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Fast Jet Stuff > Dash-1 Section III > Flashcards

Dash-1 Section III Flashcards

1
Q

When external power is not available, which engine should you start first?

A

Start the right engine first

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2
Q

Before engine start, with external power or battery power applied, the EED fuel flow indicator(s) should read no higher than

A

200 PPH. A higher indication may be an indication of EED failure or fuel transmitter failure

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3
Q

Before engine start, if LEFT/RIGHT FUEL PRESS lights not illuminated and the lights test good, this is

A

norma due to residual pressure in system

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4
Q

When starting engines, do not advance throttle above IDLE without

A

a positive indication of oil pressure (>0)

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5
Q

On engine start, if ignition does not occur before fuel flow reaches ___ PPH, abort the start by

A

360 PPH; reset throttle to OFF

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6
Q

On engine start, if EGT does not rise within __ seconds after the first indication of fuel flow, abort the start

A

12 seconds

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7
Q

After any aborted start, after fuel flow is indicated, maintain airflow to permit fuel and vapors go be purged from the engine. Wait at least __ minutes before attempting another start

A

2 minutes

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8
Q

If engine ignition is normal, but RPM does not reach generator cut-in speed before termination of the start cycle,

A

push and hold the engine start button to make sure aircraft electrical power is available to monitor the start

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9
Q

If on engine start, you receive an unsafe gear and/or weight off wheels indication ( ___ / ___ / ___ ) occur, do not touch the gear lever. ___ as soon as possible and have the gear pins installed

A

stall warning / Break-X / loss of AOA symbol

Shut down the engine

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10
Q

If the MDP is powered up while the WOW switch is out of NORM

A

certain mission files will not be recorded to the DTC properly and therefore the Mission Debrief System will not be useable

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11
Q

What cockpit indications may occur if pitot heat operation on the ground exceeds 30 seconds?

A
  1. YSAS can disengage and not reengage until sufficient cooling
  2. Vibration of the AOA vane transmitter heating element can cause an ADC PFL and all three AOA indexer lights may illuminate
  3. TAS not available for display
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12
Q

What situations should the canopies be closed and preheated during ground operations until the TAXIING checklist?

A

-Night
-Anticipated weather operation with high humidity and narrow temp-dew point spreads

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13
Q

Following generator crossover checks on the ground, the HUD may

A

blank momentarily, turn full bright/dim, or fail to turn back on. If HUD intensity is affected and/or the HUD brightness control does not respond, cycle the FCP UFCP switch

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14
Q

Anytime the aircraft departs a hard surface (taxiway or runway)

A

immediately shutdown both engines

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15
Q

The drag due to a lost front canopy is equal to approx.

A

1/2 the drag of the speed brake fully extended

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16
Q

With a lost or damaged canopy, it is imperative to confirm

A

the speed brakes are retracted. The combination of canopy and speed brake drag may require afterburner to sustain level flight

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17
Q

Why can you not eject with the canopy open?

A

the canopy will not jettison and the bow structure will obstruct escape clearance

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18
Q

Do not delay ejection below ___ feet AGL in futile attempts to restart the engines

A

2000 feet AGL

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19
Q

Under uncontrollable situations, eject at least ____ feet above terrain whenever possible

A

6000 feet above

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20
Q

In flight, the optimum speed for ejection is in the range of

A

200 - 300 KCAS

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21
Q

Usually below ___ feet, automatic parachute deployment and aircrew/seat separation sequence has occurred. If below ___ feet AGL and it has not occurred automatically, initiate the separation manually

A

15,000 feet
12,000 feet AGL

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22
Q

If landing is to be made into water, it is important that the SSK is lowered before

A

splashdown

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23
Q

The parachute has UWARS which is designed to release aircrew from their parachute within 2.5 seconds of saltwater immersion. However, aircrew should

A

release themselves from the parachutes as soon as the enter the water b/c UWARS is a backup

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24
Q

How long is the seat delay from the FCP to the RCP?

A

0.85 seconds

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25
How long does it take the FCP ejection sequence to get under canopy?
3.4 seconds
26
What should you do if you get a fire indication during engine start on the ground?
1. Throttles - OFF 2. Battery - OFF
27
If the oxygen pressure gauge is reading greater than ___ psi on the ground, you should?
120 psi -Hang the oxygen hoses over the side of the aircraft -Emergency pressure and 100% ON
28
In a situation requiring immediate ground egress, the ejection seat has the capability for
zero altitude / zero airspeed ejections
29
What presents a greater problem: an aborted takeoff with tire failure or landing with a failed tire?
An aborted takeoff with tire failure b/c the effects of tire failure are most pronounced at heavy gross weights and speeds below 100 KCAS
30
What is more effective above 100 KCAS: aerodynamic braking or cautious wheel braking?
Aerodynamic braking and it avoids the potential for skidding, blown tires, brake failure, etc.
31
During heavy gross weight aborts, the nose will lower at approx. ___ KCAS. Once the nosewheel is lowered to the runway, immediately commence moderate braking while maintaining full aft stick
120 KCAS
32
Optimum braking should not be attempted above ___ KCAS
100 KCAS
33
Aerodynamic braking is most effective with __º pitch attitude and ___ flap configuration
12º pitch attitude and full flaps (however, aerobraking is still recommended even if unable to reach these parameters)
34
During high-speed abort situations, it is essential maximum aerodynamic braking be attained. Once established in an aerobrake,
lowering flaps will further reduce the stopping distance. Flaps should NOT be repositioned until full aft stick picture is attained. The aircraft may become airborne if flaps are lowered above the computed speed
35
Cautious braking should be applied between ___ and ___ KCAS. Optimum braking should be used below ___ KCAS
130 - 100 KCAS > 100 KCAS
36
If the abort was made as a result of an engine fire,
place the throttle of the affected engine to OFF once the aircraft is under control
37
Barrier engagement. Approach the barrier ___, in a ___ point attitude, and in the ___ of the barrier. Prior to engagement, brakes should be released and then reapplied once passing the barrier. Do NOT change configuration or actuate flight controls after barrier engagement.
perpendicularly; three point attitude; center
38
For MA-1A barriers, the minimum engagement speed is approx ___? The designed limit is ___ knots for all aircraft
60 knots 150 knots
39
The BAK-15 has been successfully engaged at speeds up to ___ knots. Once calling "Barrier, barrier, barrier," it should be raised within __ to __ seconds
200 knots 5 to 7 seconds
40
What are your steps for emergency ground egress?
1. Throttle gate - disengage 2. Throttles - Off 3. Notify crew member of decision to eject 4. ISS - Solo 5. Seat - Safe 6. Battery - Off 7. Unstrap 8. Canopy - Open *Egress forward and away from problem engine
41
What is SETOS?
The minimum speed at which the aircraft will takeoff and be able to climb out of ground effect with a minimum of 100 feet per minute rate of climb
42
TOLD data can only be validated by
an accurate acceleration speed check
43
Between SETOS and SETOS+10, single-climb performance increases at a rate of __ to __ fpm for every __ knot above SETOS
8 to 50 fpm for every 1 knot above SETOS
44
What attitude allows for best acceleration to SETOS?
three-point attitude, the stick at or slightly aft of the takeoff trim setting nose-wheel should not dig in nor should it be allowed to lift off
45
For a Single Engine takeoff, initial pitch attitude is ___. Climb should be restricted to ___
shallower than normal only that required to clear obstacles until reaching 200 KCAS and the flaps retracted
46
When should you retract the gear on a single engine takeoff? When should you raise the flaps?
As soon as the aircraft is airborne at SETOS + 10 (b/c gear door drag is not a factor at SETOS + 10) Flaps up after gear retraction and reaching 200 KCAS
47
When does the Engine Failure/Fire Warning During T/O, T/O Continued boldface apply?
ONLY on initial takeoff, all other is SE Go
48
If you continue the T/O with a left engine failure, what are some considerations?
-if the left engine is still windmilling, gear retraction may still be accomplished but will take an extended time period; however, gear doors may not completely close (may take up to 1 minute)
49
If unable to retract the landing gear, what is the best flight/climb capability airspeed?
Flaps 60 + Gear: 200 KCAS Gear only: 220 KCAS
50
If you have to land with a blown tire, which side of the runway are you landing on? What are you doing after the aircraft is stopped
-Land on the side of the runway AWAY from the blown tire -Do NOT clear the runway, activate the flight controls, or change configuration
51
What is the guide for landing distance with full flaps? (Ex. 2000 pounds)
(2500 + Gas) + Touchdown Point Ex. 2500 + 2000 + 1000 = 5500 feet
52
What is the guide for landing distance with 60% flaps? (Ex. 2000 pounds)
(2500 + Gas) + 500 + Touchdown Point Ex. 2500 + 2000 + 500 + 1000 = 6000 feet
53
What is the guide for landing distance with no flaps? (Ex. 2000 pounds)
(2500 + Gas) x 2 + Touchdown Point Ex. (2500 + 2000) x 2 + 1000 = 10000 feet
54
How does crosswinds greater than 15 knots affect landing distance? How about a wet runway?
50% increase for crosswinds 30% increase for wet runway
55
If unable to raise the landing gear, how much fuel will the aircraft consume? What about low altitude with full flaps?
10 - 15 pounds per NM 60 pounds per minute
56
What are the 3 types of hydraulic malfunctions?
Hydraulic fluid overtemperature, low pressure, and high pressure
57
What hydraulic malfunctions will illuminate a Caution light?
Hydraulic fluid overtemperature or low pressure (NOT high pressure)
58
Below what PSI indicates low hydraulic pressure?
1500 psi
59
If momentary drops in hydraulic pressure causes the caution light to illuminate, what is likely the malfunction?
an unpressurized system
60
What should you do in a hydraulic overtemperature situation?
Shut the corresponding engine down immediately -If the right engine is bad, consider checking crossover first
61
What consideration should you give to shutting down the right engine?
Checking crossover first and with bad cross...lower flaps 60% and trim to final approach speed (fuel permitting)
62
What systems will you lose if the utility hydraulic system fails?
Stability Augmenter Nosewheel Steering Gear extension (normal) Speed brake
63
With dual hydraulic failure (both gauges read zero), you should
Eject
64
*If hydraulic pressure is low, you should avoid
Zero and Negative-G Flight (why?)
65
If one hydraulic system reads zero, hydraulic transfer may occur. Flight time could be limited to only
35 minutes
66
If utility hydraulic pressure is depleted, once you land you should
stop straight ahead and have gear pins installed (canNOT taxi without nosewheel steering)
67
How do you know an engine was successfully shut down? What should you do if you don't receive this indication?
-Fuel flow indicates less than 200 pph -Use the fuel shutoff switch above your left knee
68
Is windmilling hydraulics sufficient to control the aircraft for landing?
No. Hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine is insufficient for landing
69
Steady-state hydraulic pressure higher than ___ PSI in either system is considered a malfunction
3200 PSI
70
A complete gearbox failure is indicated by simultaneous illumination of
-Left/Right Generator -Utility/Flight Hydraulic -Hydraulic gauge will read zero pressure
71
**Since cockpit indications of a seized engine closely resemble the indications of a gearbox failure, you must verify that
all engine instruments are operating normally (gearbox failure) if not (seized engine)
72
If the gearbox shaft fails at the designed failure point, there is no associated vibration...
the engine can be operated manually if excessive vibrations result, shut the engine down (b/c the gearbox itself has failed, not just the shaft)
73
Dual gearbox failure will result in total loss of
hydraulics and AC electrical power
74
What indications are different about the first gearbox failure vs the second gearbox failure?
The first system to fail will indicate a loss of hydraulic pressure on the gauge. When the second gearbox failure occurs, that gauge will freeze at the last pressure displayed.
75
If the right gearbox fails second, how can you verify hydraulic pressure for the flight hydraulic system?
activating the static inverter (pressing the start button, selecting MAX, or using the oxy/fuel check switch)
76
If a generator light is illuminated, you should?
-Try to reset it and turn it back on -If it fails to reset: adjust RPM to the other side of the shift range and try to reset it
77
What is the RPM shift range?
65 - 75% RPM
78
Why should you refrain from further generator reset attempts after running the checklist?
Potential generator burning
79
What EP is indicated by a GENERATOR caution light when moving the RPM though 65% to 75%?
Gearbox failure to shift (shift range is 65-75%)
80
What would indicate a single TRU failure?
a PFL (NO caution)
81
What does the XMFR RECT OUT light indicate?
Dual TRU failure
82
If both transformer-rectifiers fail, what is supplying DC power? How long will you have DC power?
the battery (stays powered until 10 volts) so approx. 15 minutes
83
If complete DC failure occurs with the landing gear extended,
downside hydraulic pressure is lost (therefore the landing gear should be pinned)
84
When will the XMFR RECT OUT light extinguish if in bright?
whenever the battery dies
85
What bus gets shed automatically when battery power is used? What do you lose?
Non-essential DC bus TCAS Recorder UFCP VHF radio
86
What are your steps for an electrical fire?
1. Oxygen - 100% 2. Cabin Pressure - Ram Dump (below 25,000 feet, if possible) 3. Battery and L GEN/R GEN - OFF
87
With boost pumps inoperative, engine flameout may occur if
above 25,000 feet
87
If turning electrical equipment back on after an electrical fire, what should you turn on first?
the battery to allow for DC power until it dies
88
With complete electrical failure, all warning systems, engine instruments, flight trim, communication, navigation, speed brake, gear indicators, nosewheel steering, fuel boost pumps, and engine ignition systems are inoperative; each engine anti-ice valve opens. Plan to fly
an electrical failure pattern; a no flap and alternate gear extension will be necessary
89
How many volts is the right/left DC buses?
28 VDC
90
How many volts are the generators?
115 (+/-2) volts providing 3 phase AC
91
How many volts is the lead-acid battery?
24 VDC
92
What indications do you have for a Right essential DC bus failure?
"something in the middle and something on the right" -MDP inoperative -EED inoperative
93
Where is the circuit breaker that protects the left/right essential 28-VDC bus?
In the nose equipment bay (i.e. canNOT reach it in flight)
94
What communication and navigation information do you lose with a right essential 28-VDC bus failure?
Failure of the right essential 28-VDC bus circuit breaker results in loss of the TACAN and UHF radio. VOR information (numerical and bearing pointer) and CDI are still displayed on the HUD with the VOR as PNS. However, the bearing pointer is unreliable and the CDI course arrow may not be vertically oriented
95
How should you recover with a Right-DC bus failure?
Fly no-gyro vectors using the VHF radio to LOC/ILS final. LOC/ILS data is displayed in the HUD when ILS is the PNS
96
What indicates a 28-VDC bus failure?
"Something in the middle and something on the left" -Total loss of the UFCP -OFF flag in standby ADI (Loss of the NAV backup control panel)
97
What communication and navigation information do you lose with a left essential 28-VDC bus failure?
loss of VHF radio, VOR, ILS
98
When can you expect a false XMFR RECT OUT light?
If in dim mode and you have a Left Essential 28VDC Bus Failure

Fast Jet Stuff (15 decks)

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