 x 2 x 3 = 1+ 2+ 3 = 6 ... Statement 2 is also correct."

Question 218

58,"A cubical vessel of side 1m is filled completely with water. How many milliliters of water is contained in it (neglect thickness of the vessel)?","a) 1000","b) 10000","c) 100000","d) 1000000"

Answer 218

58,d,,"According to the question, Volume of the cube = (side) = 1m3 = 1000000 mL"

Question 219

59,"There are 6 persons arranged in a row. Another person has to shake hands with 3 of them, so that he should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the handshakes take place?","a) 3","b) 4","c) 5","d) 6"

Answer 219

59,b,,"According to the question, Required possible ways = C-(4+ 3+2+2+2+3) = 20-(4+ 12) = 20-16= 4"

Question 220

60,"An amount of money was distributed among A, B and C in the ratio p:q: r. Consider the following statements: 1. A gets the maximum share if p is greater than (q + r). 2. C gets the minimum share if r is less than (p + q). Which of the above statements is/are correct?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 220

60,a,,"Ratio of distribution of money among A, B and C = p:q: r From statement 1, If p> (q +), then p is definitely the largest number. So, A must have got the maximum share. ... Statement 1 is correct. From statement 2, If r < (p+q), then r may or may not be the smallest number So, C may or may not have got the minimum share. Statement 2 is incorrect."

Question 221

61,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?","a) Efficacy of universities would be better in online mode of conducting classroom tuition as compared to conventional method.","b) Availability of higher education can be made easier and cheaper without diluting the content.","c) We need not invest much in infrastructure related to higher education and yet develop better human and social capital.","d) Private sector institutions in higher education as well as coaching institutes can take advantage of this opportunity and thrive well."

Answer 221

61,B ,The central idea of the passage is development of better human and social capital is more important than investing in infrastructure related to higher education. So that a pool of knowledge at par with other universities can be created, with integration of online courses.

Question 222

62,"Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?","a) Our cities need to have well-defined administrative set up with sufficient autonomy.","b) Ever increasing population densities is a hindrance in our efforts to achieve sustainable development.","c) To maintain and develop our cities, we need to adopt sustainability related interventions.","d) Public-Private Partnership mode of development is the viable long-terms solution for the infrastructure and sustainable problems of India."

Answer 222

62,c,,"We can assume through the passage that climate change caused due to increasing population density and infrastructure. Therefore, to maintain and develop our cities, we need to adopt sustainability related intervention."

Question 223

63,"Jay and Vijay spent an equal amount of money to buy some pens and special pencils of the same quality from the same store. If Jay bought 3 pens and 5 pencils and Vijay bought 2 pens and 7 pencils, then which one of the following is correct?","a) A pencil costs more than a pen.","b) The price of a pencil is equal to that of a pen.","c) The price of a pen is two times the price of a pencil.","d) The price of a pen is three times the price of a pencil."

Answer 223

63,C,,"Let the price of a pen and a pencil be rupeesx and rupeesy respectively .. According to the question, 3x + 5y = 2x + 7y 3x - 2x = 7y - 5y x = 2y So, price of a pen is twice as that of a pencil."

Question 224

64,"P scored 40 marks more than Q in an examination. If Q scored 10% less marks than P, then how much did Q score?","a) 360","b) 380","c) 400","d) 420"

Answer 224

64,a,,Let the marks scored by Q be x. So, the marks scored by P= x + 40. According to the question, x = 90% of (x + 40) 10x = 9x + 360 10x - 9x = 360 x = 360

Question 225

65,"A person P asks one of his three friends X as to how much money he had. X replied, “If Y gives me rupees 40, then Y will have half of as much as Z, but if Z gives me rupees 40, then three of us will have equal amount”. What is the total amount of money that X, Y and Z have?","a) rupees 420","b) rupees 360","c) rupees 300","d) rupees 270"

Answer 225

65,b,,"Let the amount of money of X, Y and Z be x, y and z respectively According to the question, y - 40 = z/2 Z = 2y - 80 …(I) and x + 40 = y = z - 40 Z=y+ 40 …(ii) From east. (l) and (ii), we get 2y - 80 = y + 40 y= 120 x = y - 40 = 120 - 40 = 80 and Z = y + 40 = 120 + 40 = 160 .. Total amount of money = 120 + 80 - 160 – 360"

Question 226

66,"In code language ‘MATHEMATICS’ is written as ‘LBSIDNZUHDR’. How ‘CHEMISTRY’ written in that code language?","a) DIDLHRSSX","b) BIDNHTSSX","c) BIDLHTSSX","d) DGFLIRUQZ"

Answer 226

66,b,,as Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI

Question 227

67,"At which one of the following times, do the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock make an angle of 180° with each other?","a) At 7:00 hours","b) Between 7:00 hours and 7:05 hours","c) At 7:05 hours","d) Between 7:05 hours and 7:10 hours"

Answer 227

67,d,,Angle of 180° means that they must be directly opposite to each other. This will happen a little after 7:05 hours

Question 228

68,"In an objective type test of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions, a student got a total of 387 marks. What is the number of incorrect responses?","a) 9","b) 13","c) 27","d) 43"

Answer 228

68,a,,Given, total number of questions = 90 and 5 marks given to each correct answer So, maximum marks possible = 90 x 5 = 450 According to the question, every incorrect answer will decrease the maximum score by 5 + 2 = 7 marks. Number of incorrect responses = 450−387 7 = 63 7 = 9

Question 229

69,"Consider the following addition problem 3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are different digits. What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums?","a) 102","b) 120","c) 202","d) 220"

Answer 229

69,c,,"Given, 3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2 30 + P + 40 + P + 10P + P + 10P + P = 100R + 10Q + 2 24P + 70 = 100R + 10Q + 2 The unit digit of the resultant is 2. It will be obtained when 4 is multiplied by P. So, P must be 3 or 8. If P = 3. then, 24P + 70 = 24 x 3 + 70 = 72 + 70 = 142 and If P = 8, then, 24P + 70 = 24 x 8 + 70= 192 + 70 = 262 Arithmetic sum of 142 and 262 = 142 +262 = 404 Required mean = 𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚 = 404 2 = 202"

Question 230

70,"Considering the following multiplication problem: (PQ) x 3= RQQ, where P, Q and R are different digits and R ≠0. What is the value of (P + R) ÷ Q?","a) 1","b) 2","c) 5","d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data"

Answer 230

70,b,,Given, PQ x 3 =ROQ (10P + Q) x 3 = 100R + 10QM + Q 30P + 3Q = 100R + 11Q 30P = 100R + 8Q The last digit of 30P will be 0, as well as that of 100R. So, the last digit of 8Q must also be 0. So, the value of Q must be 5. 3P = 100R + 8Q = 100R + 40 = 3P = 10R + 4 If R = 2, then P = 24/3 = 8 (an integer) : P = 8, Q = 5 and R = 2 that implies, 85 x 3 =255 So. 𝑃+𝑅 𝑄 = (8+2) 5 = 10 5 = 2

Question 231

71,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?","a) The conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state.","b) Unless a ruling authority decides as to what is right or wrong, no man would be morally right.","c) Man is inherently immoral and selfish in a natural state.","d) The idea of what is right or wrong is necessary for the survival of human species."

Answer 231

71,a,,"According to the passage what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state. It is proven by the following lines of- ""sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only in a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state."""

Question 232

72,"Which of the following statements best reflect the rational, plausible and practical implications that can be derived from the passage given above? Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1. Too much globalization is not in the best interests of any country. 2. Modern technologies are increasingly blurring the economy borders. 3. Innovation and capital have impinged on the domain of the state. 4. Public policy of every country should focus on developing its own supply chains. 5. Geopolitics will have to reconcile to many ambiguities and uncertainties.","a) 1, 4 and 5 only","b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only","c) 2, 3 and 5 only","d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5"

Answer 232

72,c,,"According to the passage, modern technologies are increasingly diminishing the economic border across the globe. On the other hand, innovation and capital have rebounded the domain of the state. However, the passage also suggests that increasing commodification of many new technologies like artificial intelligence and robotics as well as lethal autonomous weapons will pose severe danger in near future."

Question 233

73,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage given above?","a) Lending by the banks should be closely monitored and regulated by the Central Government.","b) Interest rates should be kept low so as to induce banks to lend more, promote credit growth and thereby boost economic activity.","c) Merger of many banks into a few large banks alone is the long-term solution to make them viable and prevent their bad performance.","d) Indian banking system requires structural reforms as a long-term solution for bad loans problem."

Answer 233

73,d,,"The passage clearly states that unless there are Systematic reforms that specifically address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system"

Question 234

74,"In India the objective of macroeconomic policy is to enhance the economic welfare of the people, and any one wing of such macro policy, monetary or fiscal, cannot independently work without active support of another.","a) The central government cannot work independently of the government.","b) Government should regulate financial markets and institutions closely","c) Market economy is not compatible with the socialist policies of the Government.","d) Financial sector reforms are required for enhancing the economic welfare of the people."

Answer 234

74,a,,In the given options (a), is a correct corollary in the passage, because anyone wing of such macro policy. monetary or fiscal cannot independently work without active support of another, as the Central Bank deals with the monetary policy, while the government looks after the fiscal policy

Question 235

Q. Consider the following table: Player Runs scored in the 1 s t innings Balls faced in the 1 s t Innings Runs scored in the 2 n d innings Balls faced in the 2 n d innings A 61 99 14 76 B 05 12 50 85 C 15 75 20 50 D 13 55 12 50

Answer 235

75,b,,Fastest run scorer means the batsman that has best ratio of run scored to balls faced. Since best strike rate belongs to batman Batsman B is the fastest run scorer

Question 236

76,"Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are under 25 yr. of age. Which one of the following statements is certainly correct?","a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.","b) Some villagers under 25 yr. of age are literate.","c) Only half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate.","d) No villagers under 25 yr. of age has his own house."

Answer 236

76,b,,50% of the villagers have their own house 20% of the villagers cultivate paddy 33 33% of the villagers are literate 80% of the villagers are under 25 yr. of ago At least some of the villagers under 25 yr. of age must be literate

Question 237

77,"Consider two statements and a question: Statement 1 The last day of the month is a Wednesday. Statement 2The third Saturday of the month was the seventeenth day. Question What day is the fourteenth of the given month? Which of the following is correct in respect of the statements and the question?","a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question","b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question","c) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are required to answer the question","d) Neither Statement 1 nor statement 2 alone sufficient to answer the question"

Answer 237

77,b,,"From statement 1 The last day of the month is a Wednesday. However, we do not know the number of days in the month so we cannot find the day on the 14th of that month. .. Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question From Statement 2, 17th of that month is the third Saturday So. 14th of that month must be a Wednesday! .. Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question"

Question 238

78,"which day is 10th October,2027?","a) Sunday","b) Monday","c) Tuesday","d) Saturday"

Answer 238

78,a,,"Since 2000 is a century leap year, so odd days in 2000 yr. = 0 Now, odd days in 26 yr. = Remainder of (20 x 1 + 6x2) when divided by 7 = 4 days. Now, odd days from 1st January, 2027 to 10th October, 2027 = Remainder when 283 divided by 7 =3 Total number of odd days = 4 + 3 = 7: Required day = Sunday."

Question 239

79,"Consider two statements and four conclusions given below. You have to take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion (s) logically follows/follow from the statements, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statement 1 Some greens are blues. 2 Some blues are blacks. Conclusion 1 Some greens are blacks. 2 No green is black 3 All greens are blacks. 4 All blacks are greens. Which one of the following is correct?","a) Conclusion 1 and conclusion 2","b) Conclusion 2 and conclusion 3","c) Conclusion 3 and conclusion 4","d) Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 and nor 4"

Answer 239

79,,D,"From statement, Conclusion: 1. X, 2. X, 3. X, 4. X Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4 follow."

Question 240

80,"What is the value of ‘X’ in the sequence 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822?","a) 603","b) 605","c) 607","d) 608"

Answer 240

80,,a,"Sequence of the series is as follows, X = 607"

Question 241

1,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Relying on foreign investment in the long run is not an economically sound policy. 2. Policies must be undertaken to reduce volatility in foreign private investment. 3. Policies must be undertaken to strengthen domestic private investment. 4. Public investment should be given priority over private investment. 5. Substantial public investment in education and health should be undertaken. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1, 2 and 4","b) 1, 3 and 5","c) 2, 4 and 5","d) 3 only"

Answer 241

1,b,"(b)","Statement 1 is a correct assumption since the passage clearly highlights the negative consequences of foreign investment. Statement 2 is wrong since it implies that the State has the ability to interfere and reduce volatility in foreign private investment. This is contrary to economic logic and the passage also makes no such reference to capability of the State to reduce such volatility. Statement 4 seems to be correct given the passage begins by highlighting that private investment is volatile. Similarly, Statement 5 sounds correct for it gives primacy to the importance of public investment in some sectors. Since Statement 2 is wrong, it is therefore prudent to eliminate Options (a) & (c). Option (d) does not include Statements 1, 4, or 5. Therefore, the most valid option seems to be Option (b)."

Question 242

2,"With reference to the above passage, which of the following could be the most rational and practical implications for India? 1. Inter-linking of rivers should be undertaken. 2. A network of dams and canals should be built across the country for proper distribution of water. 3. Farmers should be provided easy loans for digging borewells. 4. Usage of water for agriculture should be regulated by law. 5. Distribution of river water among regions should be regulated by the Union Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.","a) 1 and 2","b) 2, 4 and 5","c) 1, 3 and 4","d) 2, 3 and 5"

Answer 242

2,a,"(a)","Statement 1 is correct since this is an attempt to optimize and efficiently utilize the skewed distribution of water in the country's rivers. Statement 2 is correct because it implies the need to ensure proper distribution of water, the need for which is brought out in the last sentence of the passage, that says millions suffer from droughts and floods. Statement 3 is contrary to logic since digging borewells would have an adverse impact on the distribution of water. Furthermore, the passage does not mention the inability of farmers to secure credit to dig borewells. Hence, it cannot be the correct implication from the same. Statement 4 is incorrect because the passage does not make any reference to the lack of regulations around usage of water for agriculture. Statement 5 is incorrect since the passage does not bring out inability of states or federal relations as reasons for the skewed distribution of water. By elimination, Option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 243

3,"With references to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Lower tax rates in a country invariably translate into greater investments in higher education. 2. Investment in the education of children ensures their economic freedom. 3. Economic freedom has a positive impact on building up human capital. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) 3 only","d) 1, 2 and 3"

Answer 243

3,c,"(c)","Statement 1 is incorrect since it implies that lower tax rates will always lead to greater investment in higher education. Although, the passage discusses the direct correlation between the two, the use of the word invariably makes it an extreme statement. Statement 2 is incorrect because it is economic freedom, resulting from lower tax rates, that ensures investment in higher education and not vice versa. Statement 3 is correct since greater economic freedom makes way for investment in education which is a key component for building human capital. Although Statement 1 may look correct, there is no option for marking Statements 1 & 2 as correct assumptions. Hence, the most appropriate answer is Option (c)."

Question 244

4,"What is the most logical and crucial message conveyed by the passage?","a) Urban local bodies must recover costs through user charges.","b) Urban local bodies are not efficient enough to meet the water requirements of our cities.","c) Water shortage in our cities is a perennial problem that cannot be solved.","d) In view of the water crisis in our cities, there is an urgent need to limit the population of cities by adopting an upper limit of population size."

Answer 244

4,a,"(a)","Option (a) is correct since the passage clearly implies that financing mechanisms have to be put in place for ULB’s to sustain. Levying user charges can be one such mechanism. Option (b) is incorrect since the passage only talks about lack of proper financing mechanisms that would fund the infrastructure to ensure water delivery. Inefficiency implies that there are funds but are not utilized well. Option (c) is incorrect because the first sentence of the passage itself implies that sustainable delivery of water is possible if proper financing mechanisms are in place. Hence, water shortage in our cities is a problem that can be solved. Option (d) is incorrect since the passage makes no mention of overpopulation as a reason for water shortage."

Question 245

5,"Which reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Rich cities only can ensure sustainable delivery of water. 2. Sustainable delivery of water in cities means much more than supplying water to households. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 245

5,b,"(b)","Statement 1 is incorrect since the passage talks about having proper financing mechanisms to ensure sustainable delivery of water. About rich cities it only says that they can afford free supply of water which implies that cities that are not rich need to raise finances to ensure the same. It does not hold it impossible for cities that are not rich to ensure sustainable delivery of water. Statement 2 is correct since sustainable delivery of water not only involves collection, treatment and distribution of water, but also investments in sewerage infrastructure and sewage treatment plants. Hence by elimination, Option (b) is the correct answer."

Question 247

7,"Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the passage?","a) India should create large-scale off-farm rural employment to reduce poverty in the near future.","b) India should create a large number of farmer producer companies.","c) Private investment in agriculture should be given priority over public investment.","d) Inclusive agricultural growth is key to reduce poverty in the near future"

Answer 247

7,d,"(d)","The main theme of passage is poverty reduction in India and it highlights two reasons for poverty reduction in countries like China, Vietnam and India. Firstly, by structural and rural transformation (in China & Vietnam) and secondly, by relative change in price scenario in wake of rising global prices which in turn boosted private investment in agriculture (in India). So, option (c) seems right answer but option (d) carries broader ambit. 'Inclusive agriculture growth' can be interpreted as agriculture with structural changes where there is scope for building value chain for high value agri-products, transformation of villages, along with investment from both private and public entities."

Question 248

8,"Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below with regard to four members P, Q, R and S followed by a Questions: S1: R is greater than P as well as Q. S2: S is not the largest one. Question: Among four numbers P, Q, R and S, which one is the largest? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?","a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.","d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question."

Answer 248

8,c,"(c)","S1 : R is greater than P as we as Q, i.e. R > P/Q S2 : S is not the largest number. Either of the two statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Reading both statements together, we can conclude that: R > P/Q/S Hence, we can say that S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question. Hence, option (c) is the answer."

Question 249

9,"Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question: S1: n is a prime number. S2: n leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 4. Question: If n is a unique natural number between 10 and 20, then what is n? Which one of the following is correct in respect of above Statements and the Question?","a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question."

Answer 249

9,d,"(d)","It’s given that n is a unique natural number between 10 and 20. According to S1, n is a prime number. So, our number n may be: 11, 13, 17 or 19 According to S2, on dividing n by 4 we get a remainder of 1. So, n can be: 13, 17 Either of the two statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Even if we read both the statements together, we do not get a unique value of n. Instead, we end up with two possible values of n, i.e. 13 & 17. Hence, we can say that even S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the question. Hence, option (d) is the answer."

Question 250

10,"Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below with regard to two numbers followed by a Question: S1: Their product is 21. S2: Their sum is 10. Question: What are the two numbers? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the question?","a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question."

Answer 250

10,c,"(c)","According to S1, the product of numbers is 21. So, numbers can be: (3, 7) or (1, 21) According to S2, sum of numbers is 10. So, numbers can be: (1, 9), (2, 8), (3, 7), (4, 6) or (5, 5) Either of the two statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question. If we read both the statements together, we can see that the required two numbers with product of 21 and sum of 10 are: (3, 7) Hence, we can say that both S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question. Hence, option (c) is the answer."

Question 251

11,"Which one of the following is best implied in the passage?","a) Strong measures need to be taken to reduce the rural to urban migration of labour.","b) The working condition in construction and unregistered manufacturing needs to be improved.","c) Service sector has been reducing the problem of unemployment.","d) Increased social sector spending is imperative for large-scale job creation."

Answer 251

11,d,"(d)","Option A is incorrect: The passage mentions a migration of labour from the agricultural sector to other sectors such as construction and unregistered manufacturing. Nowhere does it mention a rural to urban migration. Option B is incorrect: The passage states that 'construction and manufacturing are not markedly better jobs'. However, it does not state as to why? There might be many reasons for this- 'working conditions' is at best an assumption. For example, (for the sake of argument), it might be stated so in the passage as these sectors might not be as productive or lucrative, income wise, while the working conditions might be okay. Therefore, option B only states an assumption. Option C is incorrect: The given statement in option C is neither stated anywhere in the passage, nor implied. In fact, the passage clarifies that 'services are not generating the additional jobs that the country needs'. Option D is correct: In the last line of the passage, it is stated that 'Only those sectors that drive domestic demand such as health and education can comfortably fill the other half', (the other half referring to the 'job-gap'). Now, health and education belong to the social sector. Therefore, it is implied that the author is calling for increased spending in these sectors, so that they might be able to create the necessary jobs (read large scale job-creation)."

Question 252

12,"On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. State should have some institutions to ensure its appropriate role in a digital society. 2. State should ensure that private parties do not violate the citizens’ right to privacy. 3. Digital economy is not compatible with the idea of not violating the citizens’ privacy. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 and 2","b) 3 only","c) 1 and 3","d) 2 only"

Answer 252

12,a,"(a)","Statement 1 is a valid assumption: The passage states that the state must abstain from preventing of citizens’ rights, and also actively ensure that private parties are not able to block it. Now, in order to ensure that the state is not involving in an activity or directly preventing the citizens from exercising their rights, with respect to the right to privacy in a digital era, the state would do well to establish institutions to check its functioning from time to time and, hence, ensure its appropriate role in a digital society. Statement 2 is a valid assumption: The passage clearly states that the states must actively ensure that private parties are not able to block the exercise of rights by the citizens. As the main theme of the passage is the right to privacy in a digital era, the assumption made in statement 2, is thus correct. Statement 3 is an invalid assumption: Nowhere does the passage state or imply that digital economy is harmful in any way, such as not being compatible with the non-violation of citizen’s privacy. This is a rather extreme and incorrect assumption, as, according to the passage, there might be threats to the given right in a digital age, but this is preventable if appropriate measures are taken by the state. Hence option (a) is the correct answer."

Question 255

15,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Biotechnology regulation is an evolving process. 2. Participation of people is needed in policy decisions regarding biotechnology regulation. 3. Biotechnology regulation should take into account socio-economic aspects in decision-making. 4. Wider involvement of political executive in biotechnology regulation improved its effectiveness in dealing with the country’s trade policies and international obligations. Which of the above assumptions are valid?","a) 1, 2 and 4 only","b) 1 and 3 only","c) 2, 3 and 4 only","d) 1, 2, 3 and 4"

Answer 255

15,a,"(a)","According to the passage, option (a) seems to be the most logical and rational inference. Most invasive species are not harmful thus, they can be utilized to rehabilitate desert areas and wasteland of the country. This option is implicitly supported by the last line 'They are nature's opportunists'."

Question 257

17,"How many zeroes are there at the end of the following product? 1 × 5 ×10 ×15 ×20 ×25 ×30 ×35 ×40 × 45 ×50 × 55 ×60","a) 10","b) 12","c) 14","d) 15"

Answer 257

17,d,"(d)","The passage makes a strong argument in favor of participation of people groups in city planning. Due to the Static Development Plan, the interest of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of cities. If people from different groups participate in city planning then the result would be different. The city will be tolerant, safe, and livable for a large number of citizens."

Question 258

18,"Let XYZ be a three-digit number, where (X + Y + Z) is not a multiple of 3. Then (XYZ + YZX + ZXY) is not divisible by","a) 3","b) 9","c) 37","d) (X + Y + Z)"

Answer 258

18,a,"(a)","From the given passage, statement 1 and 2 can be implied. Statement 3 and 4 have no relation with the passage. In the past when our economy was growing at 3%, employment in the organized sector was growing at 2%. At present, employment declined to 1% despite fast economic growth mainly due to technological progress. Low employment in the organized sector shows a mismatch between a symbiotic relationship with labor-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods."

Question 263

23,"Two Statements are given followed by two Conclusions: Conclusions: Statements: All cats are dogs. All cats are black. Conclusion-I: All dogs are black. Conclusion-II: Some dogs are not black. Which of the above Conclusions logically follows/follow from the two given Statements, disregarding commonly known facts?","a) Only Conclusion-I","b) Only Conclusion-II","c) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II","d) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II"

Answer 263

23,d,"(d)","Conclusion 1: It is clearly mentioned in the statement all the football players have two-wheelers, it doesn't conclude that 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers. Hence, conclusion 1 is false. Conclusion 2: It is mentioned in the statement that every football player has a two-wheeler. However, it is not mentioned that no cricketer has a two-wheeler. Hence, conclusion 2 is false. Conclusion 3: It is mentioned in the passage that a student who doesn't play cricket plays football. But it is not mentioned that a cricket player doesn't play football. Hence, conclusion 3 is false. None of the conclusions can be drawn from the above data."

Question 264

24,"Consider the following sequence of numbers: 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6 How many odd numbers are followed by the odd number in the above sequence?","a) 5","b) 6","c) 7","d) 8"

Answer 264

24,b,"(b)","Let the digit at unit's place be x. Let the digit at ten's place be y. Original number = 10y + x. New number on reversing the digits = 10x + y. According to the question, (10y + x)/(10x + y) = 4/7. 70y + 7x = 40x + 4y. 66y = 33x. x = 2y. When x = 2, y = 1. The numbers are 12 and 21. When x = 4, y = 2. The numbers are 24 and 42. When x = 6, y = 3. The numbers are 36 and 63. When x = 8, y = 4. The numbers are 48 and 84. Now, if we make y = 5, then x becomes 10 and the number becomes a three-digit number. Only 4 pairs of numbers are possible."

Question 265

25,"A is 16th from the left end in a row of boys and V is 18th from the right end. G is 11th from A towards the right and 3rd from V towards the right end. How many boys are there in the row?","a) 40","b) 41","c) 42","d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data"

Answer 265

B

Question 266

26.Three Statements S1, S2 and S3 are given below followed by a Question: S1: C is younger than D, but older than A and B. S2: D is the oldest. S3: A is the older than B. Questions: Who among A, B, C and D is the youngest? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question? a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer theQuestion. b) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question. c) S2 and S3 together are sufficient to answer the Question. d) S1 and S3 together are sufficient to answer the Question.

Answer 266

26,d,(d),"Sita and Gita go swimming after every 2 days and every 3 days interval respectively. They will go together again = LCM of (2+1) and (3+1) = LCM of 3 and 4 = 12 days. Hence, 12 days after 1st January, they will go together again on 13th January."

Question 267

27,"How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by 4?","a) 5","b) 11","c) 12","d) 13"

Answer 267

\The integers between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit are: 4, 14, 24, 34, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 54, 64, 74, 84 and 94 So, there are a total 19 such integers. Out of these, the integers which are divisible by 4 are: 4, 24, 40, 44, 48, 64 and 84 So, the number of integers not divisible by 4 = 19 – 7 = 12 integers

Question 268

28,"Let x, y be the volumes; m, n be the masses of two metallic cubes P and Q respectively. Each side of Q is two times that of P and mass of Q is two times that of P. Let u = m / x and v = n /y. Which one of the following is correct?","a) u = 4v","b) u = 2v","c) v = u","d) v = 4u"

Answer 268

28,c,(c),"According to the question, x ≥ 25: y ≤ 40. Now, y - x = 40 - 25 = 15. y - x ≤ 15. Hence, option (c) is correct."

Question 270

30,"A person bought a car and sold it for Rs. 3,00,000. If he incurred a loss of 20%, then how much did he spend to buy the car?","a) Rs. 3,60,000","b) Rs. 3,65,000","c) Rs. 3,70,000","d) Rs. 3,75,000"

Answer 270

30,b,(b),"Let Rakesh have money = x. In the first condition, the price of the handset = Rs. (x/8). In the second condition (on discount), the price of the handset = Rs. (x/10). Percentage discount = ((Marked price - Sale price) / Marked price) * 100%. Percentage discount = (10 - 8) / 10 * 100% = 20%."

Question 271

31,"In the sum ⊗ + 1 ⊗ + 5 ⊗ + ⊗⊗ + ⊗ 1 = 1 ⊗⊗ for which digit does the symbol ⊗ stand?","a) 2","b) 3","c) 4","d) 5"

Answer 271

31,b,(b),"Total marks of 100 students = 100 x 40 = 4000. New corrected total marks = 4000 - 83 + 53 = 3970. Corrected mean = 3970 / 100 = 39.7."

Question 272

32,"If you have two straight sticks of length 7.5 feet and 3.25 feet, what is the minimum length can your measure?","a) 0.05 foot","b) 0.25 foot","c) 1 foot","d) 3.25 feet"

Answer 272

Correct Answer – (b) 0.25 foot. Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Model Answer: 2 Straight Sticks Length of 7.5 & 3.25 Feet To find the minimum length that can be measured using two straight sticks of length 7.5 feet and 3.25 feet using the Highest Common Factor (HCF) method, we can first convert the lengths to inches: 7.5 feet = 90 inches 3.25 feet = 39 inches Then, we can find the HCF of 90 and 39: 90 = 2 * 3 * 3 * 5 39 = 3 * 13 The common factor is 3, so the HCF is 3 inches. Two Straight Sticks 7.5 & 3.25 Feet Therefore, the minimum length that can be measured with these two sticks is 3 inches, which is equivalent to 0.25 feet. Hence, the correct answer is (b) 0.25 foot.

Question 273

33,"A simple mathematical operation in each number of sequences 14, 18, 20, 24, 30, 32, … results in a sequence with respect to prime numbers. Which one of the following is the next number in the sequence?","a) 34","b) 36","c) 38","d) 40"

Answer 273

c

Question 274

34,"One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting from the first page as 1. The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages is 195. The torn page contains which of the following numbers.","a) 5, 6","b) 7, 8","c) 9, 10","d) 11, 12"

Answer 274

Correct Answer: (b) 7, 8 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Torn Pages Numbers Let us assume that, the numbers written on the both sides of the missing page are x and (x + 1). Since the sum of the numbers on the remaining pages is 195, we can set up the equation: 1 + 2 + 3 + … + (n-1) + n = 195 + x + (x+1) We know that the sum of the first n natural numbers is: 1 + 2 + 3 + … + (n-1) + n = n(n+1)/2 Substituting this in our equation, we get: n(n+1)/2 = 195 + x + (x+1) n(n+1) = 2(195 + 2x + 1) n^2 + n = 2(2x + 196) n^2 + n = 4x + 392 Now we need to find which pair of consecutive numbers (x, x+1) will satisfy this equation. We can try each option: For option (b) x = 7, n = 20, and this satisfies the equation. Therefore, the torn page contains numbers 7 and 8, which is option (b)

Question 275

35,"Consider the following arrangement that has some missing letters: abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d The missing letters which complete the arrangement are","a) a, b, c, d","b) a, b, d, e","c) a, c, c, e","d) b, c, d, e"

Answer 275

35,a,(a),"According to the passage, option (a) is the most logical and rational corollary. Small farmers are most vulnerable to changes caused due to climate change and extreme weather events such as drought, flood, etc., supporting small farmers is an important part of any agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development."

Question 276

36,"Let A3BC and DE2F be four-digit numbers where each letter represents a different digit greater than 3. If the sum of the numbers is 15902, then what is the difference between the values of A and D?","a) 1","b) 2","c) 3","d) 4"

Answer 276

36,e,(e),"Both 1 and 2 can be implied from the above passage. Smallholder farmers produce 41% of food grains and items, thus contributing immensely to National Food Security. If they suffer due to climate change, then there is a potential problem of food insecurity in India. To overcome this problem, India has to strengthen its disaster management capabilities."

Question 277

37,"Two statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question: S1: There are not more than two figures on any page of a 51-page book. S2: There is at least one figure on every page. Question: Are there more than 100 figures in that book? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?","a) Both S1 and S2 are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","b) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.","c) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.","d) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question."

Answer 277

b

Question 278

Q. Consider the following data: Girls’s Average marks in English = 9 Girls’s Average marks in Hindi = 8 Boys’s Average marks in English = 8 Boys’s Average marks in Hindi = 7 Overall Average marks in English = 8.8 What is the value of Overall Average marks in Hindi? (a) 7.8 (b) 7.6 (c) 7.4 (d) 7.2

Answer 278

Correct Answer: (a) 7.8 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Overall Average marks in Hindi Let’s assume that there are x girls and y boys in the class. From the given data we can write two equations: The total marks in English for girls and boys combined is (9x + 8y), and the overall average marks in English is 8.8, so (9x + 8y)/(x+y) = 8.8. The total marks in Hindi for girls and boys combined is (8x + 7y). Solving equation (1) for x in terms of y, we get: x = 4y. Substituting this value of x into the expression for total marks in Hindi, we get: (8(4y) + 7(y))/(4y+y) = (39y)/(5y) = 7.8. So the overall average marks in Hindi is 7.8.

Question 279

39,"A family of two generations consisting of six members P, Q, R, S, T and U has three males and three females. There are two married couples and two unmarried siblings. U is P’s daughter and Q is R’s mother-in-law. T is an unmarried male and S is a male. Which one of the following is correct?","a) R is U’s husband","b) R is S’s wife","c) S is unmarried","d) None of the above"

Answer 279

39,b,(b),"The most logical, rational, and crucial message is that curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment. As the majority of the TB-infected people have little understanding of prevention. If this is diagnosed on the right time, then people can be saved from disastrous health consequences."

Question 280

40,"In the particular year 12th January is a Sunday, then which one of the following is correct?","a) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap year.","b) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is not a leap year.","c) 12th July is Sunday if the year is a leap year.","d) 12th July is a not Sunday if the year is a leap year."

Answer 280

40,d,(d),"According to the passage, 'is' is written as 'sI'. The first month of the second half of the year is July, which will be written as 'jUlY'."

Question 281

41,"PASSAGE – 1 Bank credit to the industrial sector has started shrinking. Its decline has been a serious concern as credit growth is essential to revive investment. The problem’s origins lie in the incomplete reforms of the last 25 years. An institutional change that should have followed the 1991 reforms should have been setting up of a resolution corporation for banks. In a market economy with booms and busts, banks should be allowed to be set up and to fail. Today, we cannot shut down banks because there is not proper system to shut them down. Weak loss-making banks continue to need more capital. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?","a) Indian banking system is not able to help the country in its economic growth.","b) Economic reforms that started in 1991 have not helped in improving the economy to expected levels.","c) India lacks the institutional mechanisms to deal with the failure of banks.","d) Encouraging the foreign investments in our industrial sector is a good alternative to this sector’s dependence on banks for credit."

Answer 281

41,d,(d),"Let the length of the first, second, and third sheets of paper be x, y, z units respectively. Now, we know that the first three single-digit odd prime numbers are 3, 5, and 7. According to the question, y = 5 + z/3 and z = 5 + y. Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get z = 15 units and y = 10 units. Total length of paper = x + y + z = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 units."

Question 282

42,"PASSAGE – 2 India has tremendous potential for solar energy. We all realize that we have to stop burning fossil fuels to meet our energy needs. But certain renewable resources are still going through their cost curves and learning curves to get the required amount of output. The Indian Government has strongly committed to its targets of reducing emissions by 33 per cent by 2030, and towards this it has initiated a strong push towards a gas-based economyand has also invested heavily in renewable energy. However, business houses are wary of investing too heavily in renewable energy at a time when the technology is not yet ready. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?","a) India’s commitment to reduce emissions by 33% is unlikely to be achieved.","b) India should import gas rather than invest in renewable resources.","c) Getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly.","d) India should put in more efforts in the exploration of natural gas."

Answer 282

Correct Answer: (c) Getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly.

Question 283

43,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Governments often provide inefficient and costly subsidies for technologies that may not be ready in the near future. 2. India’s commitment of reducing emissions by 33% by 2030 shall be on the basis of gas-based economy. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 283

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Answer 1 – The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly, as mentioned in the passage: “However, business houses are wary of investing too heavily in renewable energy at a time when the technology is not yet ready.” Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The passage does not provide evidence to support options (a), (b), or (d). The passage mentions that India has initiated a strong push towards a gas-based economy and has invested heavily in renewable energy, which suggests that option (d) is not the correct answer. Answer 2 – Statement 1 can be assumed from the last sentence that subsidies provided are not enough and technology is not mature enough. Statement 2 is not correct because we cannot conclude/assume that reduction in emission shall be achieved on the basis of a gas-based economy.

Question 284

44,"PASSAGE –3 Genome editing is different from genome modification. Genome editing typically involves finding the part of a plant genome that could be changed to render it less vulnerable to disease, or resistant to certain herbicides, or to increase yields. Researchers use ‘molecular scissors’ to dissects the genome and repair it, which is a process that occurs naturally when plants are under attack from diseases and can throw up new mutations that enable the plant to survive future attacks. This evolutionary process can effectively be speeded up now that it is possible to examine plant genomes in detail in laboratories, and create mechanisms through which the relevant genes can be altered very precisely. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Genome editing does not require the transfer of genes from one plant to another. 2. Through genome editing, the chosen genes can be altered precisely in a manner akin to the natural process that helps plants to adapt to the environmental factors. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 284

44,b,(b),"The number of ways of painting the cube are: 1. All black faces 2. All white faces 3. 1 black face 4. 1 white face 5. 2 black opposite faces 6. 2 white opposite faces 7. 2 black faces with a common edge 8. 2 white faces with a common edge 9. 3 black faces with a common corner 10. 3 black faces which are opposite to each other. So, there are a total of 10 possible ways."

Question 285

45,"PASSAGE – 4 Many people understand the connection between solid waste management and health in terms of the consequences of unattended heaps of dry garbage which become home for flies and other vermin. However, there is another aspect that is not well-understood, that is, what happens when unscientific solid waste management combines with poor drainage and dumping of untreated sewage into drains which are meant to carry storm water during rains. The result is choked drains which are full of stagnant water breeding mosquitoes, resulting in the spread of waterborne diseases. In the context of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the passage?","a) In India, the drainage networks are not separate for sewerage and storm water.","b) Urban local bodies do not have enough resources and legislative authority to deal with the problems of waste management.","c) Solid waste management should be integrated with the maintenance of drainage and sewerage networks.","d) Bad management of solid waste and sewerage systems by our municipalities is the reason for drinking water shortages in our cities."

Answer 285

45,d,(d),"There are three possible values of triplets satisfying x + y + z = 6, which are (1, 2, 3), (1, 1, 4), and (2, 2, 2). The total possible triplets are 6 + 3 + 1 = 10."

Question 286

46,"What is the most logical inference from the above passage?","a) State shall not interfere with the religious affairs of the citizens.","b) Religious freedom under the Constitution is open to State intervention.","c) Religious freedom of the citizens is not covered under fundamental rights.","d) Religious practices of any community are immune to State laws."

Answer 286

46,d,(d),"According to the question, $ → ÷; @ → x; # → -. So, 10 # 5 @ 1 $ 5 = 10 - 5 x 1 ÷ 5 = 10 - 5 x 1/5 = 10 - 1 = 9."

Question 287

47,"How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘DELHI’ so that each word has to start with D and end with I?","a) 24","b) 18","c) 12","d) 6"

Answer 287

How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘DELHI’ so that each word has to start with D and end with I?”,”a) 24”,”b) 18”,”c) 12”,”d) 6”

Question 288

48,"A bottle contains 20 liters of liquid A. 4 liters of liquid A is taken out of its and replace by same quantity of liquid B. Again 4 liters of the mixture is taken out and replaced by same quantity of liquid B. What is the ratio of quantity of liquid A to that of liquid B in the final mixture?","a) 4 : 1","b) 5 : 1","c) 16 : 9","d) 17 : 8"

Answer 288

cReplacement of Liquid A & B After the first replacement, the bottle contains 16 litres of liquid A and 4 litres of liquid B. The ratio of liquid A to the total mixture is 16/20 = 4/5. When 4 litres of the mixture is taken out again and replaced by liquid B, we can calculate how much liquid A was removed by multiplying the volume removed (4 litres) by the ratio of liquid A in the mixture (4/5). This gives us (4 * 4/5) = 3.2 litres of liquid A removed. So after this second replacement, there are (16 – 3.2) = 12.8 litres of liquid A left in the bottle and (20 – 12.8) = 7.2 litres of liquid B. The final ratio of liquid A to liquid B is therefore 12.8:7.2, which can be simplified to 16:9

Question 289

49,"The average score of a batsman after his 50th innings was 46.4. After 60th innings, his average score increases by 2.6. What was his average score in the last ten innings?","a) 122","b) 91","c) 62","d) 49"

Answer 289

\After his 60th innings, his average score increased to (46.4 + 2.6) = 49. So his total score after 60 innings was (60 * 49) = 2940. The difference between these two totals is the total score he made in his last ten innings: (2940 – 2320) = 620. So his average score in those last ten innings was (620 / 10) = 62.

Question 290

50,"As a result of 25% hike in the price of rice per kg, a person is able to purchase 6 kg less rice for Rs. 1,200. What was the original price of rice per kg?","a) Rs. 30","b) Rs. 40","c) Rs. 50","d) Rs. 60"

Answer 290

50,b,(b),"If E is ranked third, then according to case II, C gets more marks than E."

Question 291

51,"PASSAGE – 1 Spanish ships in the late 16th century first brought the potato tuber from South America to Europe whereby in the early 19th century, it had become a reliable backup to cereal crops, particularly in the cold, rain-soaked soils of Ireland. The Irish were soon almost wholly dependent on the potato as their staple food. And they were planting primarily one prodigious variety, the ‘Lumper’ potato, whose genetic frailty would be cruelly exposed by the fungus ‘Phytophthora infestans’. In 1845, spores of the deadly fungus began spreading across the country, destroying nearly all the Lumpers in its path. The resulting famine killed or displaced millions. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the passage?","a) For introducing any foreign plant into a country, the soil and climate conditions of that country should be suitable.","b) As a staple food of a country, tuber crops like potato cannot replace cereal crops.","c) Some of the fungal infections of plants cannot be prevented or stopped from spreading across large areas.","d) Relying on a homogeneous food source is not desirable."

Answer 291

d

Question 292

52,"PASSAGE – 2 India is at once among the fastest growing global economies and home to the largest number of malnourished children in world. There are regions where malnutrition is not the exception but the norm. And across the country, malnutrition is the cause of death for roughly half the 1.3 million children who die before their fifth birthday each year. Even those children who survive suffer permanently from the damage that has already been done to their bodies and minds from not getting enough of the right foods and nutrients. Around 44 million children under 5 are stunted. That makes it harder for them to learn in school and subsequently earn a living as adults. Their lifetime earnings potential is almost a quarter less than of their healthy peers. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is/are the most rational and practical implication/implications? 1. India’s Public Distribution System should be monitored by the Union Government. 2. Girls should be encouraged to delay marriage and first pregnancy. 3. Mothers should be encouraged to breastfeed their children immediately after birth. 4. The supply of safe drinking water and proper sanitation facilities to all should be ensured. 5. Authorities should ensure the vaccination as prescribed. Select the correct answer using the code given below.","a) 1, 2, 3 and 4","b) 2, 3, 4 and 5","c) 1 only","d) 3 and 5 only"

Answer 292

b

Question 293

53,"Which of the following are the most rational inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. Farmers’ income will be higher with pulse cultivation than with paddy cultivation. 2. Pulse cultivation causes less pollution as compared to paddy cultivation. 3. Pulse straw can be used to improved soil quality. 4. In the context of northern Indian agriculture, paddy straw has no usefulness. 5. Mechanized agriculture is the main cause for stubble burning. Select the correct answer using the code given below.","a) 2, 3 and 5","b) 1, 4 and 5","c) 2 and 3 only","d) 1 and 4 only"

Answer 293

b

Question 294

54,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. High risks involved in holding maximum water in reservoirs are due to our over-dependence on hydropower projects. 2. Storage capacity of dams should not be fully used before or during monsoon season. 3. Role of dams in flood control is underestimated in India. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 and 2 only","b) 2 only","c) 3 only","d) 1, 2 and 3"

Answer 294

c

Question 295

55,"Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. It is essential to rethink and redefine the economic role of the State in the quest for development. 2. India has not made effective implementation of its policies in social sectors nor made sufficient investments in them. Select the correct answer using the code given below.","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 295

c

Question 296

56,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. India’s economy needs to be greatly integrated with global economy so as to create large number of jobs and to sustain its growth momentum. 2. Economic liberalization would cause large economic growth which would reduce poverty and create sufficient employment in the long run. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?","a) 1 only","b) 2 only","c) Both 1 and 2","d) Neither 1 nor 2"

Answer 296

56,b,(b),"On the basis of the above passage, only statement (2) is a valid assumption. The babies of malnourished mothers generally tend to be malnourished."

Question 297

57,"A shop owner offers the following discount options on an article to a customer: 1. Successive discounts of 10% and 20%, and then pay a service tax of 10%. 2. Successive discounts of 20% and 10%, and then pay a service tax of 10%. 3. Pay a service tax of 10% first, then successive discounts of 20% and 10%. Which one of the following is correct?","a) 1 only is the best option for the customer.","b) 2 only is the best option for the customer.","c) 3 only is the best option for the customer.","d) All the options are equally good for the customer."

Answer 297

57,b,(b),"On the basis of the above passage, the 3rd statement is a valid assumption. Melting glaciers can reduce marine biodiversity in some areas because of increased levels of suspended sediment in water. Statement 1 and 2 do not have much relevance to the passage."

Question 298

58,"The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to 26 respectively. If GHI = 1578 and DEF = 912, then what is ABC equal to?","a) 492","b) 468","c) 262","d) 246"

Answer 298

GHI = 1578 and DEF = 912 When alphabets are numbered, then: GHI = 789 DEF = 456 ABC = 123 According to the question, GHI = 1578 = 789 × 2 DEF = 912 = 456 × 2 ABC = 123 × 2 = 246

Question 299

59,"What is the missing term @ in the following? ACPQ:BESU:MNGI: @","a) NPJL","b) NOJM","c) NPIL","d) NPJM"

Answer 299

59,a,(a),"Humans have been the main reason for the large-scale extinction of plant species due to their dependence on a few high-yielding varieties and technologically driven production. If some mutating crop disease or future climate change occurs, then the present style of production and distribution of food will eventually lead to the problem of food scarcity in the near future. Hence, assumptions 1 and 3 are valid."

Question 300

60,"What is the largest number among the following? (a) (1/2)-6 (b) (1/4)-3 (c) (1/3)-4 (d) (1/6)-2","a) (1/2)-6","b) (1/4)-3","c) (1/3)-4","d) (1/6)-2"

Answer 300

60,c,(c),"The pattern is as follows: X = 76."

Question 301

61,"A person X can complete 20% of work in 8 days and another person Y can complete 25% of the same work in 6 days. If they work together, in how many days will 40% of the work by completed?","a) 6","b) 8","c) 10","d) 12"

Answer 301

61,a,(a),"The clock moves fast by 10 minutes in 24 hours. The time from 8:00 am on Monday till 6:00 pm on Wednesday is 58 hours. So, the clock moves fast by (10/24) * 58 minutes = 24.1 minutes, which is approximately 24 minutes. The correct time is 5:36 pm."

Question 302

62,"A car travels from a place X to place Y at an average speed of v km/hr., from Y to X at an average speed of 2v km/hr., again from X to Y at an average speed of 3v km/hr. and again from Y to X at an average speed of 4v km/hr. Then the average speed of the car for the entire journey",a) is less than v km/hr.|b) lies between v and 2v km/hr.|c) lies between 2v and 3v km/hr.|d) lies between 3v and 4v km/hr.

Answer 302

Correct Answer: (b) Lies between v and 2v km/hr Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Car travels from place x to place y Let’s say the distance between place X and place Y is D km. The total distance traveled by the car during its entire journey would be (4 * D) = 4D km. The time taken for each leg of the journey would be: From X to Y: D/v hours From Y to X: D/(2v) hours From X to Y: D/(3v) hours From Y to X: D/(4v) hours So the total time taken for the entire journey would be (D/v + D/(2v) + D/(3v) + D/(4v)) = (25D/12v) hours. Therefore, the average speed of the car for the entire journey would be (total distance)/(total time) = (4D)/(25D/12v) = (48/25)v. This value lies between v and 2v, so the correct answer is indeed (b) Lies between v and 2v km/hr. Car Journey from X to Y Solution

Question 303

63,"Consider the following statements: 1. The minimum number of points of intersection of a square and a circle is 2. 2. The maximum number of points of intersection of a square and circle is 8. Which of the above statements is/are correct?",a) 1 only|b) 2 only|c) Both 1 and 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 303

Statement 1: The minimum number of points of intersection of a square and a circle is 2. Statement 2: The maximum number of points of intersection of a square and a circle is 8. Thus, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Question 304

64,"A man takes half time in rowing a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is the ratio of the speed in still water to the speed of current?",a) 1 : 2|b) 2 : 1|c) 1 : 3|d) 3 : 1

Answer 304

Correct Answer: (d) 3:1 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Rowing & Speed of Current Let’s say the speed of the man in still water is v and the speed of the current is c. When rowing downstream (with the current), his effective speed would be (v + c). When rowing upstream (against the current), his effective speed would be (v – c). According to the problem statement, it takes him half as much time to row a certain distance downstream than upstream. Since time = distance/speed, this means that his downstream speed must be twice his upstream speed: (v + c) = 2(v – c). Solving this equation for v and c, we get: v = 3c. So the ratio of the man’s speed in still water to the speed of the current is 3:1

Question 305

65,"How many pairs of natural numbers are there such that the difference of whose squares is 63?",a) 3|b) 4|c) 5|d) 2

Answer 305

Correct Answer: (a) 3 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Pair of numbers whose difference of squares is 63 Let’s say the two natural numbers are x and y, where x > y. The problem statement can be rewritten as: x^2 – y^2 = 63. Factoring the left side of this equation, we get: (x + y)(x – y) = 63. Since x and y are natural numbers and x > y, both (x + y) and (x – y) must also be natural numbers. So we need to find pairs of natural numbers whose product is 63. The only such pairs are (1, 63), (3, 21), and (7, 9). Solving for x and y in each case gives us the following pairs of natural numbers whose squares differ by 63: (32, 31) (12, 9) (8, 1) So there are 3 such pairs of natural numbers.

Question 306

66,"Which one of the following will have minimum change in its value if 5 is added to both numerator and the denominator of the fractions 2/3, 3/4, 4/5 and 5/6?",a) 2/3|b) 3/4|c) 4/5|d) 5/6

Answer 306

Correct Answer: (d) 5/6 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : S is added to both numerator and the denominator Let’s say we add s to both the numerator and denominator of each fraction. The new fractions would be: (2 + s)/(3 + s) (3 + s)/(4 + s) (4 + s)/(5 + s) (5 + s)/(6 + s) The change in value for each fraction would be the difference between the new and old fractions: |(2/3) – ((2 + s)/(3 + s))| |(3/4) – ((3 + s)/(4 + s))| |(4/5) – ((4 + s)/(5 + s))| |(5/6) – ((5 + s)/(6 + s))| To find which fraction has the minimum change in value, we can compare these expressions. However, since s is unknown and could be positive or negative, it’s difficult to directly compare them. Instead, let’s consider what happens when s is very large. In that case, the terms 2, 3, 4, and 5 in the numerators become negligible compared to s. Similarly, the terms 3, 4, 5, and 6 in the denominators become negligible compared to s. So when s is very large, all four fractions are approximately equal to 1. In other words, as we add larger and larger values of s to both numerator and denominator of each fraction, all four fractions get closer and closer to 1. Since 5/6 is already closest to 1 among all four fractions, it will have the minimum change in its value.

Question 307

67,"A digit n > 3 is divisible by 3 but not divisible by 6. Which one of the following is divisible by 4?",a) 2n|b) 3n|c) 2n + 4|d) 3n + 1

Answer 307

Correct Answer: (d) 3n+ 1 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Digit n > 3 is divisible by 3 Since n is divisible by 3 but not divisible by 6, it means that n must be an odd multiple of 3. Let’s take n=9 as an example. (a) 2n = 2 * 9 = 18 which is not divisible by 4 (b) 3n = 3 * 9 = 27 which is not divisible by 4 (c) 2n +4 = (2 *9) +4 =22 which is not divisible by 4 (d) 3n +1 = (3 *9)+1=28 which is divisible by 4 So the correct answer is (d) 3n+1.

Question 308

68,"If 1 liter of water weighs 1 kg, then how many cubic millimeters of water will weigh 0.1 gm?",a) 1|b) 10|c) 100|d) 1000

Answer 308

0.1 gram is equal to 100 cubic millimetre

Question 309

69,"A vessel full of water weighs 40 kg. If it is one-third filled, its weight becomes 20 kg. What is the weight of the empty vessel?",a) 10 kg|b) 15 kg|c) 20 kg|d) 25 kg

Answer 309

Correct Answer: (a) 10 kg Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Vessel full of water When the vessel is full of water it weighs 40 kg. When it is one-third filled with water its weight becomes 20 kg. The difference in weight between these two states is 40 – 20 = 20 kg. Since the only difference between these two states is the amount of water in the vessel, we can conclude that two-thirds of the water in the vessel weighs 20 kg. So one-third of the water in the vessel weighs (20/2) = 10 kg. Therefore, when the vessel is empty (i.e., when it has no water), its weight will be (20 – 10) = 10 kg.

Question 310

70,"A frog tries to come out of a dried well 4.5 m deep with slippery walls. Every time the frog jumps 30 cm, slides down 15 cm. What is the number of jumps required for the frog to come out of the well?",a) 28|b) 29|c) 30|d) 31

Answer 310

Correct Answer: (b) 29 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Frog tries to come out of well With each jump, the frog effectively moves up by 30 cm – 15 cm = 15 cm. The total distance the frog needs to cover to get out of the well is 4.5 m or 450 cm. If we divide the total distance by the effective distance covered in each jump we get: 450 cm / 15 cm/jump = 30 jumps However, this calculation assumes that the frog slides down after its last jump which is not the case since it would have already reached the top of the well. So we need to subtract one jump from our previous calculation to account for this and get a final answer of 29 jumps.

Question 311

71,"What is the greatest length x such that 3𝟏/𝟐 m and 8𝟑/𝟒 m are integral multiples of x?",a) 11/2 m|b) 11/3 m|c) 11/4 m|d) 13/4 m

Answer 311

D

Question 312

Q. Consider the following data: For which period was the natural growth rate maximum? Year : Birth rate – Death rate 1911-1921 : 48.1 – 35.5 1921-1931 : 46.4 – 36.3 1931-1941 : 45.2 – 31.2 1941-1951 : 39.9 – 27.4 1951-1961 : 41.7 – 22.8 1961-1971 : 41.1 – 18.9 1971-1981 : 37.1 – 14.8 (a) 1911 – 1921 (b) 1941-1951 (c) 1961 – 1971 (d) 1971-1981

Answer 312

Correct Answer: (d) 1971-1981 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Natural growth rate The natural growth rate is calculated by subtracting the death rate from the birth rate. From the data you provided, we can calculate the natural growth rates for each period: 1911-1921: 48.1 – 35.5 = 12.6 1921-1931: 46.4 – 36.3 = 10.1 1931-1941: 45.2 – 31.2 = 14 1941-1951: 39.9 – 27.4 = 12.5 1951-1961: 41.7 – 22.8 = 18.9 1961-1971: 41.1 – 18.9 = 22.2 1971-1981: 37.1 -14 .8 = 22.3

Question 313

73,"The recurring decimal representation 1.272727 … is equivalent to",a) 13/11|b) 14/11|c) 127/99|d) 137/99

Answer 313

Recurring Decimal 1.272727… To solve this problem, let x = 1.272727… Then, 100x = 127.272727… Subtracting x from 100x, we get: 99x = 126 x = 126/99 We can simplify this fraction by dividing the numerator and denominator by their greatest common factor, which is 3: x = (126/3)/(99/3) = 42/33 We can simplify this fraction further by dividing the numerator and denominator by their greatest common factor, which is 3: x = (42/3)/(33/3) = 14/11 Therefore, the recurring decimal representation 1.272727… is equivalent to 14/11, and the correct answer is (b).

Question 314

74,"What is the least four-digit number when divided by 3, 4, 5 and 6 leaves a remainder 2 in each case?",a) 1012|b) 1022|c) 1122|d) 1222

Answer 314

The lowest 4 digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5 and 6. ∴ The answer is 1022.

Question 315

In adult Population or a city, 40% men and 30% women are married. What is the percentage of married adult population if no man marries more than one woman and no woman marries more than one man; and there are no widows and widowers? (a) 232/7% (b) 34% (c) 240/7% (d) 35%

Answer 315

Correct Answer: (c) 240/7% Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Married Adult Population Let men population be = 100. So no of married men are = 40. Definitely no of married women will be 40 also. 30 women are married in 100. So 40 are married in 100 x 40/30 = 400/3 women population. Now total population = 100 + 400/3 = 700/3. Total married population = 40 + 40 = 80. %age of married population = 80*3*100/700 = 34.28.

Question 316

76,"What is the remainder when 51 × 27 × 35 × 62 ×75 is divided by 100?",a) 50|b) 25|c) 5|d) 1

Answer 316

Correct Answer: (a) 50 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : 51 x 27 x 35 x 62 x 75 Multiplying the digit at ones place of each term in the product 1×7×5×2×5 35×10 350 Diving this by 100 we get remainder as 50

Question 317

Q. A sum of Rs. 2,500 is distributed among X, Y and Z in the ratio ½: ¾: 5/6 What is the difference between the maximum share and the minimum share? (a) Rs. 300 (b) Rs. 350 (c) Rs. 400 (d) Rs. 450

Answer 317

Correct Answer: (c) Rs. 400 Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Rs 2500 distributed amount X, Y & Z Share of X = a/2 Share of Y = 3a/4 Share of Z = 5a/6 Total Share = a/2 + 3a/4 + 5a/6 = a(6 + 9 + 10)/12 = 25a/12 25a/12 = 2500 => a = 1200 Share of X = a/2 = 1200/2 = 600 Share of Y = 3a/4 = 3(1200)/4 = 900 Share of Z = 5a/6 = 5(1200)/6 = 1000 Maximum share = 1000 Minimum Share = 600 Difference = 1000 – 600 = 400

Question 318

78,"For what value of n, the sum of digits in the number (10^n + 1) is 2?",a) For n = 0 only|b) For any whole number n|c) For any positive integer n only|d) For any real number n

Answer 318

Correct Answer: (b) For any whole number n Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper Explanation : Sum of digits in the number (10^n + 1) is 2 for any whole number n. This is because when you raise 10 to any positive integer power n, you get a number that has a 1 followed by n zeros. For example: When n = 0, 10^0 = 1 When n = 1, 10^n = 10 When n = 2, 10^n = 100 When n = 3, 10^n = 1000 When you add one to these numbers (10^n +1), you get a number that has a digit sum of two: When n =0 , (10^n +1) =2 When n =1 , (10^n +1) =11 When n=2 , (10^n +1) =101 When n=3 , (10^n +1) =1001 In each case the sum of digits is equal to two. Note: Whole numbers are non-negative integers, including zero (0, 1, 2, 3, …). They represent whole things without fractions or decimals. Real numbers include all the numbers on the number line: rational numbers (fractions, integers) and irrational numbers (numbers that cannot be expressed as fractions, like √2). They encompass all possible magnitudes and their opposites, describing quantities in the real world.

Question 319

79,"In a class, there are three groups A, B and C. If one student from group A and two students from group B are shifted to group C, then what happens to the average weight of the students of the class?",a) It increases|b) It decreases|c) It remains the same|d) No conclusion can be drawn due to insufficient data

Answer 319

There are three groups a, b and c in a class The average weight of the students in the class remains the same because the total weight of all students in the class does not change. The average weight is calculated by dividing the total weight of all students by the number of students. Since neither the total weight nor the number of students changes when some students are shifted from one group to another within the class, their average weight remains unchanged.

Question 320

80,"How many different sums can be formed with the denomination Rs. 50, Rs. 100, Rs. 200, Rs. 500, and Rs. 2,000 taking at least three denominations at a time?",a) 16|b) 15|c) 14|d) 10

Answer 320

Different sums that can be formed with different denominations The number of different sums that can be formed with the denominations Rs. 50, Rs. 100, Rs. 200, Rs. 500 and Rs. 2,000 taking at least three denominations at a time is 16. Here’s how we can calculate it: There are five denominations in total and we need to choose at least three of them to form a sum. We can use the formula for combinations to calculate the number of ways to choose k items from n items: C(n,k) = n! / (k!(n-k)!), where n is the total number of items and k is the number of items being chosen. Using this formula, we can calculate the number of ways to choose three denominations from five: C(5,3) = 5! / (3!(5-3)!) = 10. Similarly, we can calculate the number of ways to choose four denominations from five: C(5,4) = 5! / (4!(5-4)!) = 5. And finally, there is only one way to choose all five denominations. Adding up all these possibilities gives us a total of 10 + 5 + 1 = 16 different sums that can be formed using at least three denominations.

Question 321

1,"The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is",a) 269|b) 271|c) 300|d) 302

Answer 321

1,c

Question 322

2,"A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same color. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes are big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How many cubes have only one face painted?",a) 4|b) 6|c) 8|d) 10

Answer 322

2,cEach of 4 big cubes will have sides of 6 units each. None of the faces of big cube is painted blue. Therefore, the number of cubes having only one face painted is 8. Hence, 8 is the correct answer.

Question 323

3,"A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, then weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?",a) 60%|b) 45.5%|c) 40%|d) 37.5%

Answer 323

3,d

Question 324

4,"Mr. 'X' has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on 20th December?",a) Monday|b) Thursday|c) Saturday|d) Sunday

Answer 324

4,b 20th Dec Thursday Step-by-step explanation: Mr. X has three children the birth of the first child falls on the 5th monday of april, that of the second one falls on the 5th thursday of november. On which day is birth of his third child which falls on 20th december. 5th Monday of April can be 29th April or 30th April Case 1 : 29th April Monday then 1 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 1 = 186 Days = 26*7 + 4 ⇒1 November = Friday ⇒ 29th , 30th Nov are Friday & Saturday so no 5th Thursday Case 2 : 30th April Monday then 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 1 = 185 Days = 26*7 + 3 ⇒ 1 November = Thursday ⇒ 29th Nov is 5th Thursday ⇒ 6th Dec is Thursday 6 + 2 * 7 = 20 ⇒ 20th Dec id also Thursday (3rd Thursday of December) 20th Dec Thursday

Question 325

5,"Consider the following Statements and Conclusions: Statements 1. Some rats are cats. 2. Some cats are dogs. 3. No dog is a cow. Conclusions I. No cow is a cat. II. No dog is a rat. III. Some cats are rats. Which of the above conclusions is/ are drawn from the statements?",a) I, II and III|b) Only I and II|c) Only III|d) Only II and III

Answer 325

5,c

Question 326

6,"The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is",a) 18|b) 24|c) 32|d) 36

Answer 326

6,d

Question 327

7,"In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football?",a) 4|b) 8|c) 10|d) 12

Answer 327

7,b

Question 328

8,"When a runner was crossing the 12 km marks, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometers was the runner supposed to run in this event?",a) 14|b) 15|c) 16|d) 16.5

Answer 328

8,b

Question 329

9,"Raju has Rs 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset, but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset. Therefore, he borrows Rs 2000 from a friend. Then,",a) Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset.|b) Raju has exactly the same amount as required to buy the handset.|c) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have Rs 500 with him after buying the handset.|d) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have Rs 1000 with him after buying the handset.

Answer 329

9,a

Question 330

10,"In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu's age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu's year of birth?",a) 1992|b) 1994|c) 1996|d) 1998

Answer 330

10,b

Question 331

11,"Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 Rackets. Rakesh spent Rs 1300 and Rajesh spent Rs 1500. If each racket cost three times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket?",a) Rs 70|b) Rs 90|c) Rs 210|d) Rs 240

Answer 331

11,c

Question 332

12,"In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian. 2. At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian. Select the correct answer using the code given below.",a) Only 1|b) only 2|c) both 1 and 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 332

12,e

Question 333

13,"What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of Genetic Modification (GM) technology is an ' Intellectual property Rights' regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. that is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops such properties have only short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help imparts resistance to drought salinity and other stresses.",a) Public research institutions should take the lead in GM technology and prioritize the technology agenda. b) Developing countries should raise this issue in WTO and ensure the abolition of Intellectual property Rights. c) Private corporations should not be allowed to do agribusiness in India, particularly the seed business. d) Present Indian Circumstances do not favor the cultivation of genetically modified crops

Answer 333

13,a

Question 334

14,"On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made. 1. The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies 2. In the long run, GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?",a) Only 1|b) Only 2|c) Both 1 and 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 334

14,a

Question 337

17,"The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are increasingly intolerant, unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways - the Static Development plan - that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people's live experiences and needs, and actively excluding large number of people, places activities and practices that are an integral part of the city. The Passage seems to argue",a) against the monopoly of builders and the interests of elite groups.|b) Against the need for global and smart cities.|c) in favour of planning cities mainly for working class and poor people.|d) in favour of participation of people groups in planning.

Answer 337

17,d

Question 339

19,"Indian has banking Correspondents, who help bring people in the hinterland into the banking fold. for them to succeed, banks cannot crimp on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore investing in financial education and literacy. Banking correspondents are way too small to be viewed as a systemic risk. Yet India's banking regulator has restricted them to serving only one bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage. Efforts at banking outreach may succeed only if there are better incentives at work for such last-mile workers and also those providers who ensure not just basic bank account but also products such as accident and life insurance and micro pension schemes. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?",a) Efforts to bring people in India's hinterland into the banking system are not successful.|b) For meaningful inclusion, India's banking system needs more number of banking correspondents and other such last-mile workers.|c) Financial inclusion in India requires that banking correspondents have diverse skills.|d) Better banking outreach would be impossible unless each banking correspondent is allowed to serve a number of banks.

Answer 339

19,b

Question 341

21,"P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the south of P. What is the distance between Q and R?",a) 140km|b) 130 km|c) 110 km|d) 100 km

Answer 341

21,d

Question 342

22,"All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first day, 80% went for shopping and 50% went sightseeing, whereas 10% took rest in the hotel. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above data? 1. 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing 2. 20% members went for only shopping. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.",a) Only 1|b) only 2|c) Both 1 and 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 342

22,a

Question 343

23,"In a school, 60% students play cricket. A student who does not play cricket, plays football. Every football player has got a two-wheeler. Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from the above data? 1. 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers. 2. No cricketer has a two-wheeler. 3. Cricket players do not play football. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.",a) 1 and 2 only|b) 2 and 3 only|c) 1 and 3 only|d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 343

23,d

Question 344

24,"The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4:7. The number of such pairs is",a) 5|b) 4|c) 3|d) 2

Answer 344

24,b

Question 345

25,"In an examination, A has secured 20 marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less marks than A, how much has B scored?",a) 360|b) 380|c) 400|d) 420

Answer 345

25,b

Question 346

26,"Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3 days respectively. If on 1st January both of them went for a swim together, when will they go together next?",a) 7th January|b) 8th January|c) 12th January|d) 13 January

Answer 346

26,d

Question 347

27,"X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y and Z were to complete in a race of 1000m. How many meters will Y give to Z?",a) 20|b) 25|c) 30|d) 35

Answer 347

27,b

Question 348

28,"If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40, then which one of the following is always correct?",a) x is greater than y.|b) (y-x) is greater than 15.|c) (y-x) is less than or equal to 15.|d) (x-y) is greater than or equal to 65.

Answer 348

28,c

Question 349

29,"Ena was born 4 yr. after her parents ' marriage. her mother is three years younger than her father and 24 yr. older than Ena, who is 13 yr. old. At what age did Ena’ father get married?",a) 22 yr.|b) 23 yr.|c) 24 yr.|d) 25 yr.

Answer 349

29,b

Question 350

30,"Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the retailer offered very good discount on that particular handset. Rakesh could buy 10 mobile handsets with the amount he had. What was the discount the retailer offered?",a) 15%|b) 20%|c) 25 %|d) 30%

Answer 350

30,b

Question 351

31,"The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40. It was found later that marks of one student were 53 which were misread as 83. The corrected mean marks are",a) 39|b) 39.7|c) 40|d) 40.3

Answer 351

31,b

Question 352

32,"Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are cheap commodity items: addressing security would add to the cost. This class of items is proliferating with new applications: many home appliances, thermostats, security and monitoring devices and personal convenience devices are part of the IoT. So, are fitness trackers certain medical implants and computer-like devices in automobiles. The IoT is expected to expand exponentially but new security challenges are daunting. Which one of the following statements is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? a) Development of the enabling technologies in India can be a big boost to its manufacturing sector. b) India is not yet fully ready to adopt IoT in view of the imminent security challenges. c) Life becomes more comfortable with the development of cheap low-end IoT devices. d) As we go digital, we must recognize the huge threat to Internet security from some IoT devices.",a) Development of the enabling technologies in India can be a big boost to its manufacturing sector.|b) India is not yet fully ready to adopt IoT in view of the imminent security challenges.|c) Life becomes more comfortable with the development of cheap low-end IoT devices.|d) As we go digital, we must recognize the huge threat to Internet security from some IoT devices.

Answer 352

32,d

Question 353

33,"With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sector, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital area in an attempt to preemptively colonize it, Big Data is freely collected or mined from developing countries, and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence begins to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing cab service, for instance is not a network of cars and drivers: it is digital intelligence about commuting, public transport, roads traffic, city events. personal behavioral, characteristics of commuters and so on. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage? a) Globalization is not in the interests of Indian as it undermines its socio-economic structures. b) India should be careful to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks. c) Indian should charge monopoly rents from multinational companies in exchange for Big Data. d) The loss of Big Data from India is proportional to the degree/value of its foreign trade.",b) India should be careful to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks.|b) India should be careful to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks.|c) Indian should charge monopoly rents from multinational companies in exchange for Big Data.|d) The loss of Big Data from India is proportional to the degree/value of its foreign trade.

Answer 353

33,b

Question 354

34,"Which of the following is most definitively implied by the above passage? a) Big Data is the key resource in the digital space. b) Big economies create Big Data. c) Access to Big Data is the prerogative of developed countries. d) Access to and possession of Big Data is a characteristic of developed countries.",a) Big Data is the key resource in the digital space.|b) Big economies create Big Data.|c) Access to Big Data is the prerogative of developed countries.|d) Access to and possession of Big Data is a characteristic of developed countries.

Answer 354

34(a)

Question 355

35,"The rural poor across the world, including India have contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer rely on historical averages for rainfall and temperature and the more frequent and extreme weather events such as droughts and floods can spell disaster. And there are new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water supply. How significant are small farms? As many as two billion people worldwide depend on them for their food and livelihood. Small-holder farmers in India produce 41 per cent of the country's food grains and other food items that contribute to local and national food security. What is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage? a) Supporting small farmers is an important part of any agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development. b) Poor countries have little role to play in the mitigation of global warming. c) Due to a large number of farmer households, India will not have food security problem in the foreseeable future. d) Only small-holder farmers in India can ensure food security.",a) Supporting small farmers is an important part of any agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development.|b) Poor countries have little role to play in the mitigation of global warming.|c) Due to a large number of farmer households, India will not have food security problem in the foreseeable future.|d) Only small-holder farmers in India can ensure food security.

Answer 355

35(a)

Question 359

39,"Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage? a) TB is not a curable disease in Indian circumstances. b) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment. c) Government's surveillance mechanism is deficient and poor people have no access to treatment. d) India will be free from diseases like TB only when its poverty alleviation programmes are effectively and successfully implemented.",b) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment.|b) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment.|c) Government's surveillance mechanism is deficient and poor people have no access to treatment.|d) India will be free from diseases like TB only when its poverty alleviation programmes are effectively and successfully implemented.

Answer 359

39(b)

Question 360

40,"If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalised, then how is the first month of the second half of the year written? a) JuLY b) jULy c) jUly d) jUlY",c) jUly|c) jUly|c) jUly|c) jUly

Answer 360

40(d)

Question 361

41,"Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two pieces together. The length of the original sheet of paper is a) 13 units b) 15 units c) 16 units d) 30 units",b) 15 units|b) 15 units|b) 15 units|b) 15 units

Answer 361

41(d)

Question 362

42,"In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many such 5s are there which are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None of these",c) 3|c) 3|c) 3|c) 3

Answer 362

42(a)

Question 364

44,"Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted? a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12",b) 10|b) 10|b) 10|b) 10

Answer 364

44(b)

Question 365

45,"How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are natural numbers? a) 4 b) 5 c) 9 d) 10",c) 9|c) 9|c) 9|c) 9

Answer 365

45(d)

Question 366

46,"If $ means 'divided by.' @ means 'multiplied by,' # means 'minus', then the value of 10#5@1$5 is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 9",d) 9|d) 9|d) 9|d) 9

Answer 366

46(d)

Question 367

47,"An 8-digit numbers 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided by 3. How many values of B are possible? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6",a) 2|a) 2|a) 2|a) 2

Answer 367

47(c)

Question 370

50,"If E is ranked third, then which one of the following is correct? a) E gets more marks than C. b) C gets more marks than E. c) A is ranked fourth. d) D is ranked fifth.",b) C gets more marks than E.|b) C gets more marks than E.|b) C gets more marks than E.|b) C gets more marks than E.

Answer 370

50(b)

Question 374

54,"On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made. In today's global economy, 1. Regulations are not effectively used to protect local markets. 2. Social and environmental concerns are generally ignored by the governments across the world while implementing the regulations. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2",d) Neither 1 nor 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 374

54(d)

Question 375

55,"Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage? a) If malnourished condition in children is caused by gut bacteria, it cannot be treated. b) The guts of malnourished babies should be inoculated with mature microbiomes. c) Babies of malnourished mothers should be fed with dairy milk fortified with sialylated oligosaccharides instead of mother's milk. d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.",d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.|d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.|d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.|d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.

Answer 375

55(c)

Question 376

56,"On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made. 1. Processed probiotic foods are a solution to treat the children suffering from malnutrition due to immature gut bacteria composition 2. The babies of malnourished mothers generalise to be malnourished. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2",d) Neither 1 nor 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2|d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 376

56(b)

Question 378

58,"On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made. 1. Global warming is a frequently occurring natural phenomenon. 2. The impending global warming will not adversely affect small mammals. 3. Humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth’s natural resilience Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) 1 and 2 only b) Only 3 c) 2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3",b) Only 3|b) Only 3|b) Only 3|b) Only 3

Answer 378

58(b)

Question 380

60,What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X?,74,75,76,77

Answer 380

60(c)

Question 383

63,What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X?,48,64,125,256

Answer 383

63(b)

Question 384

64,In a group of 15 people, 7 can read French, 8 can read English while 3 of them can read neither of these two languages. The number of people who can read exactly one language is,10,9,5,4

Answer 384

64(c)

Question 387

67,A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the children and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the mother?,48 kg,50 kg,52 kg,54 kg

Answer 387

67(d)

Question 388

68,Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations: 1,10 and 50. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of 107?,16,17,18,19

Answer 388

68(c)

Question 389

69,'A' started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend 'B' joined him. They together walked 10 m in the same direction. Then 'A' turned left while 'B' turned right and travelled 2 m and 8 m respectively. Again 'B' turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right to reach his office. 'A' turned right and travelled 12m to reach his office. What is the shortest distance between the two offices?,15m,17m,19 m,20m

Answer 389

69(b)

Question 391

71,Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009?,2018,2017,2016,2015

Answer 391

71D

Question 392

72,Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is,2,5,7,8

Answer 392

72(d)

Question 399

79,Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,Different species having similar structure of hands is an example of biodiversity.,Limbs being used by different species for different kinds of work is an example of biodiversity.,Man, and the aforementioned animals having similar structure of limbs is an example of coincidence in evolution.,Man, and the aforementioned animals have shared an evolutionary history.

Answer 399

79(d)

Question 400

80,Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made. 1. Global warming has a bearing on the planet's biological evolution. 2. Separation of land masses causes the release of huge quantities of carbon into the atmosphere. 3. Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere can change the composition of its flora and fauna. 4. The present man-made global warming will finally lead to conditions similar to those which happened 56 million years ago. Which of the assumptions given above are valid?,1 and 2,3 and 4,1 and 3,2 and 4

Answer 400

80(c)

Question 401

Q 1,If LSJXVC is the code for MUMBAI, the code for DELHI is,a) CCIDD,b) CDKGH,c) CCJFG,d) CCIFE

Answer 401

1, a

Question 402

Q 2,If RAMON is written as 12345 and DINESH as 675849, then HAMAM will be written as,a) 92233,b) 92323,c) 93322,d) 93232

Answer 402

2, b

Question 403

Q 3,If X is between – 3 and – 1, and Y is between – 1 and 1, then X^2 – Y^2 is in between which of the following?,a) – 9 and 1,b) – 9 and – 1,c) 0 and 8,d) 0 and 9

Answer 403

3, d

Question 404

Q 4,X and Y are natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which of the following represents the largest number?,a) XY,b) X/Y,c) Y/X,d) (X + Y)/XY

Answer 404

4, a

Question 407

Q 7,According to the passage, which of the following are the consequences of decline in forest cover? 1. Loss of topsoil 2. Loss of smaller rivers 3. Adverse effect on agricultural production 4. Declining of groundwater,1, 2 and 3,2, 3 and 4,1 and 4,1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 407

7, d

Question 408

Q 8,Which of the following is/are the correct inference/ inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. Deforestation can cause changes in the course of rivers 2. Salinisation of land takes place due to human activities only 3. Intense monoculture practice in plains is a major reason for desertification in Tropical Asia, Africa and South America,Only 1,1 and 2,2 and 3,None of the above is a correct inference

Answer 408

8, a

Question 410

Q 10,With reference to the above passage, which of the following would assist us in coping with the climate change? 1. Conservation of natural water sources 2. Conservation of wider gene pool 3. Existing crop management practices 4. Migration corridors,1, 2 and 3,1, 2 and 4,3 and 4,1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 410

10, b

Question 411

Q 11,With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made 1. Diversification of livelihoods acts as a coping strategy for climate change 2. Adoption of monocropping practice leads to the extinction of plant varieties and their wild relatives.,Only 1,Only 2,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 411

11, b

Question 412

Q 12,Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?,The Earth can meet only the basic needs of humans for food, clothing and shelter,The only way to meet environmental challenges is to limit human population,Reducing our consumerism is very much in our own interest,Knowledge of biological systems can only help us save this planet

Answer 412

12, c

Question 413

Q 13,The author of the passage holds the view that,a) leadership can be taught through war experience only,b) leadership can be acquired as well as taught,c) the results of training show that more people acquire leadership than are expected,d) despite rigorous instruction, very few leaders are produced

Answer 413

13, b

Question 414

Q 14,Consider the following graph: Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the graph given below?,On June 1, the actual progress of work was less than expected,The actual rate of progress of work was the greatest during the month of August,The work was actually completed before the expected time,During the period from April 1 to September 1, at no time was the actual progress more than the expected progress

Answer 414

14, d

Question 415

Q 15,For a sports meet, a winners’ stand comprising three wooden blocks is in the following form: There are six different colours available to choose from and each of the three wooden blocks is to be painted such that no two of them has the same colour. In how many different ways can the winners’ stand be painted?,120,81,66,36

Answer 415

15, a

Question 416

Q 16,Looking at the graph, it can be inferred that from 1990 to 2010.,population growth rate has increased,population growth rate has decreased,growth rate of population has remained stable,population growth rate shows no trend

Answer 416

16, a

Question 417

Q 17,With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements considering 1970 as base year: 1. Population has stabilised after 35 years 2. Population growth rate has stabilised after 35 years 3. Death rate has fallen by 10% in the first 10 years 4. Birth rate has stabilised after 35 years Which of the above are the most logical and rational statements that can be made from the above graph?,1 and 2,1, 2 and 3,3 and 4,2 and 4

Answer 417

17, d

Question 418

Q 18,Average hourly earnings per year (E) of the workers in a firm are represented in figures A and B as follows: From the figures, it is observed that the,values of E are different,ranges (i.e. the difference between the maximum and the minimum) of E are different,slopes of the graphs are same,rates of increase of E are different

Answer 418

18, c

Question 419

Q 19,Consider the figures given below: To fit the question mark, the correct answer is,45,48,50,53

Answer 419

19, a

Question 420

Q 20,Consider the following figures A and B: The manufacturing cost and projected sales for a product are shown in the above figures A and B, respectively. What is the minimum number of pieces that should be manufactured to avoid a loss?,2000,2500,3000,3500

Answer 420

20, a

Question 421

Q 21,A lift has the capacity of 18 adults or 30 children. How many children can board the lift with 12 adults?,6,10,12,15

Answer 421

B

Question 422

Q 22,A person bought a refrigerator worth Rs. 22800 with 12.5% interest compounded yearly. At the end of the first year he paid Rs. 8650 and at the end of the second year Rs. 9125. How much will he have to pay at the end of the third year to clear the debt?,Rs. 9990,Rs. 10000,Rs. 10590,Rs. 11250

Answer 422

22, d

Question 423

Q 23,"Consider the following figure: In the figures (I) to (VI) above, some parts are shown to change their positions in regular directions. Following the same sequence, which of the figure given below will appear at (VII) stage?",D,C,A,B

Answer 423

23, b

Question 424

Q 24,"Consider the following graphs: The curves in the graphs indicate different age groups in the population of two countries A and B over a period of few decades. With reference to the above graphs, which of the following are the most logical and rational inferences that can be made? 1. Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country B has decreased 2. By the end of next two and a half decades, the dependency ratio of country A will be much less than that of country B 3. In the next two decades, the workforce relative to its total population will increase in country B as compared to country A Select the correct answer using the code given below.",1 and 2,2 and 3,1 and 3,1, 2 and 3

Answer 424

24, c

Question 425

Q 25,"Lakshmi, her brother, her daughter and her son are badminton players. A game of doubles is about to being: (i) Lakshmi’s brother is directly across the net from her daughter (ii) Her son is diagonally across the net from the worst player’s sibling (iii) The best player and the worst player are on the same side of the net Who is the best player?",Her daughter,Her brother,Her son,Lakshmi

Answer 425

25, a

Question 426

Q 26,"The graph given below indicates the changes in key policy rates made by the Central Bank several times in a year: Which one of the following can be the most likely reason for the Central Bank for such an action?",Anti-inflationary stance,Encouraging foreign investment,Increasing the liquidity,Encouraging both public and private savings

Answer 426

26, d

Question 427

Q 27,"With reference to the above table, which of the following is/are the most logical and rational inference/ inferences that can be made? 1. Higher per capita income is generally associated with higher Tele-density 2. Higher GDP growth rate always ensures higher per capita income 3. Higher GDP growth rate does not necessarily ensure higher Tele-density Select the correct answer using the code given below.",Only 1,2 and 3,1 and 3,Only 3

Answer 427

27, d

Question 428

Q 28,"With reference to the above table, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Now-a-days, prosperity of an already high performing State cannot be sustained without making further large investments in its telecom infrastructure 2. Now-a-days, a very high Tele-density is the most essential condition for promoting the business and economic growth in a State. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?",Only 1,Only 2,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 428

28, d

Question 429

Q 29,"The following graph indicates the composition of our tax revenue for a period of two decades: With reference to the above graph, which of the following is/ are the most logical and rational inference/ inferences that can be made? 1. During the given period, the revenue from Direct Taxes as percentage of gross tax revenue has increased while that of Indirect Taxes decreased 2. The trend in the revenue from Excise Duty demonstrates that the growth of manufacturing sector has been negative during the given period Select the correct answer using the code given below.",Only 1,Only 2,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 429

29, a

Question 430

Q 30,"If x – y = 8, then which of the following must be true? 1. Both x and y must be positive for any value of x and y 2. If x is positive, y must be negative for any value of x and y 3. If x is negative, y must be positive for any value of x and y Select the correct answer using the code given below",Only 1,Only 2,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3

Answer 430

30, d

Question 431

Q 31,"What is the most rational and crucial message given by the passage?",a. Meat-producing industry violates the laws against cruelty to animals,b. Mass production of meat through industrial farming is undesirable and should be stopped immediately,c. Environmental cost of meat production is unsustainable when it is produced through industrial farming,d. Mass production of meat through industrial farming is cheap and is suitable for providing protein nutrition to poor countries

Answer 431

31, d

Question 432

Q 32,"Which of the following is the most rational and crucial message given by the passage?",a. Safe wildlife corridors between protected areas is an essential aspect of conservation efforts,b. India needs to declare more protected areas and set-up more Tiger reserves,c. India’s National Parks and Tiger Reserves need to be professionally managed,d. The conflict between man and wildlife cannot be resolved, no matter what efforts we make

Answer 432

32, b

Question 433

Q 33,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The strategy of conservation of wildlife by relocating them from one protected area to another is not often successful 2. India does not have suitable legislation to save the tigers and its conservation efforts have failed which forced the tigers to live outside protected areas Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?",a. Only 1,b. Only 2,c. Both 1 and 2,d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 433

33, a

Question 434

Q 34,A person bought a refrigerator worth Rs. 22800 with 12.5% interest compounded yearly. At the end of first year he paid Rs. 8650 and at the end of the second year Rs. 9125. How much will he have to pay at the end of third year to clear the debt?,a. Rs. 9990,b. Rs. 10000,c. Rs. 10590,d. Rs. 11250

Answer 434

34, b

Question 435

Q 35,Consider the following figure: In the figures (I) to (VI) above, some parts are shown to change their positions in regular directions. Following the same sequence, which of the figure given below will appear at (VII) stage?,a. D,b. C,c. A,d. B

Answer 435

35, a

Question 436

Q 36,"Consider the following graphs: The curves in the graphs indicate different age groups in the population of two countries A and B over a period of few decades. With reference to the above graphs, which of the following are the most logical and rational inferences that can be made? 1. Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country B has decreased 2. By the end of next two and a half decades, the dependency ratio of country A will be much less than that of country B 3. In the next two decades, the workforce relative to its total population will increase in country B as compared to country A Select the correct answer using the code given below.",a. 1 and 2,b. 2 and 3,c. 1 and 3,d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 436

36, c

Question 437

Q 37,"A number consists of three digits of which the middle one is zero and their sum is 4. If the number formed by interchanging the first and last digits is greater than the number itself by 198, then the difference between the first and last digits is",a. 1,b. 2,c. 3,d. 4

Answer 437

37, b

Question 438

Q 38,A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1 or 2 or 3. 20% of the red balls are numbered 1 and 40% of them are numbered 3. Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2 and 30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random. He wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is black and numbered 1 or 2. What are the chances of his winning?,a. 2/5,b. 7/4,c. 9/5,d. 13/12

Answer 438

38, b

Question 439

Q 39,A solid cube of 3 cm side painted on all its faces, is cut up into small cubes of 1 cm side. How many of the small cubes will have exactly two painted faces?,a. 12,b. 8,c. 6,d. 4

Answer 439

39, b

Question 440

Q 40,While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the digit at hundred’s place is greater than the digit at ten’s place, and the digit at ten’s place is greater than the digit at unit’s place?,a. 61,b. 64,c. 85,d. 91

Answer 440

40, a

Question 441

Q 41,If Pen < Pencil, Pencil < Book and Book > Cap, then which one of the following is always true?,a. Pen > Cap,b. Pen < Book,c. Pencil = Cap,d. Pencil > Cap

Answer 441

41, c

Question 442

Q 42,A bookseller sold ‘a’ number of Geography textbooks at the rate of Rs. x per book, a+2 number of History textbooks at the rate of Rs. (x+2) per book and ‘a – 2’ number of Mathematics textbooks at the rate of Rs. (x – 2) per book. What is his total sale in Rs.?,a. 3x + 3a,b. 3ax + 8,c. 9ax,d. x^3/a^3

Answer 442

42, c

Question 443

Q 43,A is studying in,a. Rajasthan,b. Gujarat,c. City Q,d. Kerala

Answer 443

43, a

Question 444

Q 44,Science College is located in,a. City Q,b. City S,c. City R,d. City P

Answer 444

44, a

Question 445

Q 45,C is studying in,a. Science College,b. Rajasthan,c. Gujarat,d. City Q

Answer 445

45, b

Question 446

Q 46,"Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) D is not studying in City S (b) A is studying in Science College (c) A is studying in Kerala (d) Engineering College is located in Gujarat",a. D is not studying in City S,b. A is studying in Science College,c. A is studying in Kerala,d. Engineering College is located in Gujarat

Answer 446

46, a

Question 447

Q 47,"Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Engineering College? (a) C is studying there (b) B is studying there (c) It is located in Gujarat (d) D is studying there",a. C is studying there,b. B is studying there,c. It is located in Gujarat,d. D is studying there

Answer 447

47, d

Question 448

Q 48,"Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Engineering College is located in Assam (b) City Q is situated in Assam (c) C is studying in Kerala (d) B is studying in Gujarat",a. Engineering College is located in Assam,b. City Q is situated in Assam,c. C is studying in Kerala,d. B is studying in Gujarat

Answer 448

48, a

Question 449

Q 49,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Climate change is not a challenge for developed countries 2. Climate change is a complex policy issue and also a development issue for many countries 3. Ways and means of finance must be found to enable developing countries to enhance their adaptive capacity Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?",a. 1 and 2,b. Only 3,c. 2 and 3,d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 449

49, b

Question 450

Q 50,"Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?",a. Rural people are giving up the use of polluting solid fuels due to their increasing awareness of health hazards,b. Subsidising the use of clean cooking fuels will solve the problem of India’s indoor air pollution,c. India should increase its import of natural gas and produce more electricity,d. Access to cooking gas can reduce premature deaths in poor households

Answer 450

50, d

Question 451

Q 51,"Which one of the following is the most important implication of the passage?",a. A happy world is a dream of science,b. Science only can build a happy world, but it is also the only major threat,c. A happy world is not possible without science,d. A happy world is not at all possible with or without science

Answer 451

51, c

Question 452

Q 52,"Which one of the following is the most important implication of the passage?",a. India can have territorial claims in the Arctic territory and free access to its resources,b. Melting of summer ice in the Arctic leads to changes in the geopolitics,c. The Arctic region will solve the world’s future problem of resource crunch,d. The Arctic region has more resources than Antarctica

Answer 452

52, b

Question 453

Q 53,"What is the crucial message conveyed by the above passage?",a. India should revise its PDS,b. India should not be a member of WTO,c. For India, food security collides with trade,d. India provides food security to its poor

Answer 453

53, a

Question 454

Q 54,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. India continues to be a developing country essentially due to its faulty education system 2. Today’s learners need to acquire new-age skill-sets 3. A good number of Indians go to some developed countries for education because the educational systems there are a perfect reflection of the societies in which they function Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?",a. 1 and 3,b. Only 2,c. 2 and 3,d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 454

54, b

Question 455

Q 55,"What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?",a. Obesity has became an epidemic all over the world,b. A lot of people are obsessed with attaining a perfect body,c. Obesity is essentially an incurable disease,d. There is no perfect diet of one solution for obesity

Answer 455

55, d

Question 456

Q 56,"Which of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message given by the passage?",a. Preserving crop genetic diversity is an insurance against the effects of climate change,b. Despite great risks, monoculture is the only way to ensure food security in the world,c. More and more genetically modified crops only can save the world from impending shortages of food,d. Asia and North America will be worst sufferers from climate change and the consequent shortage of food.

Answer 456

56, a

Question 457

Q 57,A shopkeeper sells an article at Rs. 40 and gets X% profit. However, when he sells it at Rs.20, he faces same percentage of loss. What is the original cost of the article?,a. Rs. 10,b. Rs. 20,c. Rs. 30,d. Rs. 40

Answer 457

57, c

Question 458

Q 58,There are 24 equally spaced points lying on the circumference of a circle. What is the maximum number of equilateral triangles that can be drawn by taking sets of three points as the vertices?,a. 4,b. 6,c. 8,d. 12

Answer 458

58, c

Question 459

Q 59,Consider the sequence given below: 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96, … What is the next term of the series?,a. 24/3/96,b. 25/3/96,c. 15/3/96,d. 27/3/96

Answer 459

59, b

Question 460

Q 60,Twelve equal squares are placed to fit in a rectangle of diagonal 5 cm. There are three rows containing four squares each. No gaps are left between adjacent squares. What is the area of each square?,a. \( \frac{7}{5} \) sq cm,b. \( \frac{5}{7} \) sq cm,c. 1 sq cm,d. \( \frac{12}{25} \) sq cm

Answer 460

60, c

Question 461

Q 61,"By how much (measured in thousands of tons) did the import of sheet steel exceed the import of coil steel in the first three months of the year?",a. 11,b. 15,c. 19,d. 23

Answer 461

61, c

Question 462

Q 62,What was the approximate total value (in Thousands $) of sheet steel imported over the six months period?,a. 45555,b. 50555,c. 55550,d. 65750

Answer 462

62, c

Question 463

Q 63,What was the approximate ratio of sheet steel and scrap steel imports in the first three months of the year?,a. 1 : 1,b. 1.2 : 1,c. 1.4 : 1,d. 1.6 : 1

Answer 463

63, b

Question 464

Q 64,What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing a single dot,a. Four dots,b. Three dots,c. Two dots,d. Cross

Answer 464

64, b

Question 465

Q 65,What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing two dots?,a. Single dot,b. Three dots,c. Four dots,d. Line

Answer 465

65, c

Question 466

Q 66,What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing the cross?,a. Single dot,b. Two dots,c. Line,d. Four dots

Answer 466

66, c

Question 467

Q 67,"According to the passage, which of the following is/are of paramount importance under the Right to Education? 1. Sending of children to school by all parents 2. Provision of adequate physical infrastructure in schools 3. Curricular reforms for developing childfriendly learning system Select the correct answer using the code given below.",a. Only 1,b. 1 and 2,c. Only 3,d. None of these

Answer 467

67, c

Question 468

Q 68,"With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The Right to Education guarantees teachers’ accountability for the learning process of children. 2. The Right to Education guarantees 100% enrolment of children in the schools 3. The Right to Education intends to take full advantage of demographic dividend Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?",a. Only 1,b. 2 and 3,c. Only 3,d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 468

68, a

Question 469

Q 69,"According to the passage, which one of the following is critical in bringing quality in education?",a. Ensuring regular attendance of children as well as teachers in school,b. Giving pecuniary benefits to teachers to motivate them,c. Understanding the socio-cultural background of children,d. Inculcating learning through activities and discovery

Answer 469

69, d

Question 470

Q 70,What is the essential message in this passage?,a. The Right to Education now is a Fundamental Right,b. The Right to Education enables the children of poor and weaker sections of the society to attend schools,c. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education should include quality education for all,d. The government as well as parents should ensure that all children attend schools

Answer 470

70, c

Question 471

Q 71,Consider the following three-dimensional figure: How many triangles does the above figure have?,a. 18,b. 20,c. 22,d. 24

Answer 471

71, b

Question 472

Q 72,Consider the following sum: + 1 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 21 In the above sum, stands for,a. 4,b. 5,c. 6,d. 8

Answer 472

72,d

Question 473

Q 73,Consider the following pattern of numbers: 8 10 15 13 6 5 7 4 4 6 8 8 6 11 16 ? What is the number at question mark (?) in the above pattern?,a. 17,b. 19,c. 21,d. 23

Answer 473

73,a

Question 474

Q 74,How many diagonals can be drawn by joining the vertices of an octagon?,a. 20,b. 24,c. 28,d. 64

Answer 474

74,a

Question 475

Q 75,The figure drawn below gives the velocity graphs of two vehicles A and B. The straight line OKP represents the velocity of vehicle A at any instant, whereas the horizontal straight line CKD represents the velocity of vehicle B at any instant. In the figure, D is the point where perpendicular from P meets the horizontal line CKD such that PD = \( \frac{1}{2} \) LD: What is the ratio between the distance covered by vehicles A and B in the time interval OL?,a. 1 : 2,b. 2 : 3,c. 3 : 4,d. 1 : 1

Answer 475

75,c

Question 476

Q 76,A train 200 m long is moving at the rate of 40 km/h. In how many seconds will it cross a man standing near the railway line?,a. 12,b. 15,c. 16,d. 18

Answer 476

76,d

Question 477

Q 77,"Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (PASSAGE – 1)",a. Prosperity of agriculture sector is of critical importance to India,b. Indian economy greatly depends on its agriculture,c. India should take strict measures to control its rapid population growth,d. India’s farming communities should switch over to other occupations to improve their economic conditions

Answer 477

77,b

Question 478

Q 78,"Which of the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage? (PASSAGE – 2)",a. With more options for food come more risks,b. Food processing is the source of all foodborne illnesses,c. We should depend on locally produced food only,d. Globalisation of food production should be curtailed

Answer 478

78,a

Question 479

Q 79,"Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (PASSAGE – 3)",a. It is the faith and not science that can finally solve all the problems of mankind,b. Science and faith can be mutually complementary if their proper domains are understood,c. There are some very fundamental questions which cannot be answered by either science or faith,d. In today’s culture, scientific views are given more importance than spiritual views

Answer 479

79,b

Question 480

Q 80,"The author wants India to rid herself of certain past bonds because (PASSAGE – 4)",a. he is not able to see the relevance of the past,b. there is not much to be proud of,c. he is not interested in the history of India,d. they obstruct her physical and spiritual growth

Answer 480

80,d