CVS IM Flashcards

(105 cards)

1
Q

What does reticulocyte count reflect?

A

Bone marrow production activity

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2
Q

Benchmark for adequate BM response to mild/moderate anemia?

A

Above 2.5% correct reticulocyte count

Suggests patient’s anemia is due to blood loss OR hemolytic destruction

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3
Q

What does macrocytic or microcytic anemia suggest?

A

Reflect RBC maturation defects

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4
Q

What does Normocytic anemia reflect?

A

Decrease in RBC proliferation

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5
Q

Does haemoglobin level fall with blood loss immediately?

A

No, only after fluid resuscitation

Fixed amount of RBC is diluted by higher plasma volume

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6
Q

Commonest presentation of chronic blood loss?

A

Asymptomatic iron-deficient anemia.
Reticulocytes <2.5% and low MCV

Commonest cause of Fe-deficiency is chronic occult GI bleeding, which depletes iron stores. do endoscopy!!!

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6
Q

Etiologies of microcytic anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency
Thalassemia
Chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia

Sideroblastic anemia is defective incorporation of iron into heme. Due to lead poisoning/drugs/congenital wtv. Rare!!

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7
Q

How does FBC present if thalassemia is likely in microcytic anemia?

A

Thalassemia: RBCs are very small with MCV in 60s and uniform (low RDW)
Fe deficiency: MCVs in 70s unless severely deficient, less uniform with higher RDW

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8
Q

What does an inflammatory state do to ferritin?

A

Inflammation raises ferritin 3x.
In inflammatory state, up to 100mcg/L can mean Fe deficiency

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9
Q

What does transferrin saturation show?

A

Amount of iron binding to Fe-binding proteins.
Below 16% suggests Fe defiency.
Cut-off is higher for pregnancy, renal disease etc etc

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10
Q

Confirmatory tests for Thalassemia?

A

Beta = Haemoglobin electrophoresis finds HbF and HbA2
Alpha = Haem electrophoresis shows low HbH

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11
Q

What is Red Cell Distribtion Width?

A

Measures heterogeneity of cell size in peripheral blood.
Low in thalassemia, high in Iron deficiency

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12
Q

What to exclude for in macrocytic anemia?

A

Reticulocytosis!
Reticulocytes are larger than mature RBCs, and can raise MCV.

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13
Q

Etiology of B12/folate deficiency?

A

GI malabsorption (gastrectomy, IBD, ileal resection, pernicious anemia)
Dietary insufficiency in vegans

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14
Q

Etiology of macrocytic anemia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia - B12 deficiency
Alcohol and NASH
HypoThyroidism
Drugs
Myelodysplastic syndrome

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15
Q

Initial studies for isolated anaemia?

A

Reticulocytes
Serum creatinine
Calcium
Iron studies

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16
Q

What does profound anemia with very low reticulocyte suggest?

A

Red Cell aplasia.
Workup usu includes BM aspirate.

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17
Q

Consider what etiologies if renal impairment is present in normocytic anemia?

A

CKD
Multiple myeloma
2nd line considerations are: Early Fe deficiency, Anaemia of chronic disease, myelodysplasia, idiopathic

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18
Q

How to divide mechanisms of pancytopenia?

A

BM infiltration
Aplasia
Blood cell destruction

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19
Q

What is in Iron study panel?

A

Serum iron
Transferrin
Ferritin
Total iron binding capacity

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20
Q

What emergencies to consider in pancytopenia?

A

Miroangiopathic hemolytic anaemia
Leukemia
Marrow infiltration

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21
Q

Etiology of pancytopenia?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia
Drugs (e.g. cytotoxic drugs)
Cirrhosis with hypersplenism
Autoimmune conditions
Infection e.g. Malaria, HIV, EBV, hepatitis

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22
Q

Which drugs can cause pancytopenia?

A

Abx - Linezolid, cotrimoxazole etc
Anti-epileptics
Anti-Thyroid meds
Immunosuppressants

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23
Q

Evidence of mechanical hemolysis?

A

Presence of schistocytes

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24
Non-MAHA causes of mechanical red cell fragmentation?
Malignant HTN Hemodynamic turbulence around prosthetic intravascular material e.g. leaky prosthetic valves March hemoglobinuria
25
Commonest congenital etiologies of hemolytic anemia?
Thalassemia G6PD Sickle Cell disease Hereditary Spherocytosis
26
Hypoxia is a physiological trigger of ____?
Hypoxia can trigger raised erythropoietin and polycythaemia.
27
What is secondary polycythaemia?
Elevated erythryopoietin level drives RBC overproduction
28
What gene is mutated in Primary polycythaemia?
JAK-2 is mutated in 90% of cases
29
Complications of Polycythaemia Vera?
Hyperviscosity symptoms Thrombosis Bleedin Transformation to leukemia or secondary myelofibrosis
30
How to use splenomegaly to differentiate between myeloproliferative disorders?
With splenomegaly = Chronic myeloid leukemia, Primary Myelofibrosis Without = Polycythemia vera, Myelodysplastic syndromes, Essential Thrombocytosis
31
Can extreme thrombocytosis cause bleeding?
Yes
32
Sinus tachycardia is usually a response to?
Usu a response to non-cardiac disease. E.g. pain, infection, hypovolemia, anemia, hyperT, PE, anxiety.
33
Multifocal atrial tachycardia tends to occur in patients with what comorbids?
Usu in pts with lung disease (e.g. COPD / pneumonia) or heart disease with pulmonary HTN
34
Endocrine disorders that can case sinus Tachy?
HyperT Hypoglycemia Phaeochromocytoma
35
What is resistant HTN?
HTN above target with optimal doses of 3 anti-hypertensives from different classes, including a diuretic
36
What is pericardial fat pads?
Normal structures in cardiophrenic angle. Adipose tissue that surrounds heart. ## Footnote More prominent in obese patients
37
NYHA classification for Heart Failure?
Stage 1 = No symptoms, no limits to activitty Stage 2 = mild symptoms, mild limits to ordinary activity Stage 3 = Limited activity. Only comfortable at rest Stage 4 = Severely limited activity. Symptoms even at rest
38
What is Electrical Alternans on ECG? What condition does it show?
Alternatingly high and low QRS complexes. 1 high, then 1 low. This means Pericardial effusion or tamponade
39
What causes Pulsus Paradoxus?
Cardiac tamponade, possibly lesser degree constrictive pericarditis. | Often due to pericardial disease
40
When diagnosis is uncertain for cardiac chest pain, how often to test ECG and Troponin?
Without certain diagnosis, repeat ECG and Cardiac troponin as often as needed! Troponin within 2 hrs, ECG as often as every 5 mins if u suspect STEMI
41
If suspected STEMI, do you wait for troponin to do angiogram?
No!! Troponin takes 4 hrs to rise. Do angiogram asap without caring. | but actl now got super sensitive trops test that detects within 1hr lmao
42
Why are posterior STEMI sometimes missed?
Posterior STEMI due to L circumflex occlusion is often silent on ECG. Need to rely on other telltale signs or use posterior leads for ECG.
43
Whats the difference between Diastolic and Systolic HF?
Diastolic HF = heart cannot relax normally between beats. Systolic HF = Heart cant contract effectively with each beat. | Systolic HF also known as HFrEF
44
Characteristics of diastolic HF? LV stiffens due to decades of HTN.
Volume overload isnt a mainstay - no pedal edema or high JVP. Due to stiff LV, pulmonary edema is common + Tachycardia.
45
Red flags for dyspnea that need admission?
O2 sat <92% Bradycardia <60bpm Tachycardia >100bpm Peak Expiratory Flow <33% of best RR >30/min
46
AFib vs Atrial Flutter? ECG sign of flutters?
In Atrial flutter, atria beats regularly but faster than the ventricles. ECG shows saw-tooth pattern
47
3 causes of pansystolic murmur?
Mitral Regurg Tricuspid Regurg VSD
48
How to differentiate Mitral regurg vs Tricuspid regurg on PE? | Heart signs and soft signs
MR has jerky pulse vs TR has normal pulse. MR loudest over mitral region, TR loudest over tricuspid region. MR louder on inspiration, TR louder on expiration MR may have pulsatile hepatomegaly + JVP with giant waveform
48
Which sided murmurs louder on inspiration vs expiration?
**Right murmur louder** on **inspiration**. **Left murmur** louder on **expiration**. | Expiration pushes blood into L heart
49
Where do Mitral Regurg or VSD murmurs radiate to?
MR murmurs radiate to axilla. VSD murmurs radiate to RLSE.
50
What is CHADS-VASC score for AF? Clinical relevance of scoring?
Congestive HF/LV dysfunction? HTN? Age? DM? Stroke, TIA or Thromboembolism? Vascular disease? Gender? | Scoring system for risk of thromboembolic event (stroke) in AF patients. ## Footnote Oral anticoagulants recommended for score of 1 in Men, 2 in women
51
Causes of Long Q-T syndrome? | just some of them
Drugs e.g. antipsychotics, Abx, antidepressants etc Hypothyroidism Hypokalemia Hypomagnesemia Hypocalcemia CNS damage e.g. ICH, ischemic stroke Congenital | 1st line treatment is beta blockers
52
CVS risk factors for AFib?
Age HTN DM Smoking Obesity Sleep apnea
53
What proportion of AMI pts have no non-modifiable RFs for CAD?
10%
54
What to look out for in PE of pts with ACS?
Stigmata of dyslipidemia = xanthelasma, arcus cornealis, xanthomas, thick achilles tendon Evidence of peripheral vascular disease = absent peripheral pulses, femoral bruit, renal bruit etc.
55
Criteria for premature CAD?
CAD before 55 for males, 45 for females. Estrogen gives protective effect. | Premature CAD is genetically inherited.
56
Mx of AMI? | Always divide into general and specific treatment.
General Mx: Rest pt, check ABC, give O2 if hypoxemic. Morphine if in pain. Give GTN Specific: Anti-platelets, aspirin, anti-coagulants, nitrates, Beta blockers, ACE-inhibitors, ARBs, calcium channel blockers. 1st line of mx for AMI is DAPT (dual antiplatelet therapy) | If medical therapy fails, do angioplasty ## Footnote Specific Mx consists of Anti-thrombotic and anti-ischemic drugs (nitrate onwards)
57
6 typical symptoms of HF?
Dyspnea Reduced effort tolerance Orthopnea Paroxysmal Nocturnal dyspnea Pedal edema Fatigue | Elderlies can present with confusion, depression ## Footnote DROPPF mnemonic
58
4 top causes of HF?
Hypertension CAD Valvular Heart disease Cardiomyopathy
59
4 specific signs of HF?
JVP Displaced apex beat S3 heart sound Hepatojugular reflux`
60
Less specific signs of HF?
Sacral edema, scrotal edema, lung creps, hepatomegaly, ascites, narrow pulse pressure, cheyne-stokes breath, oliguria, cold extremities, pleural effusion, cachexia
61
Troponin vs NT-proBNP? What is the diff
Troponins show myocardial injury. NT-proBNP shows increased filling pressure of heart. More specific than trops for HF and rises very fast
62
4 pillar classes of drugs for HF?
Entresto Beta blockers SGLT2 inhibitors Spironolactone ## Footnote Furosemide IV diuretic therapy is standard for HF pts
63
What does aberrant conduction in the heart mean?
Means there are abnormal bypass tracts -> electrical current goes from atrium straight to ventricles. SVT can be very high
64
Grading of systolic murmurs?
1= barely audible 2 = audible, but soft 3 = Easily audible 4 = Easily audible and a/w thrill 5 = still heard with steth only lightly on chest + 4 6 = Heard with steth off the chest + 5
65
Grading for diastolic murmur?
Grade 1 = Barely audible 2 = Audible, but soft 3 = Easily audible 4 = Loud
66
What does obstructive sleep apnea raise risk of?
Systemic HTN Hypoxia-induced arrhythmia Pulm HTN, cor pulmonale Stroke AMI
67
How to interpret microcytic hypochromic anemia on FBC?
Once u see on FBC, do iron panel next. Classic Fe deficient anemia shows up as super low Fe, low ferritin, high transferrin. If unwell, cuz ferritin is an acute phase reactant, ferritin will be elevated even in Fe deficient states. Ferritin has to be below 50 for it to be considered Fe deficient anemia. If well, then ferritin should be below 30 to be considered fe deficient anemia. ## Footnote Fe deficiency in elderlies = alw think of malignancy cuz they may not have bleeding.
68
For Fe deficiency in elderlies, what must be considered?
Alw consider malignacy as bleeding may not be always be present
69
Suspicion of what raises strong need for urgent blood film testing?
Suspicion of leukemia
70
Causes of Normocytic Normochromic anemia (NCNC)?
BM infiltration - Multiple myeloma, leukemia, mets, aplastic anemia CLD CKD MAHA Acute blood loss Chronic diseases e.g. RA, SLE, IBD
71
Complications of AMI? ## Footnote DARTH VADER!
Death Arrhythmia Rupture of myocardium, septum, papillary muscles Tamponade Heart Failure Valvular disease Aneurysm of ventricle Dressler's syndrome Embolism/thrombus mitral Regurg / valvular Regurg
72
Symptoms of severe anemia?
Tachycardia Hypoxia (cardiac ischemia, conjunctival pallor) Dizziness Fatigue
73
Biochemical markers of hemolysis?
High LDH High unconj BRB High reticulocyte count Low haptoglobin
74
Purpose of contrast in CT coronary angiogram?
See vasculature, AND To visualize calcium deposits to assess extent of calcification of vessel.
75
Why are alpha 1 blockers avoided in super old pts? Bisoprolol preferred over Metoprolol. Why?
Alpha 1 blockers reduce afterload as well as preload Bisoprolol more cardioselective.
76
How to respond to hypotensive pts? ## Footnote Depends on cause!! Cause can be Hypovolemic, Cardiogenic, obstructive, distributive (septic)
If cause is septic, then just do fluid resus. If IHD, do ECG and trops, which can rise in IHD / liver impairment. For young patients with TVD, CABG is done instead of PCI (stenting). This is cuz clinically it shows better outcomes. PLUS after stenting, CABG cannot be done after that forever. ## Footnote But always BCLS principles first!!
77
How to respond to AF patients?
Firstly check what the BP is. If low BP, just give fluids. Treat underlying cause if possible e.g electrolyte abnormalities, infection etc. If stable, Immediate treatment = MgSO4 to break arrhythmia chain and Beta blocker = bisprolol, metoprolol ## Footnote But always BCLS principles first!!
78
How does dissection cause delayed pulse?
Radial pulse deficit can be seen if the subclavian artery is involved on the left or brachiocephalic artery on the right. Frequently, the radial pulse is absent on the left and present on the right.
79
What is patent foramen ovale? How to investigate?
Hole btw atrias. Bubble study is for stroke pts without stroke RFs, checking for PFO
80
What is Ebstein's anomaly?
Malformed tricuspid valve leaflets that are displaced into RV with subsequent TR and R heart enlargement
81
Are calcium channel blockers contraindicated in Heart Failure?
YES
82
step 1 for STEMI Mx?
MONAT!!! Morphine Oxygen Nitroglycerin DAPT (Aspirin + Ticagrelor)
83
What happens to ECG when heart is paced from the ventricles?
QRS widens cuz impulse spreads from one ventricle to the other
84
Drugs that cause Torsades De Pointes?
Ciprofloxacin Macrolides anti-psychotics SSRI
85
NOAC of choice for non-valvular AF?
Apixaban 5mg twice daily
86
What does high RDW aka anisocytosis point to?
Iron deficiency anemia | Hereditary spherocytosis possible too
87
What is hypertensive Urgency vs Emergency?
Both have same parameter of 180/120mmHg. BUT emergency has end organ damage. Urgency = can slowly start mx to lower BP Emergency = BP has to be lowered asap on the day
88
HASBLED score for Afib? 1-year risk of major bleeding in Afib patients currently on anticoagulants
HTN Abnormal liver or kidney function Stroke Bleeding Labile INRs Elderly Drugs/alcohol 0 = low risk 1, 2 = moderate risk 3 = high risk
89
Mx strategies for Afib?
Rate control to lower HR Rhythm control to restore normal sinus rhythm. Rate control preferred for long-standing Afib. 1st line are beta blockers or non-DHP Ca channel blockers Rhythm control preferred for recent onset AFib with CVS disease. Do long-term anti-arrhythmics e.g. Flecainide, Amiodarone
90
Commonest cause of Acute vs Subacute Infective endocarditis?
Acute = Staph aureus, causing rapid destruction of endocardial tissue Subacute = Viridans Strep, affecting pts with pre-existing damage to heart valves or structural defects
91
2 pathways for Infective endocarditis pathogenesis?
Damaged valvular endothelium -> Sterile vegetation with microthrombus Valve destruction -> valve regurgitation
92
Risk factors of Infective Endocarditis?
Prosthetic heart valves, acquired valvular disease, chronic hemodialysis Other cardiac conditions
93
1st line imaging always done for pts with suspected Infective Endocarditis? | q
TTE
94
What is multiple myeloma?
Malignant plasma cell dyscrasia. Neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells suppress normal BM function. Haematopoiesis is suppressed, causing leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anaemia
95
Cardinal symptoms of multiple myeloma?
HyperCa Renal impairment Anaemia Bone lytic lesions Other non-specific symptoms e.g. fever, back pain (commonest) ## Footnote but often asymptomatic
96
Diagnostics for multiple myeloma?
Serum hyperCa Serum protein electrophoresis = shows M protein Serum free light chain assay = High light chains Urine protein electrophoresis shows immunofixation Confirm with BM biopsy | Got more, but this is the core
97
Which cardiac pathology can have URTI symptoms?
Myocarditis
98
What can cause falsely low HbA1c?
Hemolytic anemia ## Footnote It shortens erythrocyte survival
99
Criteria for Atypical angina vs mild chest pain?
1. Retrosternal chest pain 2. Provoked by exertion 3. Relieved by rest or nitroglycerin If 1 = mild chest pain If 2 = atypical angina
100
Causes of radio-radial delay?
Aortic dissection (more of radio-femoral delay) Coarctation of aorta!!
101
Empirical abx for Infective endocarditis?
Ampicillin, cloxacillin, gentamicin
102
What is INR target for metallic heart valve?
Aortic metal = 2.0 - 3.0 Mitral metal = 2.5 - 3.5 ## Footnote mitral valve INR is higher is because it is a lower pressure system (Atrial + Ventricle) than aortic valve (Ventricle + Aorta)
103
What clotting factor lacking in Haemophilia A? How to test? What inheritance?
Factor 8. Test intrinsic pathway with aPTT X-linked recessive inheritance | Test clotting factor assay as well ## Footnote Thalassemia also AR inherited.