d3 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is not a chemical-related health hazard?
A. Carcinogenicity
B. Reactivity
C. Corrosivity
D. Toxicity
A
Reactivity
2
Q
Which color is used for radiation hazard?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Purple
A
Purple
3
Q
The reason for considering safety includes _______.
A. Humanitarian concern
B. Economic reasons
C. Laws and Regulations
D. All the above
A
All the above
4
Q
Which of this best describes ‘the likelihood of an incident occurring’?
A. Risk
B. Hazard
C. An event
D. An episode
A
Risk
5
Q
Which of these is the first step to take when conducting a risk assessment?
A. Evaluate the risk
B. Identify the hazards
C. Review your findings
D. Update risk assessments
A
Identify the hazards
6
Q
Which of these is NOT a probable physical hazardous characteristic of a chemical?
A. Flammable
B. Acute
C. Corrosive
D. Reactive
A
Acute
7
Q
Which word is used to correspond with the most toxic material?
A. Hazard
B. Caution
C. Warning
D. Danger
A
Danger
8
Q
When a chemical splashes in the eye, rinse for _______.
A. 10 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 15 minutes
A
15 minutes
9
Q
Radiation that causes redness and sores on the skin is _______.
A. gamma only
B. beta only
C. alpha
D. gamma and beta
A
gamma and beta
10
Q
The three forms of ionizing radiation are _______.
A. Microwave, alpha, beta
B. Visible light, x-ray, gamma
C. Gamma, alpha, beta
D. X-ray, laser, microwave
A
Gamma, alpha, beta
11
Q
Gamma radiation can be shielded with _______.
A. Paper
B. Your skin
C. Aluminum
D. Lead
A
Lead
12
Q
Safety management deals with _______.
A. Loss of life
B. Personal injury
C. Damage to the equipment
D. Prevention of an accident
A
Prevention of an accident
13
Q
Industrial hazards come under the category of _______.
A. Natural hazards
B. Human induced hazards
C. Meteorological hazard
D. Wild fire hazard
A
Human induced hazards
14
Q
If a ladder 20 ft long leans against a vertical wall and the top slides downward at the rate of 2 ft/sec, find how fast the lower end is moving when it is 16 ft from the wall.
A. 25/128 per sec
B. -25/128 per sec
C. 128/25 per sec
D. -128/25 per sec
A
-25/128 per sec
15
Q
A man 6 ft tall walks away from a lamp post
16 ft high at the rate of 5 miles per hour. How
fast does the end of his shadow move?
A. 3 mph
B. 5 mph
C. 6 mph
D. 8 mph
A
8 mph
16
Q
A man 6 ft tall walks away from a lamp post
16 ft high at the rate of 5 miles per hour. How
fast does the shadow lengthens?
A. 3 mph
B. 5 mph
C. 6 mph
D. 8 mph
A
3 mph
17
Q
Which of the following is not a type of
discontinuity?
A. Finite
B. Removable
C. Infinite
D. Jump
A
Finite
18
Q
Find the derivative of cotx with respect to
cosx.
A. -sec2x/cosx
B. sec2x/cosx
C. -csc2x/sinx
D. csc2x/sinx
A
csc2x/sinx
19
Q
Determine the 3rd term of the Taylor series
expansion of lnx centered at x = 2.
A. –(x – 2)^3/24
B. (x – 2)^3/6
C. (x – 2)^3/24
D. –(x – 2)^3/6
A
(x – 2)^3/24
20
Q
Determine the 3rd term of the Maclaurin
series expansion of sinx.
A. x^7/5040
B. x^5/120
C. x^4/24
D. –x^5/120
A
x^5/120
21
Q
Which of the following is the second term of
the standard Maclaurin series expansion of the
function cosh(4x)?
A. 8x^2
B. -27x^3
C. (32x^3)/3
D. 9x^2
A
8x^2
22
Q
Denote
be the partial derivative of a
function u. Given the linear second-order
partial differential equation
Where A, B, C, D, E and F are real constants.
If B2 – 4AC = 0, the above equation is
A. Asymptotic
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Elliptic
A
Parabolic
23
Q
Denote be the partial derivative of a
function u. Given the linear second-order
partial differential equation
Where A, B, C, D, E and F are real constants.
If B2 – 4AC > 0 , the above equation is
A. Asymptotic
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Elliptic
A
Hyperbolic
24
Q
Denote be the partial derivative of a
function u. Given the linear second-order
partial differential equation
Where A, B, C, D, E and F are real constants.
If B2 – 4AC < 0 , the above equation is
A. Asymptotic
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Elliptic
A
Elliptic
25
Which of the following differential equations
is considered as Chebyshev’s equation?
A. (1 – x2)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x2)y’’ – xy’ + n2y = 0
(1 – x2)y’’ – xy’ + n2y = 0
26
Which of the following differential equations
is considered as Hermite’s equation?
A. (1 – x2)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x2)y’’ – xy’ + n2y = 0
y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
27
Which of the following differential equations
is considered as Laguerre’s equation?
A. (1 – x2)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x2)y’’ – xy’ + n2y = 0
xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
28
Which of the following differential equations
is considered as Legendre’s equation?
A. (1 – x2)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x2)y’’ – xy’ + n2y = 0
(1 – x2)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
29
Your company estimates it will have to
replace a piece of equipment at a cost of
P800,000 in 5 years. To do this a sinking fund
is established by making equal monthly
payments into an account paying 6.6%
compounded monthly. How much should each
payment be?
A. P11,290.42
B. P12,562.42
C. P14,987.42
P11,290.42
30
Betty deposits P2000 annually into a Roth
IRA that earns 6.85% compounded annually.
Due to a change in employment, these
deposits stop after 10 years, but the account
continues to earn interest until Betty retires 25
years after the last deposit is made. How much
is in the account when Betty retires?
A. P133,824.20
B. P143,785.10
C. P150,287.30
D. 161,724.40
P143,785.10
31
Mr. Khaild will receive P8,500 a year for the
next 15 years from her trust. If a 7 percent
interest rate is applied, what is the current
value of the future payments if first receipt
occurs today?
A. P56,243.88
B. P65,743.29
C. P70,707.14
D. P82,836.48
P82,836.48
32
Calculate the area enclosed by the curve
x>> + y>> - 10x + 4y - 196 = 0.
A. 15Ð
B. 13Ð
C. 169Ð
D. 225Ð
225Ð
33
A box contains 5 defective and 195 nondefective cell phones. A quality control
engineer selects 2 cell phones at random
without replacement. What is the probability
that exactly 1 is defective?
A. 0.0190
B. 0.0490
C. 0.0390
D. 0.0290
0.0490
34
What is the centroid of a quarter circle
along the first quadrant?
A. (0, 0)
B. (0.5, 0.5)
C. (0.42, 0.42)
D. (0.51, 0.51)
(0.42, 0.42)
35
What is the perimeter of the curve r = 4(1 +
sinÕ).
A. 28
B. 30
C. 32
D. 34
32
36
Find the distance between foci of the conic
8x>> + 9y>> = 288.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
4
37
Determine the equation of an open upward
parabola with (2, 1) and (–4, 1) as ends of latus
rectum.
A. x>> + 2x - 6y - 2 = 0
B. x>> + 2x + 6y - 14 = 0
C. x>> + 6x - 2y - 14 = 0
D. x>>- 6x + 2y + 6 = 0
x>> + 2x - 6y - 2 = 0
38
Find the point in the parabola y>> = 4x at
which the rate of change of the ordinate and
abscissa are equal.
A. (1, -2)
B. (2, 1)
C. (-2, 1)
D. (1, 2)
(1, 2)
39
Mar wants to make a box with no lid from a
rectangular sheet of cardboard that is 18
inches by 24 inches. The box is to be made by
cutting a square of side x from each corner of
the sheet and folding up the sides. Find the
value of x that maximizes the volume of the
box.
A. 4.3in
B. 5.2in
C. 10.6in
D. 3.4in
3.4 in
40
If a chord is selected at random on a fixed
circle what is the probability that its length
exceeds the radius of the circle? Assume that
the distance of the chord from the center of the
circle is uniformly distributed.
A. 0.5
B. 0.667
C. 0.75
D. 0.866
0.866
41
If a chord is selected at random on a fixed
circle what is the probability that its length
exceeds the radius of the circle? Assume that
the end points of the chord are uniformly
distributed over the circumference of the circle.
A. 0.5
B. 0.667
C. 0.75
D. 0.866
0.667
42
If a chord is selected at random on a fixed
circle what is the probability that its length
exceeds the radius of the circle? Assume that
the midpoint of the chord is evenly distributed
over the circle.
A. 0.5
B. 0.667
C. 0.75
D. 0.866
0.75
43
It refers to that field of chemistry dealing
with the synthesis, processing and use of
chemicals that reduce the risks to humans and
the environment.
A. Green Day
B. Green Goblin
C. Green Chemistry
D. Green Engineering
Green Chemistry
44
It is concerned with the design,
commercialization, and use of all types of
processes and products, whereas green
chemistry covers only a very small
subset of this—the development of chemical
processes and products.
A. Green Day
B. Green Goblin
C. Green Chemistry
D. Green Engineering
Green Engineering
45
It is defined as a chemical or physical
condition that has the
potential for causing damage to people,
property, or the environment.
A. Risk
B. Disaster
C. Hazard
D. Pollution
Hazard
46
It is copying of one’s written research
without acknowledging the author.
A. plagiarism
B. infringement
C. cheating
D. confidential
plagiarism
47
It is also known as the Toxic Substances
and Hazardous Nuclear Wastes Control Act of
1990 is also known as ____.
A. RA 6969
B. RA 9669
C. RA 9696
d. RA 9966
RA 6969
48
Meeting of minds between two persons
whereby one binds himself with respect to the
other to give something or to render.
A. contract
B. obligation
C. consent
D. partnership
contract
49
A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to
do.
A. permit
B. obligation
C. approval
D. right
obligation
50
Initial step in the formation of a contract.
A. offer
B. deal
C. transaction
D. call
offer
51
The person who uses an invention for profit
without the permission of the inventor is known
as ____.
A. infringer
B. imposter
C. intruder
D. scammer
infringer
52
What government agency supervises the
Bureau of Patents, Trademarks and
Technology transfer
A. DOST
B. DTI
C. DSWD
D. DPWH
DTI
53
What is an Order or Writ to secure the
attendance of witnesses in connection with any
administrative case before the Board of
Chemical Engineering?
A. search warrant
B. warrant of arrest
C. subpoena
D. subpoena duces tecum
subpoena
54
What is an Order or Writ to secure the
production of documents in connection with
any administrative case before the Board of
Chemical Engineering?
A. search warrant
B. warrant of arrest
C. subpoena
D. subpoena duces tecum
subpoena duces tecum
55
What is the existing integrated and
accredited national organization of registered
Chemical Engineers?
A. Philippine Institution of Chemical Engineers,
Inc.
B. Philippine Institute of Chemical Engineers,
Inc.
C. Philippine Incorporated of Chemical
Engineers, Inc.
D. Philippine Integration of Chemical
Engineers, Inc.
Philippine Institute of Chemical Engineers,
Inc.
56
Engineers can become good managers
only through
A. experience
B. taking master degree in management
C. effective career planning
D. trainings
effective career planning
57
What management functions refers to the
process of anticipating problems, analyzing
them, estimating their likely impact and
determining actions that will lead to the desired
outcomes and goals?
A. planning
B. leading
C. controlling
D. organizing
planning
58
What refers to the establishing
interrelationships between people and things in
such a way that human and materials
resources are effectively focused toward
achieving the goal of the company?
A. planning
B. leading
C. controlling
D. organizing
organizing
59
What management function involves
selecting candidates and training personnel?
A. organizing
B. staffing
C. motivating
D. controlling
staffing
60
What management function involves
orienting personnel in the most effective way
and channeling resources?
A. directing
B. planning
C. organizing
D. leading
directing
61
Actual performance normally is the same
as the original plan and therefore it is
necessary to check for deviation and to take
corrective action. This action refers to what
management function?
A. organizing
B. planning
C. controlling
D. staffing
controlling
62
What refers to management function which
is to encourage others to follow the example
set for them, with great commitment and
conviction?
A. staffing
B. motivating
C. controlling
D. leading
leading
63
What refers to a principle function of lower
management which is to instill in the workforce
a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the
goals of the organization?
A. directing
B. motivating
C. staffing
D. controlling
motivating
64
This document may be issued by the Board
of Chemical Engineering to a person for
advanced studies and major accomplishments
in research in chemical engineering.
A. certificate of registration
B. certificate of recognition
C. certificate of proficiency
D. certificate of exemption
certificate of recognition
65
An industrial plant may be considered as
A. a big factory
B. a laboratory with pilot scale and industrial
equipment
C. any entity that utilizes unit processes and
unit operations
D. a waste treatment plant
any entity that utilizes unit processes and
unit operations
66
An integrated national professional
organization that is duly accredited and
recognized by the corresponding Board and
the PRC is referred to as
A. Accredited Professional Organization
B. Recognized Professional Association
C. Accredited Professional Association
D. Accredited and Recognized Professional
Organization
Accredited Professional Organization
67
Decisions of the Board on cases filed
before it is may be appealed for in
A. 1 year
B. 1 month
C. 15 days
D. 7 days
15 days
68
Which of the following is not included in the
powers and duties of the Board of Chemical
Engineering?
A. supervise and regulate the practice of
chemical engineering profession
B. issue warrant of arrest for violators of RA
9297
C. prosecute criminal action against violators of
RA 9297
D. adopt official seal
issue warrant of arrest for violators of RA
9297
69
Which of the following can practice
chemical engineering?
A. licensed and registered chemical engineers
B. industrial plants
C. all BSChE graduates
D. PIChE
licensed and registered chemical engineers
70
The Board of Chemical Engineering shall
complete the correction of examination papers
within __ days from the last day of
examination,
A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5
20
71
The volume of a sphere is 972Ð m3
, find
the surface area of the said sphere.
A. 324Ð m2
B. 412Ð m2
C. 526Ð m2
D. 625Ð m2
324Ð m2
72
Find the derivative of «(2x»+3x) with
respect to x.
A. «(2x»+3x)(4x+3)
B. 1/[2«(2x»+3x)]
C. (4x+3)/[2«(2x»+3x)]
D. 1/[«(2x»+3x)]
(4x+3)/[2«(2x»+3x)]
73
A businessman invests in a medium scale
business which cost him P100,000. The net
annual return is estimated at P30,000 for each
of the next 10 years. Compute the benefit cost
ratio if the annual rate of interest is 20%.
A. 1.06
B. 1.16
C. 1.26
D. 1.36
1.26
74
Compute the benefit cost ratio of the
following project:
Project cost = P120,000
Gross income = P35,000/year
Operating cost = P8,000/year
Salvage value = 0
Life of Project = 10 years
Rate of interest = 15%
A. 1.03
B. 1.13
C. 1.23
D. 1.33
1.13
75
The first cost of a permanent road that will
improve access to a rural area is P1,000,000.
The annual maintenance cost is expected to be
P20,000 per year. Improved accessibility will
result in benefits of P70,000 per year. At an
interest rate of 6% per year, the conventional
B/C ratio is nearest to:
A. 0.58
B. 0.68
C. 0.78
D. 0.88
0.88
76
A company, InnovateTech Inc., reports the
following financial information for the end of the
fiscal year:
•
Cash and cash equivalents: $150,000
•
Marketable securities: $80,000
•
Accounts receivable: $120,000
•
Inventory: $200,000
•
Current liabilities: $300,000
Calculate the company's acid-test ratio.
A. 1.07
B. 1.17
C. 1.27
D. 1.37
1.17
77
TechSolutions Ltd. has the following
financial details at the end of Q1:
•
Current assets: $450,000
•
Inventory: $180,000
•
Current liabilities: $320,000
Calculate the acid test ratio of TechSolutions
Ltd.
A. 0.54
B. 0.64
C. 0.74
D. 0.84
0.84
78
EDA in statistics stands for
A. Exploratory Data Analysis
B. Experimental Data Analysis
C. Environmental Data Analysis
D. Exquisite Data Analysis
Exploratory Data Analysis
79
CDA in statistics stands for
A. Collected Data Analysis
B. Computed Data Analysis
C. Confirmatory Data Analysis
D. Combined Data Analysis
Confirmatory Data Analysis
80
A type of statistics which assume that the
data follow a specific distribution (usually
normal) and rely on parameters like mean and
standard deviation.
A. Descriptive Statistics
B. Inferential Statistics
C. Parametric Statistics
D. Non-parametric Statistics
Parametric Statistics
81
A type of statistics that does not assume a
specific distribution for the data, making them
useful for data that is ordinal, nominal, or not
normally distributed.
A. Descriptive Statistics
B. Inferential Statistics
C. Parametric Statistics
D. Non-parametric Statistics
Non-parametric Statistics
82
A type of statistics which focuses on
analyzing and summarizing data for a single
variable at a time, often using measures of
central tendency and dispersion.
A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics
Univariate Statistics
83
A type of statistics that examines the
relationship between two variables to identify
any association or correlation.
A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics
Bivariate Statistics
84
A type of statistics which involves analyzing
data that includes more than two variables to
understand complex relationships and
interactions among them.
A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics
Multivariate Statistics
85
It is an approach to analyzing data sets to
summarize their main characteristics often with
visual methods. It’s used to detect patterns,
anomalies, and check assumptions.
A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics
Exploratory Data Analysis
86
It is used to confirm hypotheses about data.
It often involves inferential statistics methods to
test hypotheses.
A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics
Confirmatory Data Analysis
87
A type of statistics which involves updating
the probability of a hypothesis as more
evidence or data becomes available, based on
Bayes' Theorem.
A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics
Bayesian Statistics
88
It focuses on analyzing data points
collected or recorded at specific time intervals,
typically to forecast future trends.
A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics
Time Series Analysis
89
A type of statistics which analyze data that
has a spatial or geographical aspect,
identifying patterns, clusters, or variations
across locations.
A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics
Spatial Statistics
90
Which of the following best describes the
null hypothesis?
A. The hypothesis that there is a significant
effect.
B. The hypothesis that the results are due to
chance.
C. The hypothesis that there is no significant
difference.
D. The hypothesis that all sample means are
equal.
The hypothesis that there is no significant
difference.
91
In a hypothesis test, if the p-value is less
than the significance level (α), you should:
A. Fail to reject the null hypothesis.
B. Reject the null hypothesis.
C. Increase the sample size.
D. Change the significance level.
Reject the null hypothesis.
92
Which of the following tests is appropriate
for comparing means of two independent
samples?
A. Paired t-test
B. Independent t-test
C. Chi-square test
D. ANOVA
Independent t-test
93
When performing a hypothesis test for a
population proportion, which distribution is
generally used?
A. Normal distribution
B. Chi-square distribution
C. t-distribution
D. Exponential distribution
Normal distribution
94
In an ANOVA test, the null hypothesis is:
A. The variances of the populations are equal.
B. The population means are equal.
C. The sample means are different.
D. The population variances are different
The population means are equal.
95
What does a chi-square test measure?
A. The mean difference between groups.
B. The association between categorical
variables.
C. The probability of a continuous variable.
D. The difference between paired sample
means.
The association between categorical
variables.
96
When should you use a paired t-test?
A. Comparing two related groups
B. Comparing two independent groups
C. Comparing frequencies
D. Comparing variances
Comparing two related groups
97
What is the critical value in hypothesis
testing?
A. The probability of making a Type I error
B. The threshold to reject the null hypothesis
C. The value that must exceed the test statistic
D. The effect size needed to reject the null
hypothesis
The threshold to reject the null hypothesis
98
The Central Limit Theorem states that:
A. All sample distributions become normal
B. The distribution of sample means will be
approximately normal, regardless of the population distribution, as sample size
increases
C. The sample mean equals the population
mean
D. Variance decreases with larger samples
The distribution of sample means will be
approximately normal, regardless of the population distribution, as sample size
increases
99
The t-test is suitable for:
A. Testing the difference between means
B. Testing the relationship between variables
C. Testing frequencies
D. Testing variances
Testing the difference between means
100
Which of the following tests compares
observed frequencies to expected frequencies?
A. Paired t-test
B. Chi-square test
C. Z-test
D. Mann-Whitney U test
Chi-square test
