cscs corrections Flashcards

1
Q

What is the recommended coach to participant ratio during peak weight room usage time?

A

1 for every 20 in college

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which individual is responsible for allowing an athlete to begin formal involvement in S & C?

A

Athletic Trainer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the recommended minimum distance b/w the floor and the bottom of mirrors on walls?

A

20 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the minimum space b/w the ends of racks for spotters?

A

3 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What season corresponds to the preparatory period?

A

offseason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the term IMPULSE refer to?

A

the relationship between force and time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In upright sprinting an athlete stride length is largely dependent on:

A

VERTICAL force during stance phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following?

A

agility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What training requires additional emphasis to improve change of direction?

A

Eccentric strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What phases are commonly used to vary workouts during (Offseason) preparatory period?

A

Hypertrophy & Basic strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which substance acts as the neuromuscular junction to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occurs during the QRS complex of a typical ECG?

A

REPOLARIZATION of the atrium-DEPOLARIZATION of the ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion & extension exercise… what levers occur at the elbow?

A

1st class & 3rd class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What reaction is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (i.e., the decrease in intramuscular pH during high intensity, fatiguing exercise)?

A

ATP — ADP + P +H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one glucose molecule?

A

38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What energy substrate cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 functions of GROWTH HORMONES?

A

increased LIPOLYSIS
increased AMINO ACID TRANSPORT
decreased GLUCOSE UTILIZATION

18
Q

Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of what 3 things?

A

increased AGONIST MUSCLE RECRUITMENT
muscle HYPERTROPHY
greater SYNCHRONIZATION

19
Q

What 3 things INCREASE during an AEROBIC exercise session?

A

END-DIASTOLIC volume
cardiac CONTRACTILITY
cardiac OUTPUT

20
Q

Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include what three things?

A

increased MAXIMAL OXYGEN UPTAKE
decreased BLOOD LACTATE concentration
increased RUNNING ECONOMY

21
Q

An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after a 6-month resistance training program. What is most likely responsible for this gain?

A

improved NEUROMUSCULAR FUNCTIONING

22
Q

Growth cartilage in children is located in what three areas ?

A

EPIPHYSEAL PLATE
JOINT SURFACE
APOPHYSEAL INSERTION

23
Q

The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called what?

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

24
Q

What makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure?

A

Resting metabolic rate

25
Q

What is the best reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use?

A

It may cause an unregulated increase in red blood cell production.

26
Q

The bench press, vertical jump, and 10m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid test for what American football position?

A

Defensive lineman

27
Q

What sequence produces the MOST reliable results?

A

T-test, 1 RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run

28
Q

Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting

A

30 to 90 seconds

29
Q

Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximal muscular power

A

40 yard sprint

30
Q

Muscle groups or body areas assessed during the sit and reach test?

A

hamstring and lumbar spine

31
Q

When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the

A

stretched muscle by its own contraction

32
Q

What stretching technique decreases muscle spindle stimulation?

A

static stretching

33
Q

If most scores are similar , but there are 3 scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group?

A

Median

34
Q

If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen?

A

a bilateral facilitation will occur

35
Q

With regard to core training, when is INSTABILITY exercises best applied?

A

in trained athletes who are rehabbing from an injury.

36
Q

Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than _____ of what can be achieved in a stable condition.

A

70%

37
Q

An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance?

A

power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl.

38
Q

A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using three set of 15 reps per exercise, what rest period lengths will MAXIMIZE her goal?

A

30 seconds

39
Q

What are the three phases of the Stretch Shortening Cycle?

A

Eccentric-Amortization-Concentric

40
Q

What 3 things should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program?

A

train history- balance- strength

41
Q

What is the most appropriate WORK-To-REST ratios in order to assign a PLYOMETRIC training workout?

A

1:5