DA42 TECH QUESTIONS CATHAY Flashcards
(146 cards)
1
Q
What type Engine is fitted to the DA42L?
a) 4 cylinder horizontally opposed
b) 4 cylinder inline liquid cooled
c) 4 cylinder air cooled turbocharged diesel
d) 6 cyinder horizontally opposed
A
a) 4 cylinder horizontally opposed
2
Q
What is the maximum take off Power produced?
a) 180 hp
b) 160 hp
c) 135 hp
d) 150 hp
A
a) 180 hp
3
Q
What is the maximum and minimum oil quantities?
a) 7,6 litres and 3,8 litres
b) 6,0 litres and 3,8 litres
c) 3,0 litres and 6,0 litres
d) 4,0 litres and 5,0 litres
A
a) 7,6 litres and 3,8 litres
4
Q
What type and grade of oil must be used?
a) SAE 50 Ashless dispersant Mineral oil
b) Shell Helix Ultra 5/30/40
c) Shell AD synthetic oil
d) Red band
A
a) SAE 50 Ashless dispersant Mineral oil
5
Q
What is the maximum continous Engine RPM and Power?
a) 2500 rpm and 160 hp
b) 2700 rpm and 180 hp
c) 2700 rpm and 160 hp
d) Full power
A
c) 2700 rpm and 160 hp
6
Q
What is the maximum/minimum oil pressure?
a) 7,9 bar / 1,72 bar
b) 5,0 bar / 1,0 bar
c) 6,0 bar / 4,0 bar
d) 85 bar / 100 bar
A
a) 7,9 bar / 1,72 bar
7
Q
What is the maximum oil temperature?
a) 200 deg C
b) 118 deg F
c) 118 deg C
d) 200 deg F
A
c) 118 deg C
8
Q
What is the minimum/maximum voltage?
a) 12 / 24 V
b) 25,1 / 30 V
c) 30 / 32 V
d) 14 / 28 V
A
b) 25,1 / 30 V
9
Q
What is the maximum Take off weight (MTOW)?
a) 1785 kg
b) 1793 kg
c) 1700 kg
d) 1800 kg
A
a) 1785 kg
10
Q
What is the maximum ramp weight?
a) 1795 kg
b) 1793 kg
c) 1700 kg
d) 1800 kg
A
a) 1795 kg
11
Q
The maximum baggage allowable in nose/cockpit/baggage extension is:
a) 30/30/20
b) 30/45/45
c) 30/45/18
d) 45/45/18
A
c) 30/45/18
12
Q
What is the capacity of the Main fuel tanks?
a) 2 x 52,0 total and 2 x 50,0 useable
b) 2 x 98,4 total and 2 x 98,4 useable
c) 2 x 98,4 total and 2 x 94,6 useable
d) 2 x 150,4 total and 2 x 94,8 useable
A
c) 2 x 98,4 total and 2 x 94,6 useable
13
Q
What is the approved fuel for the DA42L?
a) Avgas 100 LL
b) MOGAS
c) Jet A-1
d) All of the above
A
a) Avgas 100 LL
14
Q
What is Vy with flaps in the up position?
a) 78 kts above 3500 lbs
b) 90 kts at all weights
c) 72 kts below 1700 kg
d) 80 kts at all weights
A
b) 90 kts at all weights
15
Q
What is Vfe with approach flaps set?
a) 140 kts
b) 111 kts
c) 137 kts
d) 120 kts
A
c) 137 kts
16
Q
The maximum speed for landing gear extension?
a) 194 kts IAS
b) No limit
c) 194 kts IAS in smooth air
d) 155 kts
A
a) 194 kts IAS
17
Q
The speed for Engine failure after Take-off (Vyse) is?
a) 75 kts
b) 90 kts
c) 82 kts flaps at APP
d) 60 kts
A
b) 90 kts
18
Q
What is the maximum permissable fuel imbalance between the left and the right tanks?
a) here is no problem evident with an imbalance
b) 18,9 lt
c) 25 lt
d) 18,9 lt on aux tanks only
A
b) 18,9 lt
19
Q
On Engine start up you notice smoke flames coming from the Engine.
You should:
a) Fuel selector OFF, mixture to Idel cut off, elec master OFF, Magnetos OFF, canopy OPEN, evacuate
b) Fuel selector OFF, master OFF, canopy OPEN, evacuate
c) Fuel OFF, elec OFF, Master OFF, discharge fire extinguisher
A
a) Fuel selector OFF, mixture to Idel cut off, elec master OFF, Magnetos OFF, canopy OPEN, evacuate
20
Q
In case of an in-flight emergency the emergency frequency can be selected by…
a) depressing and holding the COM Transfer button on the G1000 for 2 seconds
b) depressing the COM transfer button for 2 sec
c) depressing the COM transfer button
d) depressing the COM Active button for 2 sec
A
a) depressing and holding the COM Transfer button on the G1000 for 2 seconds
21
Q
During flight at cruising altitude you observe oil pressure is Reading high.
You should….
a) Nothing, as the system is self monitoring
b) Check oil temperature, if in green, it is a false indication, if outside green arc, reduce power and land at nearest airfield
c) Check temperature, reduce power, if no change reduce power and land at nearest airfield
d) Oil pressure is always high at altitude
A
b) Check oil temperature, if in green, it is a false indication, if outside green arc, reduce power and land at nearest airfield
22
Q
The CSU on the DA 42L Controls propeller RPM by:
a) flyweights and spring tension controlling the valve in the CSU
b) signals from the FADEC moving the flyweights
c) automatically sensing Engine RPM and Aircraft speed
d) comparing Engine oil and propeller oil pressure
A
a) flyweights and spring tension controlling the valve in the CSU
23
Q
How is the rear emergency exit opened
a) pull red lever down
b) push red lever to the right
c) pull red lever down and push to the front
d) kicking the window out
A
c) pull red lever down and push to the front
24
Q
The variable elevator stop limits the travel of the elevator to
a) 13 deg deflection with Engines at full power
b) 15,5 deg with Engine power less then 14,5” hg and flaps at landing
c) 13 deg with engine power greater than 14,5” hg and flaps UP
d) prevent stalling at high speed
A
c) 13 deg with engine power greater than 14,5” hg and flaps UP
25
To feather a propeller
a) the engine must be turing above 1500 RPM
b) the engine must be turning
c) the engine must be shut down and stationary
d) the propeller will automatically feather in the event of a failure
a) the engine must be turing above 1500 RPM
26
The fuel transfer pumps
a) transfer fuel from one main tank to the other
b) transfer fuel from the main tanks to the related AUX tank
c) transfer fuel from the AUX tanks to the related main tank
d) transfer fuel from the main tanks to any tank
c) transfer fuel from the AUX tanks to the related main tank
27
When filling the AUX fuel tanks
a) any amount of fuel can be put in
b) they must be filled to the maximum level
c) they must be filled to the same level
d) they must be filled after the main tanks
b) they must be filled to the maximum level
28
The transponder is linked to which BUS
a) RH main BUS
b) LH main BUS
c) Avionics BUS
d) LH ECU BUS
b) LH main BUS
29
What is the meaning of the abbreviation AHRS
a) Attitude and Heading Reference System
b) Average Heading Reproduction System
c) Average Heading Realignment System
d) Attitude Horizon Reference System
a) Attitude and Heading Reference System
30
Which key should be pressed to change between the standby and active frequency
a) the frequency transfer key
b) the small tuning knob
c) the CDI soft key
d) the volume knob
a) the frequency transfer key
31
What is the purpose of the large COM knob
a) it Changes the KHz
b) it Changes the MHz
c) it Controls the volume
d) it Controls the squelch
b) it Changes the MHz
32
What is the maximum speed the gear can be extended with the emergency system
a) 194 KIAS
b) 155 KIAS
c) 78 KIAS
d) 120 KIAS
b) 155 KIAS
33
How is the landing gear lowered in the event of a Hydraulic failure
a) blown down by the CO2 charge
b) accumulator pressure
c) it cannot be lowered
d) freefalls under it's own weight
d) freefalls under it's own weight
34
A complete failure of the AHRS system will result in the loss of
a) airspeed and altitude
b) attitude and heading
c) attitude, heading and navigation map
d) all engine instruments
c) attitude, heading and navigation map
35
The fuel transfer pumps
a) transfer fuel from the one main tank to the other
b) transfer fuel from the main tanks to the related AUX tank
c) transfer fuel from the main tanks to any tank
d) transfer fuel from the AUX tanks to the related main tank
d) transfer fuel from the AUX tanks to the related main tank
36
Should a warning alert appear on the G1000 system with the following message "DOOR OPEN", it means that
a) the front and/or rear canopy and/or baggage door are/is not closed and locked
b) the rear baggage door is not closed and locked
c) the front canopy is not closed and locked
d) the passengers door is not closed
a) the front and/or rear canopy and/or baggage door are/is not closed and locked
37
In the event of an electrical fire in flight, the emergency battery will supply power to
a) cockpit emergency lighting only
b) all primary flight
c) stand-by attitude gyro (AH) and the flood light
d) all electrical systems
c) stand-by attitude gyro (AH) and the flood light
38
What is the stated manouvering speed (Va) above and below 1542 kg
a) 194 KIAS and 156 KIAS
b) 126 KIAS and 120 KIAS
c) 111 KIAS and 137 KIAS
d) 155 KIAS and 90 KIAS
b) 126 KIAS and 120 KIAS
39
Should you require to do an emergency descent, proceed as follows:
a) Flaps UP, Landing gear UP, Throttles idle, Airspeed as required, Max 194 KIAS
b) Any of the proceedures
c) Flaps UP, Landing gear DOWN, Throttles idle, Airspeed as required
d) Flaps UP, Landing gear UP, Throttles idle, Airspeed as required, Max 194 KIAS
e) Flaps DOWN, Landing gear DOWN, Throttles idel, Airspeed Max 111 KIAS
c) Flaps UP, Landing gear DOWN, Throttles idle, Airspeed as required
40
What are the landing gear operating speed limitations for extension (Vloe) and retraction (Vlor)
a) 111 KIAS and 137 KIAS
b) 194 KIAS and 156 KIAS
c) 155 KIAS and 90 KIAS
d) 126 KIAS and 120 KIAS
b) 194 KIAS and 156 KIAS
41
The following limitations apply to engine starter
a) 10 sec ON, 20 sec OFF, repeat max 6 times, allow 30 min to cool before next attempt
b) No limits apply
c) 10 sec ON, 20 sec OFF, 10 sec ON, 1 min OFF, 10 sec ON, 30 min OFF
d) Max 10 sec ON, 20 sec OFF, continous attempt allowed, consider battery voltage
a) 10 sec ON, 20 sec OFF, repeat max 6 times, allow 30 min to cool before next attempt
42
In case of suspicion of carbon monoxide contamination, proceed as follows:
a) Close all vents and land as soon as possible
b) The front canopy may be unlatched, allowing it to partially open to improve ventilation. Flight characteristics will not be affected significantly, but the airspeed is limited to 120 KIAS max
c) Land ASAP
d) Switch off the cabin heat and defrost, if the effect is less, continue with flight
b) The front canopy may be unlatched, allowing it to partially open to improve ventilation. Flight characteristics will not be affected significantly, but the airspeed is limited to 120 KIAS max
43
If, during flight, the Left/Right Engine fuel pressure is greater than 35 PSI, proceed as follows:
a) Turn off the fuel pump on the affected engine, if the fuel pump is selected ON, continue operating normally
b) Continue with the exercise but write up the error code in the maintenance release for correction
c) Turn off the fuel pump for the affected engine, if the fuel pump is selected ON, reduce power on the affected Engine by reducing the throttle lever as required
d) Turn on the fuel pump for the affected engine, if the fuel pump is selected OFF, reduce power on the affected engine by reducing the throttle lever as required
c) Turn off the fuel pump for the affected Engine, if the fuel pump is selected ON, reduce power on the affected engine by reducing the throttle lever as required
44
The speed for intentional one engine inoperative (Vsse) is:
a) 90 KIAS flaps UP
b) 90 KIAS flaps at APP
c) 82 KIAS flaps at APP
d) 80 KIAS flaps UP
d) 80 KIAS flaps UP
45
If both alternators fail at the same time, proceed as follows:
a) Squawk 7700, make a MAYDAY call and land immediately
b) Reduce all electrical Equipment to a mimimum, expect battery power to last 30 min and land ASAP
c) Double alternator failure is not possible due to the fail-safe design of the system
d) No immediate action is required, battery will last 30 min. Land ASAP
b) Reduce all electrical Equipment to a mimimum, expect battery power to last 30 min and land ASAP
46
The maximum speed for emergency/manual gear extension is
a) 156 KIAS
b) 194 KIAS (Vle) in smooth air
c) No limit (Vne)
d) 194 KIAS (Vloe)
a) 156 KIAS
47
What are the published Manouvering Load Factors
a) +2,0 and -3,8
b) +2,0 and -1,52
c) +3,8 and -1,52
d) +3,8 and -3,8
c) +3,8 and -1,52
48
If, during flight, the Left/Right Engine fuel pressure is less than 14 PSI, proceed as follows:
a) continue flying but limit the engine power to the cruise setting and monitor closely
b) do nothing as the system is self-monitoring and within operatin limits
c) shut down the affected engine using the Engine failure in flight checklist and land ASAP
d) turn on the electric fuel pump for the affected engine
d) turn on the electric fuel pump for the affected engine
49
The landing gear on the DA 42L is held in the up position by
a) mechanical up-locks and hydraulic pressure
b) hydraulic pressure
c) mechanical up-locks
d) a pressurised gas container and a hydraulic pump
b) hydraulic pressure
50
Audible warning alerts: GEAR RETRACTED CHIME TONE means:
a) the landing gear is extended while flaps move into the LDG position
b) the gear has retracted safely and is up and locked
c) the landing gear is retracted while the throttle is placed in a position forward of IDLE, but below approx 14" of manifold pressure or the landing gear is retracted while flaps move into the LDG position
d) the gear is up and locked
c) the landing gear is retracted while the throttle is placed in a position forward of IDLE, but below approx 14" of manifold pressure or the landing gear is retracted while flaps move into the LDG position
51
What is the normal operating range for the fuel pressure
a) 14 - 35 PSI
b) 13 - 31 PSI
c) 56 - 95 PSI
d) 25,1 - 30 PSI
a) 14 - 35 PSI
52
If the starter does not disengage from the engine after starting (starter warning message (START) on the G1000 remains illuminated or flashing after the Engine as started), proceed as follows...
a) shut down the affected engine and terminate fight planning
b) shut down the affected engine, attempt a restart and continue with the flight
c) do nothing as the system is self monitoring and within operating limits
d) continue with the exercise but write up the error code in the maintenance release for correction
a) shut down the affected engine and terminate fight planning
53
In the event of extreme smoke developing in the cockpit, you may proceed as follows to vent the smoke
a) the front Canopy may be unlatched, allowing it to partially open to improve ventilation. Flight characteristics will not be affected significantly, no airspeed limitations apply
b) the front Canopy may be unlatched, allowing it to partially open to improve ventilation. Flight characteristics will not be affected significantly, but airspeed is limited to 120 KIAS max
c) jettison the canopy
d) open the rear door for ventilation
b) the front Canopy may be unlatched, allowing it to partially open to improve ventilation. Flight characteristics will not be affected significantly, but airspeed is limited to 120 KIAS max
54
Autopilot usage
a) the autopilot cannot be engaged when an Engine has failed as it needs both Engines to supply electrical power
b) the autopilot may be used when OEI conditions exist
c) autopilot is to be disengaged at indication of Engine failure, but may be used once the aircraft is stable
d) the use of AFCS for OEI operations is prohibited
d) the use of AFCS for OEI operations is prohibited
55
What is the permissable max fuel difference LH/RH (litres)
a) 19,8
b) 13,7
c) 18,9
d) 26,0
c) 18,9
56
The flap selector switch's palcard is marked as follows
a) UP, APP137 KIAS, LDG 111 KIAS
b) UP, APP, LDG, DOWN
c) UP, APP 137 KIAS, LDG 111 KIAS, DOWN 95 KIAS
d) UP, APP, LDG
a) UP, APP 137 KIAS, LDG 111 KIAS
57
The transponder is linked to which BUS
a) LH main BUS
b) RH main BUS
c) Avionics BUS
d) LH ECU BUS
a) LH main BUS
58
Warning alerts on the instrument panel: GEAR UNSAFE WARNING LIGHT means
a) the landing gear is down, but the brake pressure is too low
b) there is a hydraulic failure on the landing gear system
c) the landing gear is neither in the final up or down and locked position
d) all of the other choices
c) the landing gear is neither in the final up or down and locked position
59
How is the rear emergency exit opened
a) pull red lever down, push door open
b) pull the red lever and push the lever towards the nose of the aircraft
c) push red lever to the right, pull door open
d) no rear emergency exit, all persons exit via the main canopy
b) pull the red lever and push the lever towards the nose of the aircraft
60
A failure of the varible elevator stop would be indicated by
a) an amber caution light on the G1000 display
b) an amber caution light on the instrument panel near the gear position indicators
c) A red warning light on the G1000 display
d) the control stick will be harder to move
a) an amber caution light on the G1000 display
61
Landing of the Aircraft with a mass between 1700 kg and 1785 kg is permissable
a) it does however constitute an abnormal landing but it only needs to be recorded in the maintenance manuel
b) it is considered an abnormal operating procedure but no action is required
c) it does however constitute an abnormal landing and a over-weight landing check is required
d) it is within normal operational limits, no action required
b) it is considered an abnormal operating procedure but no action is required
62
Which statement is correct with regard to feathering an engine in flight
a) the propeller can only be feathered once the propeller has stopped turning
b) the engine must be shut down and stationary
c) feathering of the propeller is accomplished by the feathering pump and can be done at any time
d) the propeller cannot be feathered if the propeller is not turning
d) the propeller cannot be feathered if the propeller is not turning
63
Fuel quantity indication is available for
a) a single quantity indicator mounted on the instrument panel with a "tank selector switch"
b) all fuel tanks on the G1000 flight display
c) independant fuel quantity indicators mounted to the instrument panel
d) main fuel tanks only on the G1000 flight display
d) main fuel tanks only on the G1000 flight display
64
The max operating altitude of the Aircraft is
a) 13'000 ft by day and 12'000 ft by night
b) 10'000 ft
c) 18'000 ft
d) 15'000 ft with oxygen
c) 18'000 ft
65
The Engine should idle in the 800 to 1'200 RPM range for a short time before shutdown to
a) allow the battery to charge
b) allow the propeller feathering system to cool down
c) allow the temperatures to stabilize
d) allow the oil in the sump to settle
c) allow the temperatures to stabilize
66
Airspeed indicator markings
```
a) White band 56 - 111
green band 62 - 155
yellow band 155 - 194
b) yellow band 57 - 111
white band 155 - 194
green band 64 - 155
c) blue band 57 - 111
green band 64 - 155
red band 155 - 194
d) White band 57 - 111
blue band 64 - 155
yellow band 155 - 194
```
a) White band 56 - 111
green band 62 - 155
yellow band 155 - 194
67
What is the published Vmca
a) 57 KIAS
b) 80 KIAS
c) 90 KIAS
d) 65 KIAS
d) 65 KIAS
68
The never exceed speed in smooth air (Vne) is
a) 156 KIAS
b) 155 KIAS
c) 137 KIAS
d) 194 KIAS
d) 194 KIAS
69
The fuel transfer pumps for the auxillary tanks will switch off when
a) the AUX tanks are empty or the main tank is full
b) manually on the MFD
c) when the main tanks are above 17 gals
d) pressure drops below 14 PSI
a) the AUX tanks are empty or the main tank is full
70
The emergency battery
a) is recharged from the Aircraft electrical system
b) is non rechargeable
c) supplies the standby AH and flood lights in the event of total electrical failure
d) provides spark to keep the Engines running in the event of total electrical failure
c) supplies the standby AH and flood lights in the event of total electrical failure
71
A red X on the airspeed on the G1000 means
a) there is not enough airspeed
b) that instrument is not receiving valid data
c) Vne has been exceeded
b) that instrument is not receiving valid data
72
The fuel transfer pumps
a) transfer fuel from one main tank to the other
b) transfer fuel from the AUX tank to the selected Engine
c) are automatic and move fuel as required
d) transfer fuel from the AUX tank to the related main tank
d) transfer fuel from the AUX tank to the related main tank
73
When the right hand fuel selector lever is in the x-feed position
a) the left engine is feeding from the right tank
b) the right engine is feeding from the left tank
c) fuel is being transferred from the right to the left
d) fuel is being transferred from the right AUX tank to the right main tank
b) the right engine is feeding from the left tank
74
When ALTERANTE AIR is selected
a) air is supplied to the engine selected from the cabin
b) air is supplied to the cabin from the ram air duct
c) the airfilter is by-passed and air is taken from inside the nacelle on both engines
d) the standby instruments get unfiltered air
c) the airfilter is by-passed and air is taken from inside the nacelle on both engines
75
Which flight Controls is Cable operated
a) all flight Controls
b) rudder
c) rudder and elevator
d) rudder and ailerons
b) rudder
76
Flaps are
a) 4 pieces and electrically operated
b) 2 pieces and electrically operated
c) 4 pieces and hydraulically operated
d) 2 pieces and hydraulically operated
a) 4 pieces and electrically operated
77
How is the elevator trim prevented from being over rotated
a) mechanical lock
b) friction device
c) ratchet gear
d) lock plates
b) friction device
78
Where are the auxillary tanks located
a) in the wing
b) in the fuselage
c) in the rear of the nacelle
d) behind the rear baggage compartment
c) in the rear of the nacelle
79
The main fuel tank vent
a) has two vents, one to let air in and one to let fuel out
b) has two vents in case one fails
c) has two vents, one is for the AUX tank
d) has only one vent
a) has two vents, one to let air in and one to let fuel out
80
Wher is the ALTERNATE STATIC vent located
a) next to landing gear handle
b) on the centre console
c) LH fuselage wall under the instrument panel
d) next to the standby instruments
c) LH fuselage wall under the instrument panel
81
What type of propellers are used on the DA 42
a) 3 blade metal constant speed
b) 3 blade wooden composite constant speed
c) 3 blade carbon fibre constant speed
d) 3 blade wooden fixed pitch
b) 3 blade wooden composite constant speed
82
How many fuel drains are there on the DA 42
a) 2 main tanks and 2 aux tanks
b) 2 main tanks and 2 aux tanks and 2 nacelle drains
c) 2 mains and 2 nacelle drains
d) 4 mains and 2 aux drains
b) 2 main tanks and 2 aux tanks and 2 nacelle drains
83
Each main fuel tank is made up from
a) two Chambers and are interconnected
b) one chamber with baffels to reduce sloshing
c) 4 Chambers with baffels to reduce sloshing
d) 3 Chambers interconnected
d) 3 Chambers interconnected
84
When the Master switch is turned on the undercarrige pump may run for a brief period. This is due to...
a) the undercarriage lever is in the UP position and the gear is trying to retract
b) the undercarriage was not locked down properly
c) a micro switch on the main gear is faulty
d) the system pressure has fallen and the pump is restoring the pressure
d) the system pressure has fallen and the pump is restoring the pressure
85
Oil pressure must move into the green sector in
a) 30 sec
b) 20 sec
c) 3 sec
d) 15 sec
d) 15 sec
86
Magneto functional check limits are
a) 150 drop, 25 diff
b) 175 drop, 50 diff
c) 100 drop, 50 diff
d) 125 drop, 50 diff
b) 175 drop, 50 diff
87
When reducing power, the CHT indicator will flash
a) if the power reduction is too fast
b) if the CHT is reducing by more the 50 deg F/min
c) if the CHT is too high
d) until the temperature has stabilized
b) if the CHT is reducing by more the 50 deg F/min
88
The x-wind limit for the DA42 is
a) 25 knots
b) 10 knots
c) 17 knots
d) no limit
c) 17 knots
89
If a lightning strike is suspected, you should
a) do nothing as the Aircraft is not made of metal
b) slow down below 126 knots, avoid abrupt control momvements and high G-loads and land at next suitable airfield
c) slow down below 80 knots, avoid abrupt control momvements and high G-loads and land at next suitable airfield
d) land immediately
b) slow down below 126 knots, avoid abrupt control momvements and high G-loads and land at next suitable airfield
90
Max continous power at sea level is
a) 2700 RPM and 30" MAP
b) 2700 RPM and 25,5" MAP
c) 2500 RPM and 26,7" MAP
d) 2700 RPM and 26,7" MAP
d) 2700 RPM and 26,7" MAP
91
Power generation in the DA 42 is by
a) two 50 amp generators
b) two 50 amp alternators
c) two 70 amp alternators
d) two 70 volt alternators
c) two 70 amp alternators
92
The Avionics Master switch
a) connects the Avionics BUS to the main battery
b) connects the Avionics BUS to the LH main BUS
c) connects the Avionics BUS to the RH main BUS
d) connects the Avionics BUS to the hot BUS
c) connects the Avionics BUS to the RH main BUS
93
To set the park brake
a) move park brake lever to ON
b) move park brake lever to ON and pump the pedals
c) apply brakes and move park brake lever to ON
d) pump brake pedals
b) move park brake lever to ON and pump the pedals
94
If a amber caution "PITOT FAIL" appears on the G1000, it means
a) pitot cover has been left on
b) pitot tube is too hot
c) pitot heat has failed
d) pitot system has failed
c) pitot heat has failed
95
The two small static ports on either side of the Aircraft are
a) standby ports for alternate static
b) the normal static ports
c) for the standby instruments only
d) for the autopilot only
d) for the autopilot only
96
What type of flaps does the DA 42L have
a) split inboard and plain outboard
b) split outboard and plain inboard
c) fowler
d) slotted
a) split inboard and plain outboard
97
Where is the emergency landing gear extension lever located
a) on the right side of the centre console
b) on the left side of the centre console
c) on the instument panel
d) on the left cockpit sidewall
b) on the left side of the centre console
98
Where is the ALTERNATE AIR Control located
a) on the right side of the centre console
b) on the left side of the centre console
c) on the instrument panel
d) on the left cockpit sidewall
a) on the right side of the centre console
99
The auxillary fuel tanks
a) have no gauge so fuel level between full and empty cannot be determined
b) automatically top up main tanks as fuel is used
c) are only for emergencies
d) feed the Engine directly when selected
a) have no gauge so fuel level between full and empty cannot be determined
100
Approved fight manouvres include
a) none of the below manouvres
b) limited aerobatics, gentle loops and barrel rolls
c) stallling with asymetric power
d) stalling, lazy Eights, chandelles and steep turns with maximum of 60 deg bank
d) stalling, lazy Eights, chandelles and steep turns with maximum of 60 deg bank
101
The speed for intentional training one Engine inoperative (Vsse) is
a) 80 KIAS flaps UP
b) 90 KIAS flaps UP
c) 82 KIAS flaps at APP
d) 90 KIAS flaps at APP
a) 80 KIAS flaps UP
102
Rudder and elevator trim tabs are operated by
a) pushrods
b) bowden cables
c) Electric actuators
d) they are ground adjustable only
b) bowden cables
103
Complete the following statement:
When the flaps are full UP....
a) a white indicator light is illuminated
b) an amber indicator light is illuminated
c) all flap position lights are off
d) a green indicator light is illuminated
d) a green indicator light is illuminated
104
Failure to reach which Engine performance parameters would call for abandoning the take off?
a) 2700 RPM +/-20
b) 2600 RPM +/-20
c) 2650 RPM +/-50
d) 2680 RPM +/-20
d) 2680 RPM +/-20
105
In the event of the left engine failing, and the right engine feeding from the left tank, engine fuel selectors should be in which position
a) LH eng selected OFF and RH eng selected to X-feed
b) LH eng selected OFF and RH eng selected to ON
c) LH eng selected ON and RH eng selected to X-feed
d) LH eng selected ON and RH eng selected to OFF
a) LH eng selected OFF and RH eng selected to X-feed
106
What is the maximum speed for safe engine unfeathering and starting
a) 156 knots and any altitude
b) 194 knots and any altitude
c) 194 knots and up to maximum operating altitude
d) 156 knots and 18'000 ft
c) 194 knots and up to maximum operating altitude
107
To unfeather an engine you would
a) pull the RPM lever fully backward past the feathering gate with the engine still turning
b) pull the RPM lever fully backwards past the feathering gate with the Engine stopped
c) pull the RPM lever fully backward past the feathering gate
d) push the RPM lever fully forward past the feathering gate with the engine still turning
a) pull the RPM lever fully backward past the feathering gate with the engine still turning
108
If oil pressure indication drops below the green sector but oil temperature anc CHT remains normal
a) the engine is going to fail
b) it is most likely a defect oil pressure reading
c) there is a large leak somewhere
d) the oil level is very low
b) it is most likely a defect oil pressure reading
109
The tab on the elevator is a
a) balance tab
b) balance/trim tab
c) antibalance/trim tab
d) servo tab
c) antibalance/trim tab
110
You inadvertently take-off with the canopy in the open position cooling gap position
You should
a) close the canopy ASAP
b) leave open but do not exceed 120 KIAS
c) land ASAP and Close it as it cannot be closed in flight
d) leave open as it does not affect the arcrafts handling
c) land ASAP and Close it as it cannot be closed in flight
111
What is the correct procedure for starting a flooded Engine
a) Elec pump OFF, mixture lean, throttle mid position, START, when Engine fires throttle to idle
b) Throttle wide open, mixture lean, pump on, start, when Engine fires throttle to idle
c) Throttle closed, mixture rich, pump ON, START, when Engine fires, pump OFF
d) The Engine cannot be flooded due to the uodraught carburettor
a) Elec pump OFF, mixture lean, throttle mid position, START, when Engine fires throttle to idle
112
The stall warning will sound
a) when the airspeed drops below the stall speed
b) when airspeed is 5-10 knots above the stalling speed
c) when the airspeed is just above the stall
d) when the wing exceeds the critical AOA
b) when airspeed is 5-10 knots above the stalling speed
113
The accuacy of the Attitude gyro and Directional gyro
a) is not affected by manouvres
b) is affected by bank anges over 60 deg
c) is only accurate for approved manouvres
d) only inaccurate if the AHRS is inoperable
b) is affected by bank anges over 60 deg
114
The fuel selectors have which positions
a) on, both, off
b) left, right, both, off
c) on , x-feed, off
d) left, right, off, x-feed
c) on , x-feed, off
115
An amber annunciation on the G1000 says "Stick limit".
This indicates
a) the stick has been moved too far back
b) the Controls are jammed
c) the variable elevator backstop is engaged
d) the variable elevator backstop has malfunctioned
d) the variable elevator backstop has malfunctioned
116
A failure of the ADC will result in the loss of which displays
a) airspeed, TAS, VSI, altimeter, OAT and wind calc
b) airspeed, attitude, heading, VSI
c) attitude, heading, speed and GPS
d) airspeed, heading, OAT and navigation map
a) airspeed, TAS, VSI, altimeter, OAT and wind calc
117
The two screens on the G1000 are
a) PDF and MFD
b) PFD and MAP
c) PFD and FMS
d) PMS and MFD
a) PDF and MFD
118
In case of PFD failure on the G1000
a) you must rely on the standby instruments
b) the PFD display can be displayed on the MFD screen
c) the MFD display will automatically revert to PFD display
d) the emergency switch will restore power to the PFD
b) the PFD display can be displayed on the MFD screen
119
To display the PFD information on the MFD display
a) turn off the PFD
b) turn on the emergency switch
c) press the display backup button on the audio panel
d) the MFD cannot display PFD information
c) press the display backup button on the audio panel
120
A red warning alert L/R STARTER mean
a) the starter motor is energised
b) the starter motor has over heated
c) the starter motor in U/S
d) the starter motor in engaged
d) the starter motor in engaged
121
An amber warning alert L/R AUX FUEL means
a) the left or right auxillary fuel tank is empty and the pump is on
b) the aux tank pump has failed
c) the aux fuel pump is off
d) fuel is transfering from the AUX tank to the main tank
a) the left or right auxillary fuel tank is empty and the pump is on
122
An amber caution alert PITOT FAIL means
a) the pitot tube is blocked
b) the pitot heat has failed
c) the pitot cover has been left on
d) the pitot tube has overheated
b) the pitot heat has failed
123
A white advisory alert L/R FUEL XFER indicates
a) fuel is transfering from the left tank to the right tank
b) fuel is crossfeeding from the tank opposite to the Engine
c) fuel transfer from AUX tank to main tank is complete
d) fuel transfer from AUX tank to main tank is in progress
d) fuel transfer from AUX tank to main tank is in progress
124
To feed the right engine from the left tank only
a) the right Engine fuel selector must be off and the left in x-feed
b) the left Engine fuel selector must be off and the right on
c) the aux tank must be turned on
d) the right engine fuel selector must be in x-feed and the left off
d) the right engine fuel selector must be in x-feed and the left off
125
In the event of the right engine failing, the fuel selectors should be in which position
a) left Engine to ON or X-feed and right Engine to OFF
b) right Engine to ON or X-feed and left Engine ON
c) left aux tank to on and right Engine to off
d) right aux tank to on and left Engine to OFF
a) left Engine to ON or X-feed and right Engine to OFF
126
If the starter motor is used in excess of the times stated in the AFM
a) the starter motor will be worn out
b) the battery will be drained
c) the ring gear will be damaged
d) the starter motor will overheat
d) the starter motor will overheat
127
The landing gear on the DA 42 is
a) electrically operated
b) pneumatically operated
c) mechanically operated
d) hydraulically operated
d) hydraulically operated
128
The amber caution alert L/R FUEL LOW will illuminate when
a) the left or right tank is empty
b) the fuel quantity in the corresponding tank is below 4 gallons
c) the fuel quantity in the corresponding tank is below the usable amount
d) the fuel pressure is low
b) the fuel quantity in the corresponding tank is below 4 gallons
129
What is the maximum continous power MAP at 2700 RPM at sea level
a) 30" hg
b) 26,7" hg
c) 27,6" hg
d) 25" hg
b) 26,7" hg
130
At what altitude can you no longer exceed MA CONT POWER (160 hp)
a) 18'000 ft
b) 1'000 ft
c) 3'500 ft
d) 2'000 ft
c) 3'500 ft
131
Large or sustained side slips could result in
a) structurl failure of the fin
b) stall followed by a spin
c) fuel starvation to the high engine
d) excessive fuel loss from the tank vents
c) fuel starvation to the high engine
132
A red warning alert AP TRIM FAIL indicates
a) centre of gravity is at the aft position
b) automatic auto pilot trim is inoperative
c) aileron trim has failed
d) approach trim is inoperative
b) automatic auto pilot trim is inoperative
133
What is the max speed rating of the main and nose tyres
a) 150 mph
b) 100 mph
c) 120 mph
d) no limits
c) 120 mph
134
In the case of oil pressure failure to the propeller
a) the propeller will fail to fine pitch
b) the propeller will stay where it is
c) the propeller will fluctuate between fine and coarse pitch
d) the propeller will fail to coarse pitch
d) the propeller will fail to coarse pitch
135
The electrical system consists of
a) 2 alternators, 1 main battery and 1 emergency battery
b) 2 alternators, 2 main batteries
c) 2 alternators, 1 main battery and 2 excitation batteries
d) 2 alternators, excitation batteries and 1 emergency battery
a) 2 alternators, 1 main battery and 1 emergency battery
136
The propellers on the DA 42 are
a) contra rotating
b) counter rotating
c) both right hand rotating
d) both left hand rotating
b) counter rotating
137
Which is the critical engine on the DA 42
a) left
b) right
c) both are critical
d) does not have a critical engine
d) does not have a critical engine
138
The winglets on the DA 42
a) reduce induced drag
b) reduce wing bending moments
c) aid directional stability
d) improve lateral stability
a) reduce induced drag
139
Why do the propellers on the DA 42 counter rotate
1. to prevent having a critical engine
2. prevent torque reaction
a) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
c) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
d) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
140
On the flap selector switch, if the flaps are in transit between up and approach
a) only the up light will be on
b) only the approach light will be on
c) no lights will be on until it reaches the selected position
d) both lights will be on until it reaches the approach position and the UP light will go out
d) both lights will be on until it reaches the approach position and the UP light will go out
141
The self centering cam on the nose Wheel strut
a) ensures the nose Wheel goes back to straight ahead when there is no steering input
b) ensures the nose Wheel is straight when weight is off the nose gear so it retracts into the Wheel well
c) is there no stop shimmy
d) help keep the arcraft straight on take-off
b) ensures the nose Wheel is straight when weight is off the nose gear so it retracts into the Wheel well
142
The emergency swtich red guard is safely wired in the off position. This is to
a) tel if the switch has been turned on and the emergency battery used
b) prevent the switch being used
c) hold the guard down to prevent accidental operation of the emergency battery
d) all red guarded switches must be safety wired
a) tel if the switch has been turned on and the emergency battery used
143
The STBY instruments at the top of the instrument panel consist of
a) AH, ASI, Altimeter and VSI
b) AH, VSI, Alitimeter and DG
c) AH, Alitimeter and Compass
d) AH, ASI, Altimeter and Compass
d) AH, ASI, Altimeter and Compass
144
The STBY Artificial Horizon
a) is pneumatically driven by a vacuum pump
b) is electrically driven by its own battery
c) is electrically driven
d) is pneumatically driven by a venturi
c) is electrically driven
145
A L/R VOLTS LOW caution alert on the G1000 could be a result of
a) RPM too low
b) a fault in the power supply
c) alternator is OFF
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
146
The pilots Control stick contains which of the following switches
a) PTT, Electric trim, Auto pilot disconnect
b) PTT, Electric trim, Course Wheel streering
c) PTT, Electric trim, Auto pilot disconnect, Course Wheel steering
d) PTT, Course Wheel steering, Auto pilot disconnect
c) PTT, Electric trim, Auto pilot disconnect, Course Wheel steering
