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CRJ Normal Procedures and Profiles > daily questions flashcards > Flashcards

daily questions flashcards

1
Q

What would happen if the PFD was to fail in flight? What panel could be used to provide PFD information?

A

PFD would go black. DISPLAY REVISIONARY PANEL switch to PFD to display information on MFD

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2
Q

At what altitude during a descent does the Radio Altimeter begin indicating altitude indicating altitude information on the PFD?

A

At 2500 AGL it becomes active and begins indicating at 1000 AGL

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3
Q

Which panel and knob is used to display white needles or green needles on the PFD?

A

Display Control Panel NAV SOURCE

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4
Q

What will occur when airspeed drops to the low speed cue (snake)?

A

Stick Shaker

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5
Q

How is airacraft yaw represented on the PFD?

A

The Brick on top of the Atitude Indicator

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6
Q

Which air data computer normally provides information to the first officer’s PFD?

A

Air Data Computer 2

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7
Q

What is the difference between the MAG and DG settings on the COMPASS panel?

A

MAG uses flex detectors to compensate for precesion. DG is susceptible to precesion

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8
Q

Which panel is used to set approach minimums (DH or MDA)?

A

Air Data Reference Panel

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9
Q

What is the difference between DH and MDA?

A

MDA is barometric altitude. DH is radar altitude

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10
Q

What is the function of the AIR DATA and ATTD HDG knobs on the SOURCE SELCTOR panel?

A

Switches between normal or the working AHRS or Air Data Computer

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11
Q

During initialization what information is verified on the STATUS page?

A

Database Currency

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12
Q

During initialization what information is required to be entered on the POS INIT page?

A

GPS coordinantes

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13
Q

During initialization when will the FMS require a second POS INIT entry?

A

When the last time it was powered down it was more than 50 miles away

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14
Q

During initializatin what information is required on FPLN 1/1?

A

Origin, Destination, alternate, Flt number, first enroute fix

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15
Q

On what page is the departure runway selected?

A

DEP/ARR

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16
Q

What information is available from the DEP/ARR INDEX?

A

approaches, departures and runways

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17
Q

During initialization which line select key is used to enter the first enroute waypoint?

A

TO (4R)

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18
Q

What information may be entered in the VIA data line?

A

victor airways or jet routes

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19
Q

What information may be entered in the TO data line?

A

fixes, navaids, airports, lat/longs

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20
Q

How may the PERF INIT page be accessed?

A

FPLN 6R or PERF 6R

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21
Q

During initialization what information is required on PERF INIT 1/3?

A

Fuel on board and cruise altitude

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23
Q

On what page is ADVISORY VNAV selected to ENABLE?

A

PERF - PERF MENU

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24
Q

How is the FUEL MGMT PERFORMANCE MODE accessed?

A

PERF - PERF MENU - FUEL MGMT

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25
Q

Which MFD DISPLAY MENU MAP DISPLAYs are required to be active?

A

SPEED, ALT, RANGE TO ALTITUDE, HI NAV

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26
Q

What MFD DISPLAY MENU WINDOW selections are required for the PF and PM?

A

PF - VNAV PM - ON

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27
Q

What information is verified on the VOR CONTROL page?

A

Enable VOR/DME usage

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28
Q

Which MFD FORMAT is used to verify the FMS route?

A

North up map

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29
Q

What action ensures that a copy of the ACT FPLN is saved?

A

Copy Active on FPLN page

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30
Q

What MFD FORMAT and FMS page is selected for takeoff?

A

Map Display/Legs

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31
Q

What is the FMA and where is it located?

A

Flight Mode Annunciator. Top left of PFD

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32
Q

Where is “armed” FMA information dispalyed?

A

Right of blue line

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33
Q

Does the autopilot control the rudder?

A

No

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34
Q

Pushing a TOGA button on the ground before takeoff performs what function?

A

Activates TO TO mode and repositions FMS to RWY LAT/LONG

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35
Q

Pushing a TOGA button in flight performs what function?

A

GA GA MODE (HDG and 10 degree pitch up)

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36
Q

At cruise with the autopilot engaged, what FCP functions must be accomplished in order to descend?

A

Set Altitude. The speed mode and pull the thrust levers back

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37
Q

What is the recommended method to engage the autopilot?

A

Pitch mode and Lateral mode and the AP Engage

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38
Q

What is the normal method to disengage the autopilot?

A

AP Disc switch on the yoke

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39
Q

What is the correct way to remove the flight directors from both PFD’s?

A

Pressin gFD switch on active side

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40
Q

When does the FCC 1 only control FD 1?

A

TO, GA, approach, windshear

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41
Q

After making a selection of the FCP, two green lights illuminate on each side of the button that has been depressed. These two green lights indicate what?

A

The FCC recognizes the input

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42
Q

What is the flight director’s “Basic” mode?

A

Pitch and Roll

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43
Q

What is the difference between the ALT and ALTS flight director modes?

A

ALT holds a constant pressure. ALTS holds the selected altitude

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44
Q

What is the difference between the CLB and IAS flight director modes?

A

CLB holds IAS with at least a 50 FPM climb. IAS holds speed regardles of descent or climb

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45
Q

What is the danger or selecting APPR mode when performing a localizer based non-precision approach?

A

It will try to capture false GS

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46
Q

What is the lowest altitude the autopilot may remain engaged on a CAT II approach?

A

80 AGL or 50 below DA whichever is higher

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47
Q

What is the lowest altitude the autopilot may remain engaged on a CAT I approach?

A

80 AGL or 50 below DA whichever is higher

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48
Q

What is the lowest altitude the auotpilot may remain engaged on a visual approach?

A

400 AGL

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49
Q

What are the 4 TCAS traffic symbols and what do they represent?

A

General Traffic, Proximate Traffic, Traffic Advisory, Resolution Advisory

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50
Q

How many frequencies can be tuned by each NAV radio?

A

VOR, GS, MB, 3 DME

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51
Q

What does it mean to put a NAV radio in AUTOTUNE?

A

FMS has control of the Nav Radio’s first frequency

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52
Q

What will prevent a NAV radio from being in AUTOTUNE?

A

green needles, manual select of active nav radio, dme hold slected, tune inhibit switch

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53
Q

Can the FMS navigate without the GPS?

A

yes

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54
Q

What navigation options are available to you if the FMS fails in flight?

A

green needles

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55
Q

Is there any time you are not required to comply with a TCAS RA?

A

Performance limited such as single engine or an obvious malfunction with TCAS

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56
Q

How is FMS AUTO tuning enables?

A

FMS - Radio

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57
Q

How is a departure or arrival transition selected?

A

DEP/ARR

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58
Q

What format is used in the scratchpad to create an “Along Course Waypoint”?

A

fix/+ - DME

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59
Q

What is the 1st waypoint on page 1 of ACT LEGS referred to as?

A

TO wpt

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60
Q

What is the 2nd waypoint on pgae 1 of ACT LEGS referred to as?

A

Direct Wpt

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61
Q

What is the significance of entering a waypoint on line 2L on page 1 of ACT LEGS?

A

Direct or intercept course

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62
Q

What course options are available when entering a waypoint on line 2L on page 1 of ACT LEGS and which one is the default?

A

Direct to course or any course you select. Direct to is default

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63
Q

Why is it important to “Clean up the approach?”

A

Situational awareness

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64
Q

What is the correct way to switch to green needles?

A

Heading mode, frequency active, green needles once cyan needles are shown

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65
Q

Which page is used to generate a green dashed line or circle on the MFD?

A

FIX

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66
Q

What component of the aircraft generates EICAS messages?

A

Data Concentrator Unitsabase Currency

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67
Q

Which buttons on the ECP will remain active in the event of an ECP microprocessor failure?

A

Primary, Status, CAS, STEP

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68
Q

What is the function of the EICAS knob on the SOURCE SELECT panel?

A

Allows all funtions of the ECP to be viewed

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69
Q

What actions are required to “CHECK and CLEAR” the EICAS?

A

Read, verify, box

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70
Q

If multiple caution messages are displayed on the EICAS, in what order are they displayed?

A

Most recent at the top

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71
Q

What is the “Dark Cockpit” concept?

A

In cruise with no malfuntion, no EICAS messages are posted, all switchlights should be dark

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72
Q

What is the purpose of the Immediate Action Card? What type of checklist items are on the Immediate Action Card? What type of checklist items are on the Immediate Action Card?

A

Quickly and accurately go through checklist

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73
Q

What does it mean when a checklist tile is in CAPITAL LETTERS?

A

Associated with EICAS Message

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74
Q

Which two caution messages are found in the EMERGENCY section of the QRH?

A

SMOKE TOILET and REV UNLOCKED

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75
Q

Which checklists consider multiple malfunctions?

A

Hydraulic, Fuel, Gear

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76
Q

Which page allows the pilot to enter and manipulate holding data?

A

HOLD

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77
Q

Once established in an en-route or missed approach holding pattern, how long will the FMS remain in the holding pattern?

A

Exit Hold

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78
Q

What methods can be used to leave a holding pattern?

A

Exit Hold, Direct to a fix, HDG mode

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79
Q

Enabling ADVISROY VNAV allows VNAV information to be displayed where?

A

PFD

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80
Q

Selecting DISPLAY MENU WINDOW to VNAV allows VNAV information to be displayed where?

A

Top Right MFD

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81
Q

Can the FD be coupled to ADVISORY VNAV?

A

No

82
Q

What are the two main companents of an IDG?

A

Constant Speed Drive and AC Genearator

83
Q

What medium does the CSD use to change variable engine speed to a constant output speed?

A

Integral Oil Supply

84
Q

What type of electrical power do the generators produce?

A

AC 115v 400 hours

85
Q

What is the sequence of AC Generator priority and what controls it?

A

Onside, APU, cross side, external (Autotransfer), GCU

86
Q

If the number one generator fails in cruise flight, from where will the AC ESS Bus receive power?

A

AC Bus 1 which receives power thorught autotransfer

87
Q

When will the AC ESS XFER light be illuminated?

A

Anytime the AC Bus 1 is not powering the AC ESS Bus

88
Q

What does an amber AUTO XFER FAIL message indicate?

A

sensed something wrong with AC Bus 1 and disconnected it from autotransfer logic

89
Q

What will cause an IDG to automatically disconnect?

A

Over Temperature and Over Torque

90
Q

If an IDG disconnects in flight, can it be reconnected?

A

No

91
Q

Which busses are receiving power in the service configuration?

A

AC Service Bus, AC Utility Bus, DC Utility Bus

92
Q

When will the AC Utility Busses automatically load shed (in flight and on the ground)?

A

Single geneartor operation in flight, ground passenger door closed flaps not retracted

93
Q

With AC power supplied, what does the DC Service switch control?

A

nothing

94
Q

From which sources can the AC ESS Bus receive power?

A

AC Bus 1 and 2, ADG

95
Q

What will cause a fault light to illuminate in the IDG switchlight?

A

High Oil Temp and Low Oil Pressure

96
Q

Which DC TIEs operate automatically and which ones operate manually?

A

Tie 1 and Tie 2 auto and manual, essential manual

97
Q

When will the ADG automatically deploy and what does it power?

A

If all AC power sources are lost in flight, Hydraulic 3B, Essential Bus

98
Q

Which generator and bus parameters do the GCUs monitor?

A

Each IPU and APU generator has their own GDC, also control power distrubtion to the own bus (volt, current, amps)

99
Q

Where is the MEL located?

A

pocket next to Captain

100
Q

What time zone is MEL expiration based upon?

A

Eastern

101
Q

Is it required that deferrals be listed on the dispatch release?

A

Yes

102
Q

What ACT LEGS SEQUENCE change occurs after sequencing past the FAF?

A

Inihibit sequence of any other fix until you hit TOGA button

103
Q

Can the missed approach course be dispalyed on the MFD prior to executing the missed approach?

A

yes (selected in MFD settings)

104
Q

Pushing the TOGA buttons while airborne causes what functions to occur?

A

GO Around settings in FMA

105
Q

What is 10th stage bleed air used for?

A

Environmental, Engine Starting, pressurization

106
Q

What is 14th stage bleed air used for?

A

Anti Ice and Thrust Reversers

107
Q

How are the 10th & 14th SOVs and ISOL valves controlled and operated?

A

Electrically controlled pneumatically operated

108
Q

In what position do the 10th & 14th stage SOVs and ISOL valves fail?

A

All fail closed except for 14th stage sov

109
Q

What is the difference between a huffer and a bottle? Why is it important to know which you are using?

A

Huffer is a continuous high pressure, Bottle one shot

110
Q

What sources can pressurize the 10th stage bleed air manifold? What about the 14th stage?

A

10th: Engines, APU, Huffer, Bottle 14th: Engine

111
Q

The 10th stage “interlock Protection” circuit is based upon what?

A

switch position only

112
Q

How are bleed air leaks detected in the 10th stage system?

A

Dual loops

113
Q

How are bleed air leaks detected in the 14th stage system?

A

Single loops

114
Q

With the DUCT MON switch is in the TEST positon, what system is being tested for electrical continuity?

A

loops

115
Q

When is it not permissible to bleed 10th and 14th stage bleed air from the engines simultaneously? Why?

A

TO/LDG performance

116
Q

Which aircraft component controls all APU operations?

A

Electronic Control Unit

117
Q

The APU will automatically shut down for which conditions in flight?

A

critical malfunctions

118
Q

From which tanks does the APU normally receive fuel?

A

primary - wing tanks backup - right engine fuel feed manifold

119
Q

The illumination of the green AVAIL light on the APU START/STOP switch indicates what?

A

APU is available for bleed loading

120
Q

Given: The aircraft is at the gate. The APU is supplying electrical and pneumatic power to the aircraft per the Safety Check. (The Packs are on). How will the 10th stage valves be affected if the left 10th SOV switchlight is selected open?

A

The APU LCV will close and now the packs will have no where to receive bleed air

121
Q

While starting the APU, what indications on the EICAS displays are presented by pressing the APU PWR FUEL switchlight?

A

APU IN BITE/APU SOV OPEN/APU GAUGES/DOOR OPEN

122
Q

When starting the APU in flight, why must the PWR FUEL and the START/STOP buttons be presed in “rapid succession”?

A

because the air door opens when pwr fuel and the rpm increases to high the starter will not engage

123
Q

Passenger oxygen is provided by what?

A

chemical

124
Q

Crew oxygen is provided by what?

A

bottle

125
Q

When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A

14,000 CPAM

126
Q

Where should you look to determine if you have enough oxygen to carry a jumpseater?

A

ED2 PSI OM limitation

127
Q

What is the power source for the Emergency Lights?

A

Battery

128
Q

While in the ARM position, when will the Emergency Lights automatically illuminate?

A

Loss of AC or DC power

129
Q

What, besides the beacon, is powered with the Beacon switch while on the ground?

A

Flight Data Recorder

130
Q

How many compressor stages does the CF34-3B1 have?

A

14

131
Q

How many low and high-pressure power turbine stages does the CF34-3B1 have?

A

Two high. Four low.

132
Q

Which ignition system does the DC Battery Bus power?

A

System B (for Battery)

133
Q

When should the engine starter cut out?

A

55%

134
Q

What actions must be taken (from memory) when a hot start is observed?

A

“SHIT” Shutoff, Ignition, Time

135
Q

What actions must be taken (from memory) when the starter fails to cut out?

A

Engine Stop?.Press

136
Q

Which engine ignition system is supplied continuous ignition with the CONT switchlight?

A

Both

137
Q

The speed switches in the “ON” position allow what components to be powered?

A

Above 79% N1 the ECU takes control of the fuel metering

138
Q

When does N1 speed governing take place?

A

Above 79% - ECU meters the fuel

139
Q

What are the arming parameters for the APR?

A

1) Weight on wheels 2) Both engines above 79% 3) Switch in the ARM position with APR ARMED advisory message

140
Q

Once armed, how long will the APR remain armed?

A

5 minutes

141
Q

What conditions must be met for the APR system to activate?

A

Once armed the APR system will activate if an engine drops below 68% N1

142
Q

What conditions must be met for the Thrust Reversers to arm?

A

1) 14th stage bleeds open 2)Thrust reversers switches in ARMed position

143
Q

What conditions must be met for the Thrust Reversers to deploy?

A

1) Weight on wheels 2) Thrust levers in IDLE

144
Q

What do the blocker doors redirect when the Thrust Reversers are deployed?

A

Bypass Air

145
Q

What are the components driven by the accessory gearbox?

A

1) Engine Oil Pump 2) Engine Hydraulic Pump 3) Engine Fuel Pump & Fuel Control Unit 4) IDG

146
Q

Describe the indications of “performance increasing” windshear.

A

1) Amber WINDSHEAR on bottom of PFD 2) Alpha Margin Indicator, which represents stick shaker

147
Q

What will the AFCS do during a “performance increasing” windshear.

A

Autopilot will NOT disconnect Flight Director will NOT change

148
Q

Describe the indications of “performance decreasing” windshear.

A

1) Red “WINDSHEAR” on PFD 2)Windshear aural warning 3) Alpha Margin Indicator

149
Q

What will the AFCS do during a “performance decreasing” windshear?

A

Autopilot will disconnect and Flight Director will give guidance to get out of situation based on the parameters currently happening. Very important to fly the FD command bar

150
Q

What color needles should the PF and PM use during a VOR approach?

A

PF: white PM: Green

151
Q

What color needles should the PF and PM use during a GPS approach?

A

White

152
Q

Is adding or removing waypoints from an FMS approach acceptable?

A

No.

153
Q

How does the missed approach course become “active”?

A

When pressing the TOGA button passed the missed approach point.

154
Q

The FIRE DETECTION system is being tested for what when the TEST switch is selected to the WARN position?

A

Simulates a fire condition and the LOOPS agreement/ability to check for fire

155
Q

The FIRE DETECTION system is being tested for what when the TEST switch is taken to the FAIL position?

A

It simulates a shorted loop on all 4 engine loops, all 4 Jet loops, and both APU loops

156
Q

What indications should be present when the TEST switch is taken to the WARN position?

A

1) Firebell 2) Jet Pipe Overheat Aural 3) L/R ENG FIRE message 4) L/R JET PIPE Overheat message 5) APU Fire message 6) L/R APU FIRE lights illuminated 7) L/R APU Bottle switchlights

157
Q

What indications should be present when the TEST switch is taken to the FAIL position?

A

1) L/R FIRE FAIL illuminates 2) L/R JET OVHT FAIL 3) APU FIRE FAIL

158
Q

Which aircraft components are being tested when the APU or ENGINE BOTTLE switches are in the TEST position?

A

Engine Bottle to “Test”: Tests the squib circuit for the bottle. APU Bottle to “TEST”: Tests squib circuitry and associated messages

159
Q

What EICAS indications are present if an engine bottle has been discharged?

A

BOTTLE LOW/ White status message

160
Q

What possible problems exist if an ENG FIRE FAIL message is present while the associated switch is the BOTH position?

A

One loop may be detecitng a fire, and the other is not.

161
Q

The FIRE DETECTION system incorporates how many bottles of Halon for engine fire extinguishing?

A

Two

162
Q

The FIRE DETECTION system incorporates how many bottles of Halon for cargo fire extinguishing and what is the difference between them?

A

Two. One is quick release, and the other sprays for 45 minutes

163
Q

List the functions of the ENG FIRE switch.

A

1) Closes Fuel SOV 2) Closes Hydraulic SOV 3) Closes both bleed SOV’s 4)Turns off the IDG 5) Arms the bottle squibs for that engine

164
Q

What is motive flow, and what provides it on the CRJ?

A

Motive Flow is the venturi effect of moving fuel that causes low pressure that sucks fuel out of the tank. The engine running creates motive flow.

165
Q

From what tanks do the engines get their fuel?

A

Both the collector tanks, pumped by the Main Ejector Pump

166
Q

Which pumps can provide fuel to the engines?

A

Main Ejector Pump and 2 Boost Pumps

167
Q

The XFER ejectors move fuel from where to where?

A

Center tanks to Wing tanks

168
Q

The SCAVENGE ejectors move fuel from where to where?

A

Wing tanks to the Collector tanks

169
Q

What button on the FUEL PANEL would you press to transfer fuel from the center tank to a wing tank?

A

No button, all automatic

170
Q

With the fuel crossflow system in AUTO, what is the function of the L and R switchlights on the fuel panel?

A

Fill the collector tank

171
Q

Describe the actions you would take to transfer fuel from the left wing to the right wing in manual mode?

A

MANUAL, then press which tank needs fuel

172
Q

When does the amber FUEL IMBALANCE message appear?

A

800 lbs

173
Q

When does auto crossflow (wing to wing) take place?

A

Anytime theres more than 200 lbs difference all the way until 50 lbs difference.

174
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Fuel/Oil Heat exchanger

175
Q

During single engine taxi on the #2 engine, if the right boost pump switch is pressed out and the left boost pump switch is in, will the boost pumps come on?

A

Yes

176
Q

How should the boost pump switchlights be configured during single engine taxi?

A

Both OFF

177
Q

Which doors are not monitored by the PSEU system?

A

The cockpit escape hatch and Aft Equipment Bay door

178
Q

What limitations are placed on the passenger door?

A

1,000 lbs or 4 people

179
Q

Which door(s) are not integral part of the pressure vessel?

A

Aft equipment bay

180
Q

If the DISPLAY FAN on the Avionics Cooling panel is in the NORM position, which fans operate in flight?

A

The flight fan. For ground it?s the ground fan

181
Q

What is the CPAM and what are its functions?

A

Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module. Monitors 2 Cabin Controllers and associated warning messages. 8500: Amber CABIN ALT message/ 10,000: Red CABIN ALT message/ 14,000: Masks drop

182
Q

What happens when the EMER DEPRESS button is pushed in cruise flight at FL 240?

A

Outflow valves are opened until cabin altitude of 14,250 +/- 750, and then closed

183
Q

Which aircraft components control the outflow valves?

A

A jet pump powered by the 10th stafe bleed air provides a suction to move the valves. The cabin pressure controllers control that pump and associated messages

184
Q

What will the PACKs automatically shut down for?

A

Overheat or Overpressure

185
Q

When transferring the PACKs bleed source to the APU, what is the correct sequence when pushing the 10th stage bleed switchlights?

A

Give a source, take a source away.

186
Q

What is the difference between Auto and Manual PACK temperature control?

A

In manual you are now controlling hot and cold switches to adjust temperature via bypass valves. In auto, the temperature is controlled automatically and provides overheat and freezing protection

187
Q

What happens when the RAM AIR switch is depressed in normal cruise flight?

A

Nothing because the cabin is pressurized

188
Q

What is the difference between CARGO FAN and CARGO COND AIR?

A

Fan mode: recirculated cabin air that is just above freezing Cond Air mode: is heated for anytime you have a live animal

189
Q

Which stage bleed air does the wing anti-ice system use?

A

14th

190
Q

What are the main differences between NORM and STBY on the wing anti-ice?

A

NORM is constant temperature with the valve modulating to achieve this STBY: is the valve opening and closing completely

191
Q

During flight with at least one generator on line can the probe heat be turned off?

A

No.

192
Q

What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve?

A

To allow one engine to provide anti-ice to both wings. It is electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.

193
Q

Is it possible to cross bleed cowl anti-ice?

A

No.

194
Q

While in normal cruise flight the amber ICE message is displayed. The correct action to be taken is to?

A

Turn on both Wing and Cowl anti-ice and increase thrust so more heat is provided for anti-ice.

195
Q

While in normal cruise flight the green ICE message is displayed. The correct action to be taken is to?

A

Keep anti ice on until ICE message is gone entirely.

196
Q

What is the difference between a WING OVHT message and and ANTI ICE DUCT message?

A

WING OVHT means one of the temperature sensors has detected overheat at the leading edge. ANTI ICE DUCT means the loops have detected a leak somehwere besides the leading edge of the wing

197
Q

What are 4 different formats used to create a waypoint on the FMS?

A

1) Place, Bearing 2) Place, Bearing, Distance 3) Place, Distance (or “Along Course”) 4) Lat/Long coordinates

198
Q

Which ACMP is normally in the ON position with power supplied to the aircraft?

A

3A

199
Q

How are hydraulic systems 1 & 2 cooled?

A

Through a RAM AIR heat exchanger

200
Q

While in normal flight, when will hydraulic 1B pump come on automatically?

A

If flaps are extended, and switch in “auto” mode

CRJ Normal Procedures and Profiles (5 decks)

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