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The Ultimate Contact Guide > Dash 1 Section 3 > Flashcards

Dash 1 Section 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three basic rules in any airborne emergency?

A
  1. Maintain aircraft control
  2. Analyze the situation and take proper action
  3. Land as soon as conditions permit.
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2
Q

What is a critical action?

A

An action which must be performed immediately if the emergency is not to be aggravated and injury or damage are to be avoided.

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3
Q

What is a non critical action?

A

Actions which contribute to an orderly sequence of events, improve chances for the emergency action to be successful and serve as clean-up items.

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4
Q

What is the definition of land as soon as possible?

A

1) . An emergency shall be declared
2) . A landing shall be accomplished at the nearest suitable landing area, considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and command guidance.

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5
Q

What is the definition of land as soon as practical?

A

Emergency conditions are less urgent, the mission is to be terminated but an immediate landing may not be necessary.

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6
Q

What is the definition of a suitable landing area?

A

A hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun.

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7
Q

The engine start should be aborted for what five situations?

A

1) . High ITT (hot start)
2) . Normal N1 increase is halted (hung start)
3) . No ITT rise within 10 s of fuel flow indications (no start)
4) . BAT BUS annunciator comes on
5) . ST READY light goes out/PCL moved

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8
Q

How do you abort a start?

A

1) . If PCL is OFF, set STARTER SWITCH to AUTO/REST
2) . If PCL between OFF and IDLE, set PCL to OFF or set STARTER SWITCH to AUTO/RESET
3) . If PCL above IDLE, set PCL to OFF

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9
Q

True/False. If a start was aborted while connected to external power, you may attempt subsequent restarts so long as no engine limits were exceeded.

A

False. There is an aircraft malfunction if it’s unable to start with external power.

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10
Q

When do you perform an emergency engine shutdown on the ground?

A

Prop strike, CHIP light, FIRE light, depart prepared surface and any other situation the pilot deems necessary.

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11
Q

What factors affect a pilot’s decision to takeoff or abort?

A

1) . Runway length and condition, weather, and area traffic

2) . If adequate directional confirm cannot be maintained or a system emergency is encountered prior to Max Abort speed

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12
Q

What systems run off hydraulic pressure?

A

NWS, main gear, main gear doors, speed brake and flaps

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13
Q

What indications will you have that the hydraulic pressure transmitter has failed?

A

Hydraulic pressure will read 0 psi but all hydraulic systems will operate normally

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14
Q

Loss of hydraulic pressure without illumination of EHYD PX LO or HYDR FL LO may indicate what?

A

An engine-driven hydraulic pump failure.

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15
Q

Low hydraulic pressure is considered what and will necessitate what?

A

1800 psi and will necessitate using emergency gear extension.

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16
Q

When should you consider divert with certain rudder malfunctions?

A

If unable to achieve full left or right rudder, crosswinds exceed 15 knots and fuel is a concern.

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17
Q

True/False. With a rudder trim push rod failure the cockpit trim position indications will respond and the rudder pedal forces will adjust accordingly.

A

False. The cockpit trim indications will respond to trim inputs but will have no effect on rudder pedal forces or actual trim tab position.

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18
Q

What may a fully deflected rudder trim gauge be indicative of?

A

Runaway rudder trim or an out of trim rudder condition.

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19
Q

What is a concern when testing rudder deflection during a rudder system malfunction?

A

Switching rudders too quickly which can result in an OCF if not neutralizing the rudder in between.

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20
Q

Keep airspeed between what range during a rudder system malfunction check?

A

125-140 KIAS

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21
Q

Climb how high before attempting rudder system malfunction checklist (if able)?

A

6,000’ AGL

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22
Q

If the aircraft slip indicator is fully deflected remain below what airspeed?

A

140 KIAS

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23
Q

True/False. If must divert and fuel is a consideration for the range, it is permissible to raise the gear and repressurize the aircraft in order to reach a suitable alternate.

A

True.

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24
Q

What check should be done after reaching a suitable alternate following a rudder system malfunction?

A

Controllability check.

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25
During a controllability check to what minimum airspeed can the aircraft be slowed?
90 KIAS or activation of stick shaker, whichever is higher
26
If unable to manipulate a control surface what should you consider (DUAL ONLY)?
Control may be available from the other cockpit.
27
How do you determine if the rudder will be available for landing following a bird strike or structural damage to the aircraft?
Attempt all power options, especially IDLE which will simulate the flare in landing.
28
Fly no slower than what after a controllability check situation?
Minimum controllable airspeed plus 20 KIAS.
29
What kind of approach should you execute following a controllability check situation?
Power-on, straight-in approach with minimum flare. Touchdown at no less than previously determined minimum controllable airspeed
30
Without full rudder authority and with a crosswind component greater than 5 knots how should you land?
Fly a no-flap, straight-in and use differential braking on landing roll to stay on prepared surface.
31
Landings have been accomplished at what airspeeds with landing flaps and flaps up?
110 KIAS and 130 KIAS respectively.
32
Illumination of the OBOGS FAIL annunciator indicates what?
Loss of sufficient oxygen concentration or pressure.
33
OBOGS may have failed because of what?
Failure of OBOGS heat exchanger, concentrator, bleed air supply, electrical system interface, excessive system leakage
34
What should you do if you have an OBOGS FAIL at low PCL settings?
Advance the PCL to extinguish the OBOGS FAIL and continue as normal if it extinguishes.
35
When is it possible to experience hypoxia symptoms?
If OBOGS has malfunctioned and cabin altitude is above 10,000' MSL.
36
How long will emergency oxygen last?
10 minutes.
37
If at a certain altitude what descent rate is needed to achieve 10,000' within 10 minutes?
31,000' MSL, 2100 fpm 28,000' MSL, 1800 fpm 25,000' MSL, 1500 fpm 23,500' MSL and lower, 1350 fpm
38
What if you have respiratory irritation, coughing, or white dust in the oxygen mask?
This could also be an OBOGS system malfunction caused by an issue with the concentrator beds which releases zeolite into the mask.
39
How should you breathe when under emergency pressure?
At a rate and depth slightly less than normal.
40
The OBOGS TEMP light indicates what?
Failure of the OBOGS heat exchanger.
41
The DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates what?
Bleed air temperature in the environmental systems duct has exceeded 300 deg F.
42
What will occur at altitude with the BLEED AIR INFLOW switch set to OFF?
Cabin pressurization will bleed out and the pressure seal and anti G systems will not be available.
43
What can you use if the Defog valve fails to close in flight and cockpit heat is uncomfortable?
The TEMP CONTROL switch.
44
What airspeed will best reduce control forces when have runaway trim?
110-150 KIAS
45
What will leaving the AIL/EL TRIM circuit breaker in during a runaway trim situation do for the pilot?
Allow the pilot to use pitch trim on final approach since aileron forces should remain light.
46
If the elevator trim failed during high speeds, stick force will increase to what as the aircraft is slowed? What about for aileron and rudder trim?
10 lbs; 5 lbs; 20 lbs
47
Wait a minimum of how long before resetting the AHRS/TAD circuit breaker?
15 seconds.
48
What should you do if the TAD FAIL annunciator remains illuminated after doing the Trim Aid Device Failure checklist?
Notify maintenance personnel and leave the BAT and AVIONICS switches on until maintenance has expected the L1-L4 TAD failure code lights.
49
True/False. If the canopy becomes unlocked in flight you should attempt to secure it immediately.
False. Movement of the internal canopy lock handle may inadvertently allow the canopy to open and depart the aircraft.
50
What may occur with a rapid decompression near 20,000' MSL?
An OBOGS FAIL annunciator may occur as the OBOGS switches to high altitude mode.
51
What can a malfunctioning defog valve cause?
A loss of pressurization because it may trip the INFLOW SYS circuit breaker.
52
What additional step must be done prior to ejection if the seat has slid partially up the rails or out of the cockpit?
The MOR handle must be pulled in addition to the ejection handle
53
When fully extended the knee board lights interfere with the ejection envelope by how much?
0. 568 in (FCP) | 0. 102 in (RCP)
54
What are the altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection?
2,000' AGL | 6,000' AGL
55
The ejection drag is capable of working with sink rates up to what?
10,000 fpm
56
When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding what altitude should you use the MOR handle?
8,000' MSL
57
What are the steps to controlled ejection?
1) . Notify crew member 2) . Establish what ejection altitude is (2,000' AGL) 3) . Slow to 125-180 KIAS 4) . Distress call 5) . Squawk 7700 6) . Stow loose items 7) . Visor down, mask and helmet on 8) . Check leg straps, lock harness, set SSK 9) . Turn toward uninhabited area, set PCL to OFF, assume the position and eject
58
What may occur when ejecting at lower speeds?
The risers may not separate which may result in an increased descent rate. You can manually separate the risers if time is permitting.
59
Terrain clearance charts make how much allowance for crew reaction time?
None.
60
Add 1% additional terrain clearance for what?
Every 1000' MSL of aircraft altitude.
61
Altitude sensing and G limiting devices will delay chute deployment above 8,000' MSL by how much?
2 minutes at 35,000' MSL
62
When should you execute a forced landing?
When engine is not available and an airstart is not attempted or is unsuccessful.
63
What's a consideration with bleed air when the engine is shutdown?
Loss of bleed air systems which may result in fogging or icing.
64
Inducing yaw with known engine/oil malfunction could do what?
Impair windshield visibility due to oil spraying on the canopy
65
What are the normal safe indications of emergency extension?
Two green main lights, two red main door lights, green nose gear light, red light in the handle.
66
What's the minimum airspeed you can slow to on final during a forced landing?
110 KIAS
67
What's inoperative on the ground with engine shutdown?
NWS.
68
When should you land on an unprepared surface?
If ejection is not possible or the ejection seat malfunctions.
69
What's the best location for landing on an unprepared surface?
Smooth cultivated fields.
70
What should you do with your gear and flaps when landing on an unprepared surface?
Don't extend them to avoid the aircraft tumbling or cartwheeling on touchdown.
71
In the event if minimum winds but moderate swells how should you ditch?
Parallel to the swells.
72
In the event of moderate to high swells and 25 knots of wind or more, how should you ditch?
Into the wind and attempt to land in the upwind or back side of the swell.
73
If the rate of descent exceeds 1500 fpm at 4-6% during a PEL what should you do?
Increase torque up to 131% as necessary to achieve sufficient glide or set PCL to OFF if this does not work.
74
If on profile and the engine is vibrating excessively or indications of failure are imminent, what should you do?
Set the PCL to OFF.
75
Where is low key?
1500' AGL, abeam touchdown point
76
What altitude is base key?
600-800' AGL
77
Where is high key?
2,500-3,000' AGL and approximately one-third point of the runway.
78
Do not set the boost pump and ignition to ON in which three cases?
1) . FIRE 2) . CHIP light 3) . FOD
79
How do you know you have an assymetric flap condition?
An uncommanded rolling or yawing motion during flap operation.
80
True/False. There is sufficient control authority to counteract yaw and roll from assymetric flaps at pattern airspeeds.
True.
81
What is the preferred method of determining abnormal landing gear positions?
Visual inspection from another aircraft.
82
What are the four safe gear-down indications?
1) . Gear indications in both cockpits combine to indicate 3 greens and any combo of reds 2) . Either AOA indexer is illuminated 3) . Landing and/or taxi lights are on 4) . If main gear indicate down and locked and onboard gear doors are fully closed,the nose gear can be assumed down and locked.
83
If the nose gear is the only gear indication which does not indicate good what could be wrong?
The micro switch may be faulty. Resetting the LDG GR CONT circuit breaker may fix the issue.
84
What six methods may force the gear down if it's stuck?
1) . Symmetric G forces between 0 and 2.5 Gs 2) . Slipping (side loads) 3) . Slowing airspeed 4) . Actuating speed brake 5) . Selecting flaps LDG 6) . Making quick small side to side movements of the FCP gear handle
85
When should you execute the Landing with Unsafe Gear Indications checklist?
1) . Both inboard main gear doors are partially open 2) . Both onboard main gear doors are open with one or both main landing gear fully retracted 3) . Only one main inboard gear door is down. 4) . Only the nose gear is down and locked. 5) . A suspected landing gear jam caused by an external event (bird strike, hard landing etc)
86
Following a landing with unsafe gear indications when should you taxi/be towed?
Once maintenance has reinstalled the gear pins.
87
When should you use the landing gear emergency extension checklist?
When directed to by another checklist.
88
What pull extension and force is needed to extend the emergency gear handle?
0.75 in, in excess of 80 lbs
89
What constitutes an extreme case of landing with a cocked nose wheel?
Nose wheel deflecting more than 45 deg. You should consider diverting to a wider runway if possible in this case
90
What fuel flow indications do you want during a manual start once N1 is above 13%?
70-80 pph
91
You should abort a start for what 5 indications?
1) . PCL moved/ST READY light goes out 2) . ITT likely to exceed 1000 deg C 3) . No rise of ITT within 10 seconds of fuel flow 4) . Normal N1 rise halted 5) . BAT BUS light
92
If contact with a BAK-15 is imminent you should:
Discontinue braking until past barrier. Never call for barriers in case of aborted takeoff and steer around them if you can.
93
What should you do if you have a tire failure?
Land on side corresponding to good tire, put drag in the middle
94
What indications will you have of an engine failure?
N1 will indicate 0% within 5 seconds; prop feathers; decay of torque and ITT; airspeed and power loss
95
Zooming at 200 KIAS and 250 KIAS results in how much altitude gained?
600-900' | 1170-1550' (heavier A/C at high pressure altitudes)
96
What will zoom results be with the engine producing useable torque (above 6%)?
Several hundred to several thousand feet higher.
97
What are the three airstart procedures?
1) . PMU NORM 2) . PMU OFF 3) . Immediate airstart (PMU NORM)
98
Airstarts have been demoed up to what altitudes?
20,000' MSL
99
When should you attempt a PMU NORM airstart?
When you don't have a PMU FAIL annunciator. It is the primary method of airstart because cooler starts can be expected at lower airspeeds.
100
If the airstart is successful you should have useful power?
Forty seconds.
101
At a higher altitude, will ITT be higher or lower for an airstart?
Higher.
102
What is the airstart envelope?
125-200 KIAS, SL to 15,000' MSL | 135-200 KIAS, 15,000'-20,000' MSL
103
Why should you make sure the PCL is OFF?
Prop will feather; also won't prematurely introduce fuel during an airstart.
104
When should you abort an airstart?
1) . If N1 does not rise within 5 seconds | 2) . If there is no rise in ITT within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications
105
The prop will unfeather and accelerate to operating RPM within how many seconds after N1 reaches 45%?
20
106
If the starter switch is not put in NORM what will happen?
The starter will drain the battery in 10 minutes.
107
With the bleed air INFLOW switch in NORM or HI during an airstart, the starting ITT may be how much higher?
40 deg C
108
What are the reasons you may see an uncommanded power change/loss of power/uncommanded prop feather?
1) . PMU scheduling 2) . Oil/fuel system contamination 3) . Prop dump solenoid failure 4) . Loss of oil pressure to prop pitch mechanism because of prop sleeve touchdown
109
What causes an uncommanded prop feather?
Bad electric signal to feather dump solenoid which opens it, drains all the oil pressure and causes prop to feather.
110
What else happens with PMU OFF during Uncommanded Power Change boldface?
Oil pressure and volume output to the prop pitch control increases which will help with the reduction in oil pressure caused by a prop sleeve touch down.

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