CVMB Flashcards
(332 cards)
1
Q
What vaccine has highest incidence of causing anaphylaxis in vaccinated puppies?
Distemper, Parvo, Hepatitis, Lepto
A
Lepto
2
Q
Daily water requirement for maintenance in a 20 lb dog?
A
600 ml (daily req is 50-75 ml/kg/day). More than 100/ml/kg is consistent with PD.
3
Q
When feeding a puppy milk replacer what do you need to supplement to prevent cataracts?
A
arginine and methionine
4
Q
You are called out to a farm for a cow in dystocia. The calf is emphysematous and has a fetid odor. It is engaged in birth canal. Best course of action is:
A
fetotomy
5
Q
Which of the following surgical approaches is NOT correct for an LDA in the bovine?
Left paralumbar, Right paralumbar, Right paramedian, Ventral midline
A
Ventral midline is not appropriate. Sx corrective options include: R flank ompentopexy, R paramedian abomasopexy, and L flank abomasopexy
6
Q
Calves on high grain, low fiber diet are susceptible to ____?
A
Vagal indigestion
7
Q
Cows grazing on fields in CA are prone to Cu deficiency due to ___ ___?
A
high molybdenum
8
Q
Surgery for cat with chronic constipation/obstipation?
A
Subtotal colectomy
9
Q
Cattle on alfalfa hay die. Post-mortem changes show lumbar vertebrae fractures and soft ribs. What was the issue?
A
Decreased phosphorus
10
Q
During the month of Nov, cattle are experiencing sudden onset of green diarrhea, poor condition, but have no oral ulcers. What’s the cause?
A
Ostertagiasis II (worse than I)
11
Q
Cattle with brisket edema, bottle jaw, distended jugulara veins, and muffled heart sounds. Dx?
A
Traumatic reticulopericarditis (hardware disease)
12
Q
Treatment for atrial fibrillation in a cow?
A
Oral quinidine
13
Q
Treatment for refractory ascites/edema in congestive heart failure?
A
Lasix?
14
Q
What are the two most common oral neoplasias in the mouth of the dog?
A
#1 Melanoma #2 Squamous Cell Carcinoma (Cats: 1 SCC, 2 Fibrosarcoma)
15
Q
Cow is found dead in a field with a large spleen. What should you not do? Dx?
A
DONT NECROPSY. Pin prick ear for blood smear. Anthrax.
16
Q
What is the most common bacteria isolated from cat bites?
A
Pasteurella
17
Q
How do you treat KCS?
A
cyclosporine (can also treat with antibiotics, +/-prednisone drops)
18
Q
Snakes have #? kidneys #? bladder?
A
2 kidneys, no urinary bladder (uric acid mixed with feces)
19
Q
Lead poisoning in pscittacines causes what clinical signs?
A
Vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, ataxia, seizures
20
Q
Dog with pulmonic stenosis. What are the EKG changes?
A
deep S wave, tall P waves
21
Q
EKG findings for pericardial effusion?
A
Decreased R wave
22
Q
Market weight of crossbred pigs?
A
200 lbs (220# at 6 months)
23
Q
Steers in CA have respiratory signs, necrotic lesions in larynx, peritoneal fluid, swollen LNs and joints. Likely dx?
A
Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)?
24
Q
Is EIA a reportable disease?
A
Yes, yes it is.
25
Cattle with large airway sounds in ventral thorax but no sounds in dorsal thorax. Dx?
pneumothorax/collapsed lung
26
Pot belly pig with increased HR, RR & pulse. It is dyspneic and xray shows ventral pulmonary infiltrates and interstitial pattern with an enlarged heart. Dx?
Bacterial endocarditis
27
3 yr old horse with dysphagia, halitosis, and pain when place a bit. Dx?
? M3 issue or fx of PM1?
28
Signs of blue tongue virus in cattle?
Cattle are typically asymptomatic.
29
Modified Live Vaccines are not given to pregnant dogs and cats because ?
They can cause genetic and birth defects in the fetus
30
In navicular disease in horse, when is there the worst prognosis?
?
31
Xray is shot at 10mA, 0.2 sec, 70 kvp but it is too dark. What should you do?
10 mA, 0.1 sec, 70 kvp
32
Most common oropharyngeal lesions in poultry?
Candidiasis (avian pox?)
33
Xray of a bird. You see opacities between the femoral heads. What are they?
Grit in the ventriculus
34
Poultry birds with ocular lesions, corneal edema and discharge. What is it likely from?
Dust, ammonia?
35
Fracture anchoneal process. What is the best view with xray?
Fully flexed lateral view
36
How do you disinfect for parvo?
bleach (hypochlorite)
37
Rabies virus has never been known to be transmitted via ___?
IV?
38
Feline panleukopenia virus can live in organic matter for ____?
1 year
39
Most common cause of abortion in sheep?
Chlamydia (then Campy)
40
Bilateral thyroidectomy in hyperthyroid cat. What's a severe post-op complication to look for?
Ataxia (because of sudden drop in Ca), and laryngeal paralysis
41
Enteroliths typically occur where in horses?
dorsal and transverse colon
42
How should cow teats be cleaned?
10,000 ppm free iodine
43
Cows with mastitis. For what organism, can you treat with intramammary penicillin?
Strep. agalactiae
44
Fluctuating vacuum on a milking machine will cause ____?
mastitis
45
Corkscrew in cattle is hereditary? T/F
True
46
Shoulder OCD lesions in a dog are typical at what age?
4-8 months
47
Muscles controlling eye movements are innervated by ?
III, IV, VI
48
Which is not affected by topical anesthesia?
pupillary reflex
49
Most common dermatophyte found on cats?
Microsporum canis
50
Single drug for treatment of dog tapeworms and roundworms?
Fenbendazole, Praziquantel
51
Anaplasmosis in cattle. Treating with 20 mg/lb tetracycline will do what?
Treat and kill carrier state
52
Prostatitis in a dog. What's the most common bacterial cause?
E. coli
53
Equine colicking for 8 hr. Abd tap reveals 4.5 total protein, RBC=200,000, and WBC= 15,000, serosanguineous fluid. What's the likely cause?
Volvulus of small intestines??
54
Horse is lame on right foreleg. It doesn't block out with medial and lateral abaxial blocks. Does with . Dx?
Chip fx of proximal P1?
55
Cat presented with multiple draining tracts. Owner reports cat bite abscess 2 months previously. Impression smears shows intracellular, acid-fast organisms. Culture and sensitivity shows bacterial growth of acid-fast organisms after 4 days. Organisms probably ___?
Mycobacterium is acid-fast
56
Cat presented in August, with crusting skin around collar, and above tail head. Owner reports areas to be pruritic. Probably due to ___.
flea allergy dermatitis
57
What shampoo should you not use in cats?
tar
58
Dug used to treat Cushing's disease?
OP'DDD
59
5 year old male Doberman with solitary, pruritic, ulcerated lesion on craniolateral tarsus.
??Acral lick granuloma?
60
Dog with PCV 20% and spherocytes. Dx?
Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
61
A puppy is acutely dyspneic. Chest rads reveal air bronchograms with primarily caudoventral distribution. Likely?
Electrocution?
62
Coccidiosis in chickens is best treated with?
Amprolium
63
This neuropathy in poultry is associated with Vitamin E deficiency.
Enecephalomalacia (see sudden prostration, legs outstretched, toes flexed)
64
Loss of facial sensation indicates damage to which cranial nerve?
CN V (Facial nerve)
65
Clinical signs of Horner's syndrome?
Enopthalmus, ptosis, miosis, elevation of 3rd eyelid
66
```
Which does not cause oral ulcerations in cats?
FIV
Feline rhinotracheitis
Feline pneumonitis
Feline calicivirus
```
Pneumonitis
67
What is the most common neoplasia in a cat's mouth?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
68
Where do you block for a rumenotomy?
T13-L2
69
What is the "holding layer" when suturing paramedian incision on a cow?
External rectus fascia (just like cat, dog)
70
In abdominal surgery, what is the most important closure layer to prevent dehiscence?
External rectus sheath
71
Most common cause of pneumothorax in dog?
Trauma
72
What is found on necropsy of an Epizootic Bovine Abortion fetus?
petechiation, granulomatous hepatitis
73
You diagnose acute septicemia/bacteremia in a 2 day calf. Which antibiotic would be best to treat it with?
3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g. ceftiofur)
74
```
Which is a non-absorbable suture?
polyglycolic acid (dexon)
polydioxione (PDS)
nylon
polyglactic acid (vicryl)
```
Nylon
75
Young, intact female cat has rapidly enlarging firm and nonpainful mammary glands. Clinically she is normal though. Cause?
Mammary hypertrophy complex?
76
```
DCM is most common in:
male Gordon setter
male Dobie
female lab
female Great Dane
```
male Dobie (giant breeds and males are more predisposed)
77
```
Digoxin is used to treat ____.
PVC
supraventricular tachycardia
sick sinus syndrome
2nd degree AV vlock
```
supra-ventricular tachycardia
78
During fluid therapy for shock, what is best to monitor?
| systolic BP, pulse pressure, CVP, CO
Central venous pressure
79
Whats the most common ulcerative lesion on a dog's nose?
Discoid Lupus (DLE)
80
Cat was given phosphate enema 45 min ago. Now it is seizuring. How do you treat?
Ca gluconate, IV
81
Spastic syndrome in bovine (AKA bar cramps, stretches, periodic spasticity) is caused by ____?
heritable in dairy cattle
82
```
BLV carriers in a herd are best identified by ___?
AGID for antibodies
Blood smear for lymphocytes
Blood test and check lymphocyte counts
Virus isolation from lymphocytes
```
AGID for antibodies
83
```
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in dog and cat?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Non-parathyroid malignancy
Adrenocortical insufficiency
Vitamin D toxicity
```
Non-PTH malignancy (e.g. lymphoma, multiple myeloma, apocrine gland adenosarcoma, other)
84
```
With portocaval shunt, the patient's serum will show ____.
Increased bilirubin
Increased albumin
Increased glucose
Decreased BUN
```
Decreased BUN
85
In cows, what metabolic abnormality is associated with acidosis?
Hyperkalemia
86
Cow presents with normal WBC count, 2:1 neuto:lymphote ratio, decreased PCV, increased TP, increased globulin. These hematologic parameters indicate:
chronic inflammation
87
A beef cattle operation is experiencing acute deaths. Necropsy=pericarditis, enlarged liver, adhesions of rumen to diaphragm. Dx?
Trauamatic reticulopericarditis
88
Herd of beef cows are turned out on a spring pasture. There were some acute deaths. Necropsy showed pulmonary edema and myocardial streaks of white. The most likely cause is ____.
Vitamin E deficiency
89
7 year old male Standard Poodle presents for lameness and epistaxis. Rads show lytic areas in humerus and femurs. TP = 12 (globulin 9.0, albumin 4.0), with 4+ proteinuria. Dx?
Multiple myeloma
90
What vx has highest incidence of causing anaphylaxis in puppies?
Lepto
91
The best post milking teat dip is ____.
20,000 ppm iodinated solution
92
CAE agent is ____ and causes what in goats?
Caprine Arthritis-Encephalitis (CAE) is caused by lentivirus. Causes leukoencephalitis in 2-6 month old kids (rear leg paresis-paralysis). More common form is >6 months old causing polysynovitis, arthritis, firm udder ("hard bag"), and occasional pneumonia.
93
Atopy is which type of immune mediated reaction?
Immediate hypersensitivity (type I)
```
Other types of immune-mediated reactions:
I - immediate/anaphylaxis
II - antibody mediated cytotoxicity
III - immune complex disease
IV - cell mediated (delayed)
```
94
```
Which is a potential mycotic zoonoses from a dog or cat?
Sporotrichosis
Coccidiomycosis
HIstoplasmosis
Cryptococcosis
```
Sporotrichosis
95
Several finishing pigs have diarrhea without fibrin, blood or mucus. Two pigs are afebrile. No change in appetite and no vomiting. Dx?
TGE
96
Demodex infection with secondary pyoderma in a young dog can be treated with?
Amitraz, lyme-sulfur dips, cephalosporins (not prenisone!)
97
To avoid sciatic nerve damage when placing a femoral intramedullary pin, one should:
Place pin in normograde fashion from the trochanter (always insert from proximal end into trochanteric fossa)
98
Dermatologic manifestations of hypothyroidism in the dog include:
seborrhea, alopecia, not pruritus
99
Dermatologic manifestations in hyperadrenocorticismin the dog include:
calcinosis cutis, hyperpigmentation, alopecia, thin skin
100
Adult cows grazing lush pasture have edematous heavy lungs with no consolidation. Dx?
L-tryptophan (moldy sweet potato) - causes atypical non-septic, non-consolidating pneumonia called "fog fever"
101
Several steers of a large group have pulmonary interstitial pneumonia and emphysema. Dx?
BRSV
102
What drug should not be used in 6yr female dog with history of seizures?
Chlorpromazine (anti-emetic but dont use with seizures)
103
What drug can be useful in post-orthopedic procedure analgesia?
Butorphanol
104
The use of NO2 gas is contraindicated in which of the following procedures?
intestinal anastomosis, GDV
105
Infectious bronchitis in chickens is caused by ____ and causes what type of clinical signs?
Coronavirus
Respiratory, urogenital, and GI tract issues
Morbidity 100%, spread is rapid
Some can get interstitial nephritis (60% mortality)
Cannot differentiate from Newcastles (paramyxovirus) or infectious laryngotracheitis (herpes)
106
Most common pathogen in mouse lung?
Mycoplasma pulmonis (murine respiratory mycoplasmosis) - causes chattering, dyspnea, nasal discharge, sneezing, snuffling, rales, dyspnea, head tilt, circling
107
What predisposes a guinea pig to pregnancy ketosis?
large litter, obesity, poor nutrition
108
What can be falsely elevated when drawing blood from bird nail trim?
BUN (because of uric acid from fecal material)
109
What is a stress leukogram in a cow?
Increased neutrophils, decreased eosinophils, leukopenia
110
Chest fluid from cat with chylothorax. What do you expect on labs?
Elevated triglycerides, presence of chylomicrons, looks like skim milk
111
The lab changes associated with lymphangiectasia include ____.
decreased lymphocytes, decreased proteins, decreased cholesterol
112
The most consistent change seen in glomerulonephritis is ____.
proteinuria
113
The best way to treat squamous cell carcinoma in an expensive Hereford show cow is ___.
Surgical excision with cryotherapy?
114
An adult ewe with laminitis, lingual necrosis, and brisket edema is most likely afflicted with ____?
Blue Tongue Virus
115
Best way to remove a dead fetus from a cow?
Fetotomy
116
Where is a horse's pelvic flexure when palpating on a rectal examination?
Left ventral lateral to bladder
On palpation: right ventral-sternal-left ventral-pelvic flexure-left dorsal diaphragmatic flexure-right dorsal (4,4,4,1,3,2)
117
Most common locations of enterolith formation in horses?
Right dorsal and transverse colon
118
Most common site of boney sequestration in the horse?
P3
119
Equine palmar digital (PD) nerve block desensitizes which regions?
the caudal heel region (e.g. navicular bone, navicular bursa, digital cushion, etc)
120
Worst prognosis for a horse with navicular disease?
Lytic lesions on flexor cortex of navicular bone
121
What is the most common cause of lameness in the equine foot?
Subsolar abscess
122
```
Tritrichomonas fetus is not associated with:
Late term abortions
Post-coital pyometras
Placentitis
Male infertility
```
Late term abortions
| Tritrich = high nonpregnancy rates, occasional pyometras, abortions
123
How do you dx Tritrichomonas fetus?
ID or culture organism from cervicovaginal mucus, uterine exudate, placental fluids, fetal abomasal contents, preputial smegma
124
Equine rhinopneumonitis abortion is characterized by what findings? What is it caused by?
Late term abortion (9-10 mo) with normal fetus and normal placenta
Caused by EHV-1. Should vaccinate mare at 5, 7, 9 months.
125
You suspect Equine Viral Arteritis. What do you do?
Contact proper state authorities b/c it is reportable
126
What is EVA caused by and what are the clinical signs? Who are the carriers?
EVA is nonarthropod-borne togavirus.
Causes fever, anorexia, serous ocular and nasal discharge, and edema of limbs/ventral abdomen/conjunctiva.
Stallions are carriers.
127
Ehrlichiosis is caused by ___. Causes acute-chronic disease. Common lab change is ____. And the most commonly affected cells are ____. What is the vector? How do you treat?
Thrombocytopenia, monocytes, Rhipiceohalus sanguineus (tick), tetracycline to treat
128
RMSF is caused by ____ ___. The disease is acute in onset, causes _____. It is spread by ____. How do you treat?
Thrombocytopenia, Dermacentor variablis/andersoni, tetracycline to treat
129
```
Which do you not see with anterior uveitis?
Mydriasis
Blepharospasm
Aqueous Flare
Bulblar conjunctival vascular injection
```
You do not see mydriasis with AU (instead miosis).
130
How long do you have to wait after performing an intraarticular lidocaine block for results to be negative?
20-30 minutes
131
How many teeth do adult cats have?
30
132
What statement is correct about chronic stomatitis/gingivitis in cats?
??
133
Veterinarians need to turn in a triplicate form to DEA for schedule ___ drugs.
II (most opioids, etc)
134
In order to have non-vets using radiographic equipment, what must a vet provide?
training/safety course for all employees
135
A mare is in seasonal anestrous. To stimulate follicle growth, what can you give?
GnRH
136
Where is the proper needle placement for administering epidural anesthesia to a horse?
Cy1-3 (or sacrocaudal)
Cows: sacrocaudal/1st intercaudal
Sheep & goats: sacrocaudal/1st intercaudal
Pigs: lumbosacral
137
Enophthalmous, ptosis, miosis and prolapse third eyelid indicates ____.
Horner's syndrome
138
What is the function of an ACE inhibitor?
treat heart failure (preventions Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II so prevent vasoconstriction and decreased retention of sodium and water)
139
Which anesthetic affects GI motility in dogs?
| Acepromazine, Suritol, Thiopental, Xylazine
Xylazine (emetic), Thiopental (decreased GI motility)
140
What is the premedication of choice in a 14 yr exitable poodle?
Diazepam
141
In which procedures is NO2 contraindicated?
intestinal anastamosis, GDV surgery
142
How do you best diagnose acute organophosphate toxicity in a cow?
Check level of OP in rumen?
143
What are signs of salt poisoning in pigs?
Siezures, ataxia, death, head pressing, coma, blindness, obtundation
144
What is the best way to treat anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity in a severely affected animal?
K1 SQ
145
Most poultry vaccines can be given via aerosol or in water. Which vaccine must be given individually?
Marek's
146
How soon after farrowing do sow return to estrus?
28 days
| Nurse fo 21 days, sow comes into estrus 3-5 days after weaning
147
What muscle would you not use for IM injections in a rattite (ostrich like bird)?
Biceps muscles
148
Puppy with diarrhea. He passes tapeworms and roundworms. What antibiotic regimen should you treat him with?
Fenbendazole + Praziquantel
149
Oral dental films provide fine structural detail. This is possible because they:
??
150
What is the best screening test for Von Willebrand's?
mucosal bleeding time
151
When closing an abdominal surgery on a cat, which layer is most important and strongest for appositional closure to prevent dehiscence?
External rectus sheath
152
When conducting a perineal urethrostomy on a cat, what level do you incise the urethra?
bulbourethral gland
153
At what age do you castrate a horse?
Any age, but foals - prior to weaning is best
154
What is true about treatment for contracted deep digital flexor tendon on horse?
Severe cases do not respond well to interior check ligament tenectomy
155
In a mare with a granulosa thecal cell tumor, after the ovary is removed she will cycle when?
within a few months , depending on winter anestrus
156
```
A mare should be inseminated with:
10-50 x10^6 motile progressive sperm
1-5 x 10^9 "
100-500 10^6 "
5-10 x 10^9 "
```
100-500 x10^6
157
How do you diagnose a horse with navicular syndrome?
history, clinical signs, posterior digital nerve block, radiographs
158
A maiden mare has no clinical signs and has normal uterine cytology and has slow growth of Strep. zooepidemicus on uterine culture. What treatment regimen do you undertake?
Administer parental antibiotics?? (can cause bacterial antibiotics)
159
You decrease the KvP by 10%. To achieve the same degree of blackness on the film, you would need to do what to the mAS?
increase the mAS by 2x
160
What echo findings are most consistent with systemic hypertension?
left ventricular hypertrophy?
161
When taking skin biopsies from dogs, it is most important to do what?
not surgically prep the area to be biopsied
162
What is the best way to ID Heinz bodies?
make a blood smear with New Methylene Blue
163
What is the agent of cat scratch fever?
Hemobartonella (gram negative bacillus)
164
What is the radiographic appearance of a heart with systemic hypertension?
left ventricular hypertrophy
165
Uterine torsion in a mare occurs most commonly during what time period?
between 7-11 months of gestation
166
What is the best method of preventing a dog from chewing out sutures from abdominal surgery?
Placing an E collar on the dog
167
What organism is responsible for visceral larval migrans?
Toxocara canis (roundworms); cutaneous larval migrans (hookworms)
168
Which of the following plants are not toxic to cats?
| Pine needles, poison ivy, poinsetta, dumb cane
poison ivy (just contact allergy)?
169
A goat has been in estrus for 12 hours. On a speculum examination you notice a small amount of mucoid fluid in the anterior vagina. You interpret the fluid as:
normal
170
What drug induces seizures when epinephrine has been given?
xylazine
171
With a 25 day pregnancy in a mare, what can you palpate rectally?
Vesicle at 25-40 days; can see on ultrasound at day 14/day25 can see embryo with heartbeat
172
You do a vaginal sepculum on a diestrus mare and you see what type of cervix?
Pale, dry, tight cervix
Estrus - pink, moist
Anestrus - white, grey
173
You have performed a standing castration on a 5 year stallion. 45 minutes after the procedure, you notice that the horse is dripping what you think is an excessive amount of blood. What do you do?
1st try to Identify bleeder and clamp while horse is standing
174
A 4 year old terrier has recurrent struvite stones. The best management to prevent further stones includes ____.
treat UTI (urease causing bacteria helps forms stones)
175
How long will it take a healthy tympanic membrane that was punctured to heal?
1-3 weeks
176
To treat a Sarcoptes scabei infection, in which breed would you not use ivermectin?
Collie
177
A Dachshund has vessiculo-bullous lesions at the muccutaneous junctions, on the face, on the ears, and also has submandibular lymphadenopathy. What would you treat with/
Corticosteroids, antibiotics, vitamin E
178
You are transfusing a patient with severe thrombocytopenia. How long would you expect clotting factors to last?
< 7 days
179
A horse is chewing at an incision on its thorax. What is the best method to prevent this?
??Cribbing strap on horse?
180
What is the most common cause of hyphema in cat?
trauma
181
How do you treat a cat that has received an organophosphate enema and is now convulsing?
Calcium gluconate
182
A puppy chewed an electrical cord. What's the primary clinical sign that you will see?
Pulmonary edema
183
When comparing glycopyrrolate to atropine use in the cat, what statement is true?
Glyco lasts longer
184
What is an undesirable effect of xylazine when used in a dog?
hypotension
185
Which lipid soluble drug is given to treat canine prostatitis?
Baytril, TMS or Chloramphenicol
186
What is the most common side effect of Methimazole therapy?
GI, liver, bone marrow suppression
187
What is a unique yet adverse drug effect of cyclophopshamide? Why is typically used in animals?
sterile hemorrhagic cystitis; typically used to treat neoplasias or immnune diseases
188
What is the best approach to use in a recumbent cow for a C section?
L flank
189
What surgical approach should not be used to repair an LDA in a cow?
L paramedian, L paralumbar, R paralumbar
L paramedian should not be done
190
What is the best anesthesia to remove a digit in a cow?
Regional local anesthesia (baer block)
191
What is the most common cause of pneumothorax in a dog?
Trauma
192
When is a horse too deep under anesthesia?
When a corneal reflex is absent
193
A 400 kg horse looses 4L of blood during surgery. What is the best method of replacing the loss?
Administer 12 L NaCl
194
When do you refer a colicking horse to a surgical facility?
after no response to analgesia
195
What is the next choice of drug to use when a dog with ascites is refractory to treatment?
Furosemide 1st then Enalapril 2nd
196
What anesthetic agent increases the arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines?
??
197
What drug is given to help diagnose heaves in a horse?
atropine?
198
Which canine urinary stones are radiolucent?
Urate
199
What are signs of oak bud toxicity in a cow?
renal disease, PU/PD
200
When do you use baermann test ofr cat feces?
When trying to find aleurostrongylus abstrusus
201
A foal has a ruptured common digital extensor tendon. What is the best method of treatment?
Splint on dorsal surface and stall rest
202
What is the best way to ID reticulocytes on a blood smear?
New Methylene Blue
203
A cow can simultaneously flex its hock and extend its stifle. What has happened?
Ruptured peroneus tarsus
204
What is the holding layer in an intestinal surgery?
submucosa on intestines; external rectus sheath on body wall
205
What is the difference between a connell and cushing suture pattern?
??
206
What do you need to do to have the best chance of identifying Demodex from a skin scraping?
Squeeze the skin first
207
What is the best radiographic positioning to use to evaluate the osseous bullae?
dorsoventral on table?
208
What are the two best ways to spay a heifer?
L flank (left paralumbar fossa) or vaginal approach
209
A client has a cat that just recovered from feline panleukopenia. What advice do you give her about bringing a new kitten into the home?
Virus is shed by a cat for 6 weeks in all body secretions; can survive in environment for up to 1 year; parvovirus
210
What is true about scrapie?
it affects sheep and goats
211
What is true about Coxiella burnetti abortion in sheep?
It is a rickettsial organism and zoonotic. (Q fever)
212
A cow living in the foothills of the Sierra has just aborted. What is the condition of the fetus?
Fetus is fresh, is not autolyzed. High in liver, LNs, and low in thymus.
213
You are doing a necropsy on a chicken and find blood in the trachea, what does this help to diagnose?
TLT - herpes
214
Where is the FeLV virus shed?
typically shed in saliva (lesser amount in tears, urine, feces)
215
What is tartar composed of?
CaPO4 plus plaque and food
216
How is the bisecting angle determined when taking oral radiographs?
beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bissects the angle formed by film & tootth (done intraorally)
217
How do you differentiate a pituitary tumor from an adrenal tumor?
High dose dexmethasone suppression test
| Or plasma ACTH (pit has normal or increased ACTH while adrenal has decreased ACTH)
218
What changes occur in blood of a cat that has been receiving longterm glucocorticoid therapy?
Low lymphocytes, High Neutrophils, Low Eosinophils, High Monocytes
219
Spherocytes are seen on a blood smear. What does this diagnose?
Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
220
A rabbit has pastuerella. What are the clinical signs?
snuffles, pneumonia, abscesses
221
Why is a double flap oral nasal repair procedure performed?
because the hole is too large (this procedure provides wound closure on both sides for chronic fistulas)
222
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You are presented with a pig that is hypovolemic, and has diarrhea. What is the safest anesthetic to use?
Mask down with iso
Acepromazine
Telazol
Ketamine
```
??
223
When is yohimbine used in a dog?
To reverse xylazine
224
What is the dental formula in the adult dog?
42 permanent teeth (I3/3, C1/1, P4/4,M2/3)
225
What is the drug used to treat Cushings? And how does it work?
Mitotane (lysodren) - destroys zona fasiculata and reticularis and destroys adrenocortical tissues
226
What's the best view for anconeal process of elbow?
Flexed lateral
227
When is the earliest you can vaccinate for rabies?
4 months
228
What are two most common cause of periocardial effusion?
Hemangiosarcoma, Heart base Tumors
229
What do you hear with pericardia effusion? What do you see on EKG?
You hear muffled heart sounds; you see electrical alternans (alternating height of R waves)
230
When is it ideal to perform a triple pelvic osteotomy and why would it be performed?
5-11 month old puppy for hip dysplasia
231
What is the dental formula for an adult cat?
30 teeth
| I 3/3, C1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1
232
What virus causes chronic stomatitis/gingivitis?
calicivirus
233
What virus causes Marek's in chickens? What are the typical signs?
Herpesvirus
| depression then death; on necropsy - enlarged nerves, visceral lymphoid tumors
234
What are the clinical signs of infectious tracheobronchitis in chickens/pheasants? How do you diagnose?
acutely dyspnea, rales, coughing
Dx: viral isolation of herpesvirus
Vaccinate in the water
235
Clinical signs of influenza in birds?
Respiratory distress, green diarrhea, cyanotic head, wattle, comb
236
Chlamydiosis/Psittacosis is zoonotic and reportable. T/F
Both zoonotic and reportable
237
How do you rehydrate a dehydrated bird?
intra-osseous fluids via distal ulna with 18-22 g 1.5-2.5" needle
238
What would cause raised white lesions in young birds?
Candidiasis (C. albicans)
| Treat with nystatin
239
What clinical sign indicates ivermectin toxicity in turtles?
Paresis
240
What does anterior synechiae mean?
Adhesion of anterior iris to posterior cornea
241
How do you anesthetize a cow to put it all the way out?
Xylazine and ketamine
242
What drug do you use to put a cow in lateral recumbency?
Xylazine
243
How to remove a bovine digit?
Tourniquet with 2% lidocaine ring block
244
The best anesthesia for teat surgery is:
ring block at base, infuse teat with lidocaine
245
Where to block spinal nerves for rumenotomy sx?
T13-L2
246
What are the contraindications to xylazine in a cow?
pregnant cow - can cause premature separation of placentomes
247
Safest most humane way to debud goat kids?
Physical restraint, 10mg/kg of 2% liodcaine
248
What is the biggest problem with anesthesia of cattle related to endotracheal intubation?
aspiration of rumen contents
249
Where is the proper placement of the needle to anesthetize the cornea of a cow?
block the lacrimal nerve via zygomatic temporal nerve
250
What else would be appropriate to give with lidocaine in a goat undergoing C-section?
Diazepam
251
What are signs of colic in cattle?
Grinding teeth (bruxism), grunting/groaning, shifting hind feed, kicking abdomen, restlessness, repeatedly lying down/getting up, anorexia, depression
252
How do you treat neonatal bacteremia (caused by salmonellosis)?
Ceftiofur
253
What typically causes frothy bloat?
```
Lush pastures (high protein) or high grain intake;
tx with stomach tube, antifoaming agent (DSS or veg oil) then rumenotomy
```
254
How do you surgically treat an LDA?
left sided abomasopexy or right-sided omentopexy
255
Most likely cause of diarrhea in a 1-2 wk old calf?
Rotavirus
256
Where is the "ping" best auscultated on cow with an LDA?
Draw a line from left elbow to tuber coxa b/w 9th and 13th ribs
257
What can infect cows after liver biopsy?
C. novyi
258
Large holstein dairy herd with 10 day old calves with diarrhea. 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. Adequate passive transfer has been demonstrated. Next dx step?
ELISA for crypto
259
How do you determine if a gastric tube has been properly placed in a cow?
blow into the tube and auscultate the rumen
260
Postpartum cow of one day that is recumbent and has decreased rumen contractions. What is likely cause?
Ketosis
261
How to dx LDA?
auscultate ping
262
What is considered an emergency in cattle?
abomasal volvulus
263
When is a cow more prone to developing an LDA?
3-6 wks postpartum
264
Cattle herd is having an outbreak of diarrhea, some have scruffy hair coats with alopecia. What is the likely cause?
Johne's disease
265
Where is the holding layer when suturing a paramedian incision in a cow?
external rectus fascia
266
Which of the following surgical approaches is not correct for a cow?
ventral midline
267
A cow with rumen pH of 5 most likely has?
grain overload
268
A cow that is 5 mo into lactation develops diarrhea with melena:
abomasal ulcers
269
Cow off feed with left-sided ping?
LDA
270
Cow with linear lesions in the esophagus (hemorrhage in Peyer's patches). What's the cause?
BVD
271
Several cows in a herd have died. On post-mortem you find rumenal sloughing and rumen fluid pH of 5 and focal liver lesions:
lactic acidosis
272
8% of herd of cattle have diarrhea. Which is the most likely cause?
Johne's
273
A cow has pieces of rumen floating in her rumen. Likely cause?
Lactic acidosis
274
What is appropriate tx for frothy bloat?
DSS
275
```
When is an appropriate time to tx perineal lacteration in a cow?
immediately
w/in 10 days
15-30 d post calving
60 d post calving
```
?? within 10 days?
276
At what minimum of SCC should you start routine milk culturing of bulk tank?
when SCC > 250,000
277
You have an 800,000 cell count in cattle bulk tank; what do you do?
culture on bulk tank milk
278
You would not want to use a live vaccine for which agent?
leptospirosis
279
How does milk get contaminated with Salmonella dublin?
From carrier cows
280
Herd of sheep are sent to slaughter and you learn they had fence line contact with a scrapies-infected sheep. What do you do?
Contact the authorities
281
Which cattle disease is not reportable to the state within 24 hours?
Anaplasmosis
282
What does a 24 mo old beef bull need to be tested for before coming toCA?
Trichomonas
283
What drug can you give to dairy cattle?
Ceftiofur
284
What cattle disease is reportable within 24 hours?
Foot and Mouth!!!
285
A 10 month old bull is tested for Trichomonas. Microscopically within the sample flagellated protozoa are seen. What next?
Cull
286
How long are health certificates valid for for bovine herd?
30 days from physical exam
287
Best post-milking teat dip is what?
20,000 ppm iodinated solution
288
CMT is an indirect measure of?
milk leukocytes (white blood cells)
289
Cell count of less than 100,000 indicates?
overall low strep
overall low staph
increased chance of E coli growth
increased change of E. coli growth
290
The lepto vaccine in cattle is good for how long?
1 yr of protection
291
If fresh cow's milk looks like red tomato soup:
dont do anything?
292
```
Which disease does not have a vaccine:
EBA
IBR
BVD
MCF
```
A
293
What is the tx of choice for cow with parakeratosis?
zinc oxide
294
How do you treat foot rot in a cow?
systemic antibiotics
295
Most important tx for interdigital phlegmon?
Systemic antibiotics
296
5 y cow with 1 cm mass near limbus of eye. What is the best treatment?
scalpel incision then repeated cryotherapy
297
February, most heifers have matted hair on back with small crusty bumps under the crusts. Likely cause?
dermatophilus
298
Which mineral deficiency would cause paresis in lambs?
Copper
299
A herd of cattle being fed alfalfa hay is currently experiencing a large # of fractures. What mineral imbalance is most likely?
Cu deficiency/Molybdenum toxicity
300
Cows that are fed a diet of only oat hay and barley are most likely deficient in ?
Ca++
301
A farmer is experiencing a decrease in fat % in his milk. Whats the most likely cause?
Decreased fiber in the diet
302
Cattle on alfalfa hay. Deaths occur. Post mortem review shows cattle are suffering from lumbar vertebrae fractures and soft ribs.
Decreased P
303
In cows what metabolic abnormality is associated with acidosis:
hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis ?? hyperkalemia??
304
Calves on a high grain, low fiber diet at susceptible to:
vagal indigestion
305
Cows grazed on fields of Ca are prone to Cu deficiency due to:
High Mo
306
Which enzyme is elevated in Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency?
CPK
307
What has happened when you see a cow with a simultaneously flexed hock and extended stifle?
Peroneus tertius muscle rupture (tx stall confinement)
308
A cow has laminitis. It is usually a sequelae to what disease?
rumenal acidosis
309
What do you treat cattle flukes with?
Albendazole
310
A cow has hypoderma bovis. What is the economic impact?
Hide loss
311
You suspect a calf has crypto. How do you differentiate from other coccidian?
Extracellular location?
312
Cattle in November have green diarrhea, poor condition, no oral ulcers, with sudden onset. What is it?
Ostertagiasis I
313
What GI parasite feeds on blood in ruminants?
Haemonchus
314
What is the most dangerous human Brucella pathogen? And cows?
Brucella melitensis in humans - causes undulating fevers
(in cows, it is B. abortus - abortions, retained placenta, orchitis
test with Brucella Milk Ring Test every 3-4 months, cull positives, vaccinate!!
315
At day 60, what is the best way to detect pregnancy?
Membrane slip
316
EBA leads to what in the fetus?
Hepatomegaly with granulamotous nodular areas and lymphomegaly
317
What are the clinical lesions in cows for Blue Tongue Virus?
Inapparent infections in cows
318
How to prevent EBA from happening?
expose heifers to endemic areas prior to breeding age to prevent abortions
319
Most common agent in cattle endometritis?
C. pyogenes
320
Cow in 3rd week of lactation has stinky breath most likely from what?
negative energy balance (ketosis)
321
How do you prevent contagious mastitis?
Dip the teat post-milking
322
What is the best restraint for pregnancy check on 100 nervous Brahma range cattle?
Squeeze chutes
323
In an unvaccinated herd, 70% of heifers have aborted in 3rd trimester with placentitis. What is the most likely agent?
IBR
324
What would you be able to palpated on a 55-day pregnant cow?
Membrane slip
325
Which treatment would be contraindicated in a cow with a retained placenta?
Manual removal
326
Which of the following drugs is prohibited in lactating dairy cows?
Suladiazine
327
Which mastitis pathogens can be eradicated?
?
328
How do you treat a BAR cow in parturition dx with emphysematous shistosmos reflexus?
fetotomy
329
Which drug has no meat/milk withdrawal time?
IM ceftiofur
330
What do you not use to treat acute environmental mastitis?
intramammary antibiotics
331
Which of the following can be well-treated with intramammary antibiotics?
E coli, Seccia, S agalactiae, Mycoplasma californicum
S. agalactiae
332
```
Tritrichomonas fetus is not associated with:
placentitis
late term abortions
post-coital pyometra
male infertility
```
late term abortions
