Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Management of the Medically Complex Patient > CVD II - HF and Valv HD > Flashcards

CVD II - HF and Valv HD Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functions of the SA node

A
  • primary pacemaker
  • regulates atrial function
  • produces P wave - atrial depolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the function of the AV node

A
  • regulates atrial impulses entering ventricles
  • slows conduction rate of SA generated impulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is happening during the QRS complex

A

simulataneous depolarization of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what happens during the T wave

A

repolarization of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

disruption of the electrical impulse generation or conduction in the heart leads to what abnormal cardiac functions

A
  • formation of abnormal impulse
  • increased impulse formation
  • enhanced or abnormal impulse formation
  • delayed depolarization
  • re-excitation of the heart after refractory period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

disruption of the electrical impulse generation or conduction in the head may be due to an area of:

A
  • infarction
  • ischemia
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the most common cause of sudden cardiac death is:

A

ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the causes of arrhythmias

A
  • cardiovascular disorders
  • pulmonary disorder
  • autonomic disorder
  • hyperthyroidism
  • drugs
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • anxiety and anger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what cardiovascular disorders cause arrhythmias

A
  • MI
  • mitral stenosis
  • valvular disease
  • ischemic heart disease
  • congestive heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what pulmonary disorders cause arrhythmias

A

-pneumonia
- obstructive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what drugs cause arrhythmias

A
  • epinephrine
  • alcohol
  • digitalis
  • morphine
  • beta blockers
  • tricyclic antidepressants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the supraventricular arrhythmias

A
  • sinus nodal disturbances: sinus arrhythmias, sinus tachycardia, sinus bradycardia
  • disturbances of atrial rhythm: premature atrial complexes, atrial flutter
  • ventricular tachycardia
  • ventricular fibrillation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what qualifies bradycardia

A

less than 60 beats/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what qualifies tachycardia

A

greater than 100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the symptoms of arrhythmias

A
  • palpitations, fatigue
  • dizziness, syncope, angina
  • CHF
  • SOB
  • orthopnea
  • peripheral edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe atrial fibrillation

A
  • most common arrhythmia
  • rapid uncontrolled atrial activity
  • irregularly irregular rhythm
  • risk of arterial clot formation: embolism and stroke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a heart block

A
  • impulse is partially or completely blocked
  • prolonged or no conduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the degrees of heart block and describe each

A
  • first degree: longer conduction time
  • second degree: Mobitz I: more prolonged and no P wave. Mobitz II: repetitive or occasional sudden blocks without previous prolonged conduction time
  • third degree: no impulses- complete block. indication for pacemaker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe ventricular arrhythmias

A
  • premature ventricular complexes (PVCs)
  • common
  • abnormal QRS complex + pause
  • increased risk of death if patients have underlying CVD ( heart failure, MI, valvular heart disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe ventricular tachycardia

A
  • if more than 3 consecutive PVS at 100 bpm
  • if lasts for more than 30 seconds, requires termination
  • torsades de pointes- potentially life threatening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe ventricular flutter and fibrillation

A
  • lethal
  • consequence of ischemic heart disease
  • cardiac contraction is not sequential, chaotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

is there tx for arryhthmias

A

no just aimed at managing symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the SE for sodium channel blockers

A
  • bitter taste
  • dry mouth
  • oral ulcerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the SE of beta blockers

A

taste changes, lichenoid reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the SE of potassium channel blockers

A
  • taste abberation
  • lichenoid reactions
  • angioedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the slow calcium channel blockers

A

gingival overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the oral anticoagulants

A
  • clopidogrel (Plavix): inhibits platelet agglutination. platelet count not affected
  • ASA (aspirin 81mg- low dose): inhibits platelet agglutination, platelet count not affected
  • warfarin: vitamin K antagonist, INR monitoring, highly variable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what do anticoagulants do for arrythmias

A

lower the risks of complications but dont control the arrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what creates opportunities for atherosclerosis and blood clotting

A

turbulent blood flow and failure to move blood from the atria to the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the therapy for A-fib

A

to control ventricular rate
- diltiazem ( calcium channel blocker) slows AV nodal conduction as too many electrical signals coming from the fibrillating atria are hitting the AV node per unit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the direct oral anticoagulants

A
  • direct thrombin inhibitor: pradaxa, reversal agent available
  • direct factor Xa inhibitors: Xarelto, Eliquis, Savaysa, reversal agents not available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

never stop anticoagulation for dental treatment unless:

A

extensive surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the non pharmacologic treatments for arrhythmias

A
  • pacemakers
  • implanted cardioverter defribrillator: sets pace and shocks
  • surgery: tissue resection, cardiac ablation, surgery to address underlying cause such as stenosis
  • electrocardioversion and defribrillation: emergency situations, terminate persistant, refractory or lethal arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the dental treatment considerations with arrhythmias

A
  • what type of arrythmia
  • assess comorbidities - CVD and pulmonary
  • ROS: palpitations, chest pain, dizziness, shortness of breath, syncope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the causes of heart failure

A
  • decreased pumping action
  • systemic fluid congestion
  • failure of vital organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the results of right side HF

A
  • pulmonary edema
  • coughing
  • peripheral edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the results of left side HF

A
  • affects all organ systems; decreased kidney function contributes to fluid retention
  • pulmonary edema
  • coughing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the pathophysiology of heart failure

A
  • increased workload -> problems with cardiac muscle
  • left ventricle typically fails first- can lead to right ventricular failure
39
Q

what are the features of heart failure

A
  • reduced CO
  • decreased perfusion
  • blood backed up in pulmonary vessels- SOB, foamy cough, pulmonary
  • pulmonary hypertension
  • increased workload on R ventricle
  • volume overload: venous congestion, peripheral edema, ascites
  • ventricles dilate to try to compensate: activate of RAAS and neurohormonal responses to compensate
40
Q

what is the equation for ejection fraction

A

(blood volume pumped out/blood volume in chamber) x 100

41
Q

what should you consider in past MI greater than 1 month

A
  • severity of cardiac status and comorbidities
  • ejection fraction can measure the degree of heart failure
  • appropriate management protocols
42
Q

what does EF measure

A

percentage of blood that leaves the left ventricle after contraction

43
Q

describe EF 55%-70%

A
  • pumping ability of the heart: normal
  • level of heart failure/effect on pumping: heart function may be normal or heart failure with preserved EF
44
Q

describe EF 40%-54%

A
  • pumping ability of the heart: slightly blow normal
  • level of heart failure/effect on pumping: less blood is available so less blood is ejected from the ventricles. there is a lower than normal amount of oxygen rich blood available to the rest of the body
  • may not have symptoms
45
Q

describe EF 35%-39%

A
  • pumping ability of the heart: moderately below normal
  • level of heart failure/effect on pumping: mild heart failure with reduced EF
46
Q

describe EF less than 35%

A

-pumping ability of the heart: severely below normal
- level of heart failure/effect on pumping: moderate to severe HF. severe HF increases the risk of life threatening heartbeats and cardiac dyssynchrony

47
Q

what are the types of heart failure and what is in each category

A
  • systolic failure: reduced left ventricular EF
  • diastolic failure: normal left ventricular EF
  • cardiac abnormalities: valvular disease, arrhythmias, myocardial necrosis
  • decompensation: inability to compensate, increased peripheral blood flow, increased metabolic needs
48
Q

what are the predisposing factors for HF

A
  • acute CVD: MI
  • chronic CVD: HTN, coronary artery disease, arrythmia
49
Q

what are the results/ signs and ssymptoms of HF

A
  • volume overload
  • inadequate perfusion
50
Q

what are the complications of HF

A
  • cardiac arrest
  • MI
  • stroke
51
Q

what are the signs of HF

A
  • rapid , shallow breathing
  • inspiratory rales (crackles)
  • increased HR
  • distended jugular veins
  • peripheral edema
  • ascites
  • cyanosis
  • weight gain
  • clubbing of fingers
52
Q

what are the symptoms of HF

A
  • fatigue and weakness
  • orthopnea - shortness of breath (dyspnea) in recumbent position
  • exercise intolerance
  • muscular fatigue
  • weight gain
  • GI distress- nausea, vomiting and constipation
53
Q

what are the therapies for stages of HF

A
  • stage A: ACE inhibitors
  • stage B: ACE inhibitors, beta blockers
  • stage C: diuretics for fluid retention, ACE inhibitors, beta blockers
54
Q

what is the medical management for HF

A
  • pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic
  • patients with severe HF may require cardiac transplantation
  • intermediate therapy is the LVAD
55
Q

in most cases of HF, the dentist will need to obtain a medical consultation with the patients cardiologist to determine:

A
  • the patients physical status
  • lab test results
  • level of control
  • compliance with medications and recommendations
  • overall stability
56
Q

what are the major issues for patients with symptomatic HF

A
  • symptoms can abruptly worsen
  • acute failure
  • fatal arrhythmia
  • stroke
  • MI
57
Q

describe class I HF patients

A
  • physical activity: no limitations
  • no dyspnea, fatigue or palpitations with physical activity
58
Q

describe class II HF patients

A
  • physical activity: slight limitation
  • fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations present with physical activity
59
Q

describe class III HF patients

A
  • physical activity: marked limitation
  • lesss than normal physical activity results in symptoms. comfortable at rest
60
Q

describe class IV HF patients

A
  • physical activity: severely limited, exacerabates symptoms
  • symptoms are present at rest
61
Q

how do we treat each class of HF patients

A
  • class I: routine dental care OK
  • class II: med consult required, routine dental care likely OK
  • class III and IV: consider referral to specialized care
62
Q

what are the low level interventions for medical risk categories of dental treatment

A
  • health/medical eval
  • exams
  • prophy
  • radiographs
  • optical oral scans
  • alginate impressions
63
Q

what are the moderate level interventions for medical risk categories of dental treatment

A
  • SRP
  • simple restorative procedures 1-2 teeth
  • simple extractions 1-2 teeth
  • restorative impressions needing retractions and longer setting times
64
Q

what are the high level interventions for medical risk categories of dental treatment

A
  • complex restorative procedures on more than 2 teeth
  • multiple extractions
  • surgical extractions
  • implants placement
  • full arch impressions
  • dental care under general anesthesia
65
Q

risk for time of procedure correlates with

A

risk cateogry

66
Q

what are some additional HF dental management considerations

A
  • short, stress free appointments
  • chair position: HF pt may not be able to tolerate supine position bc pulmonary edema
  • if patient is taking digitalis glycoside (digoxin) - positive inotrope: avoid epi because increases the risk for arrhythmia
67
Q

are there oral manifestations related to HF

A

no

68
Q

many of the drugs used to manage HF can cause:

A

dry mouth, altered taste and oral ulcerative lesions

69
Q

what is valvular disease

A

compromised function of the heart valves

70
Q

what are the AV valves

A

tricuspid and mitral

71
Q

what are the semilunar valves

A

aortic and pulmonary

72
Q

what is valvular stenosis

A

do not open properly

73
Q

what is valvular insufficiency and what is it associated with

A
  • do not close properly
  • associated with regurgitation
74
Q

describe fibrosis in valvular disease

A

stiff, sclerosis, stenosis causing either stenosis or insufficiency

75
Q

what is myxomatous degeneration and what does it cause

A
  • benign loose CT tumorous changes where valves become floppy, prolapse, regurgitation
  • causes insufficiency
76
Q

what are the risk factors for valvular heart disease

A
  • conditions: high BP, high cholesterol, Diabetes, rheumatic fever, more than one CVD
  • behavioral: unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, obesity, too much alcohol, tobacco use, stress
  • family hx: genetics, becoming older, ethnicity
  • calcifications
  • congenital defects
  • infective endocarditis
77
Q

why is high BP a risk factor for valvular heart disease

A
  • stiffens vessels which reduce blood flow
  • risk for stroke, kidney disease and dementia
78
Q

why is diabetes a risk factor for valvular heart disease

A

unstable glucose affects healthy myocardium function, angiopathy

79
Q

what parts of unhealthy diet are risk factors for valvular heart disease

A
  • carbs
  • fat
  • caffeine
  • Na+
80
Q

why is poor circulation a risk factor for valvular heart disease

A

poor circulation

81
Q

why is obesity a risk factor for valvular heart disease

A
  • excess weight stresses heart function
  • HTN
  • CAD
82
Q

why is alcohol a risk factor for valvular heart disease

A
  • increases BP
  • arryhtmias
83
Q

what congenital defects are risk factors for valvular heart disease

A
  • bicuspid aortic valve
  • mitral valve prolapse
84
Q

what microbe causes infective endocarditis

A

staph

85
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of valvular heart disease

A
  • signs: murmurs, syncope, heart failure, SOB
  • symptoms: HF, exercise intolerance, SOB
86
Q

what is the medical management for valvular heart disease

A
  • tx is mainly surgical
  • valve replacement - more common
  • predisposition for infective endocarditis
87
Q

what are the types of valve replacements for valvular heart disease

A
  • mechanical implants: silicone, requires long term anticoagulation
  • bioprosthetic implants: allograft, bovine graft, decellurized CT with a less antigenic structural matrix. short term anticoagulation. long term antiplatelet therapy, more preferred
88
Q

what are the questions for patients with valvular disease

A
  • screening: SOB, chest pain
  • have you ever had valve replacement surgery
  • do you take a blood thinner
  • do you take aspirin or plavix
  • does it take a long time for you to stop bleeding after a cut
  • have you ever been hospitalized due to bleeding
  • have you ever had IE
89
Q

are there oral manifestations with valvular heart disease

A

no

90
Q

what are the bleeding complications with valvular heart disease

A
  • complications from anticoagulation
  • complications from antiplatelet therapy
91
Q

what are the infections complications of valvular heart disease

A
  • risk of developing infective endocarditis
  • requires antibiotic prophylaxis when valves have been replaced
92
Q

what are the drug effects for patients with valvular heart diseae

A

potential drug interactions from CVD pharmacologic management sespecially when comorbidities are present

93
Q

what are the dental considerations for valvular heart disease

A
  • assess ability to tolerate care in context of underying condition and comorbidities
  • assess bleeding risk: obtain INR day of procedure. have local hemostatic measures in place
  • infections: determine need for AB prophylaxis and AB of choice
  • drug effects- review adverse drug effects and drug-drug interactions
94
Q
A

Dental Management of the Medically Complex Patient (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions