Dash1 Flashcards
(242 cards)
1
Q
T-1 dimensions
A
48 feet 5 in long
43 feet 6 in wingspan
13 feet 11 in tall
2
Q
Zero fuel weight
A
11,000 pounds
3
Q
At sea level and up to 27 deg C, the engine generates how much thrust?
A
2900 pounds of takeoff rated thrust
4
Q
How much oil does each engine tank have?
A
2.03 gallons
5
Q
L or R Oil press lo linger indicates?
A
System oil pressure is below 40 psi
6
Q
Where does the EFC receive inputs from?
A
Throttle angle
Ambient air temp
Ambient air pressure
Differential between temp/press
7
Q
If EFCs fail, how much thrust loss can be expected?
A
Could be up to 40%
8
Q
At 35-40% N2 what happens to the starter/gen?
A
It’s control power is removed and it starts operating as generator
9
Q
How close do the engines need to be to each other before activating engine sync?
A
1.5%
10
Q
What is fire detection provided by?
A
Semiconductor, coaxial cable sensor element that forms a closed loop around all vital engine components
11
Q
What is the fire extinguishing agent called?
A
Halon
12
Q
What is the fuel systems operating limits?
A
Sea level to 41,000 feet
-40 to 50 deg C
13
Q
How many primary fuel tanks are there?
A
6 Aft fuselage Aft cabin Left/right mid tanks Wing tanks
14
Q
How much fuel can be filled via pressure/gravity fueling?
A
P - 771 gallons
G - 739 gallons
15
Q
What do sniffle valves do?
A
Allow fuel/air to be vented
Opens at internal pressure of 0.1 to 0.3 psi to bring air in
If internal pressure is 5 psi or higher valve opens to dump
16
Q
What do float check valves do?
A
Restrict fuel from exiting tanks while allowing air to enter/exit as needed to balance pressure
17
Q
What do flapper valves do?
A
Hinged devices that allow fuel to flow in only one direction
18
Q
What happens when the Eng Fire Push switch light is pushed?
A
Shutoff fuel/hydraulics
Shutoff generator
Arm fire bottles
19
Q
What does pushing trim int & A/P diseng do?
A
Disconnects A/P, sounds tone, silences runaway sound as well
20
Q
Why would you hear the gear horn on takeoff?
A
Throttles at T/O power and trim is not in T/O position
21
Q
Type of engine in T-1
A
Pratt and Whitney JT15D-5B
22
Q
Moving the throttles affects which portion of the engine?
A
Turbine gas jet engine: N2
23
Q
What makes the high pressure compressor centrifugal?
A
Air enters engine parallel to engine, then spun outward, making 90 deg change in direction = slows and compresses
24
Q
How many fuel nozzles and igniters per engine?
A
12 nozzles
2 igniters
25
What does the compressor surge bleed valve do?
Opens and closes as a result of the EFC to ensure proper air flow to combustion chamber
26
How does air flow thru the engine?
Fan, axial compressor, high pressure compressor, combustion chamber, high pressure turbine, low pressure turbine, low pressure compressor
27
What does GND COMM PUSH indicate?
The battery is supplying power to UHF, VHF, and intercom
28
What does ELT ON indicate? How do u reset it?
ELT is transmitting/ move to ON then ARMED/RESET
29
Holding trim down for more than how many seconds will cause horn to sound?
5 seconds
30
With the ignition in STBY, will the igniters activate when L/R Engine Anti-Ice is selected?
Yes
31
What is the HMU?
Engine driven hydromechanical metering unit
| gives engines rough estimate of how much fuel goes to engine (based on throttle position)
32
What is the EFC
Electronic fuel control
| Assists HMU by refining fuel amount
33
During engine start, the HMU is responsible for fuel flow up to
38% N2
34
A L/R ENG EFC OFF can reduce thrust by
40%
35
What is the purpose of the flow divider valve in the fuel system?
Divides fuel into primar/secondary flow for precise control
36
How many main annunciators on the panel?
52 total
12 red
40 yellow
37
When will the AOA indexer illuminate?
When gear are down
38
What do stall annunciators indicate?
AOA system senses a stall condition
39
Where is Cabin Smoke annunciators located?
Co-pilot side shroud panel
40
What does Red Pull Up mean?
GPWS senses unsafe situation
41
What does GPWS Test indicate when illuminated?
Power is being applied to the GPWS system
42
What does below GLS indicate?
1.3 dots below glideslope
43
What does EFC AUX PWR ON indicate?
One of the EFCs is receiving power from standby battery
44
What does NOSE DN or NOSE UP indicate?
Warn with T/O TRIM SET to indicate position of trim
| Only works with weight on wheels
45
What does AC BUS SHED indicate?
26 and 115 VAC shed busses are disconnected
46
What does EMER LT NO ARM indicate?
Emergency light control switch (red guard) not in ARM position
47
What does PASS OXY ON mean?
Passenger oxygen system charged
| Normally not charged during flight
48
What does FUEL XFEED ON indicate?
Crossfeed selected
| One wing fueling both engines
49
What does LDG LT EXT indicate?
Lights extended with gear up
| Actuator not fully retracted
50
What does WG ICE TEMP LO indicate?
Temp in wing anti-ice ducts is below 140 deg F
51
What does ICE DET FAIL indicate?
Failure of ice detector probe or loss of power
52
What does icing light indicate?
Ice detector probe senses approx .020 in ice
53
When in STBY, when will the igniters activate?
Start button depressed
AOA detects approach to stall
Engine anti-ice on
54
When using engine sync, N1/N2 need to be within what limit? Which engine is master?
+-1.5%
Left engine
Not available with EFC off
55
Which fire bottle goes to which engine?
Whichever engine Fire switch was pushed last
56
What is on the accessory gearbox?
```
Starter generator
Hydraulic pump
Oil pump
HMU
Fuel pump
N2 speed sensors
```
57
What is the safety shutoff valve?
If the high pressure compressor fails, a safety shutoff valve immediately cuts fuel flow. Engine doesn’t restart
58
Under normal ops, when will transfer pumps go out?
Mid tanks empty
| Less than 5.0 +- 0.5 psi
59
How many fuel probes are in each wing?
4
60
How many fuel probes in fuselage tanks?
4
61
What pumps are in the fuel feed chamber?
Forward transfer jet pump
Aft transfer jet pump
Electric boost pump
Primary jet pump
62
What are the purposes of the boost pump?
Engine start
Crossfeed
Backup for primary jet pump
Motive flow for transfer jet pumps
63
Why does the jet pump on the opposite engine go out during crossfeed?
So motive flow stops pulling fuel from that wing
64
When does boost pump automatically come on?
Engine start selected
Crossfeed selected
Pressure in engine fuel feed line < 5 psi
Fuel feed chamber below 11 gallons
65
Which fuel feed chamber transfer pumps get motive flow from the engine vs boost pump?
Forward - boost
| Aft - primary jet pump
66
If engine does not start with igniters in STBY, can you attempt start in the ON position?
No
67
What are positions of ignition switch?
Standby
Off
On
68
When does L O FLTR BYPASS illuminate? Along with L OIL PRESS LO?
Filter - when clogged
| Pressure - below 40 psi
69
Describe how oil flows through the T-1
Tank - Engine pump- cooler - filter - bearings/gearbox - scavenger pumps
70
What cools oil?
Fuel
71
Once discharged, will BOT ARMED PUSH LIGHT go out or remain illuminated?
Go out
72
What is operating fuel temp limit?
-40 to 50 deg C
73
What does the LDG GR WRN CUT light indicate?
Landing gear horn silenced
74
What does ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight indicate?
Fire or overheat
75
How many ITT sensors are there?
6
| Connected in parallel to get avg temp
76
Bypass ratio of the T-1 engine?
2:1
66% bypass - thrust/cooling
33% compressor
77
If standby battery is not armed during preflight, will it still power the standby bus if an electrical failure happens?
No
78
What does pushing the BATT FEED TEST do?
Simulates fault in emergency bus feeder line, opens all 3 relays
Standby battery powers standby bus
79
During the battery feed test, with the battery switch in Emergency, which AC annunciators should illuminate?
INV 1 FAIL
| AC BUS SHED
80
What is on the primary 26 VAC shed bus?
Flap position
| L/R oil px
81
If right load bus loses power, how can the #2 inverter be powered?
Thru emergency bus
82
Single generator amp limits
Ground - 280 amps
Air - 2 op (280)/ 1 op (400) up to 32,500
Above 32,500 - 280
83
What is on the standby bus?
```
Co-pilot inst lights
RTU # 1
UHF
ITT (L)
Standby Alt vibrator
Standby attitude
EFC
```
84
What is emergency bus normally powered by?
Emergency bus feed line
| Connected to battery
85
What does battery feeder protection unit do?
Provides fault protection for battery
| Opens relays isolate malfunctioning system
86
What type of battery is used in the T-1?
24 volt DC
40 amp hour
Lead acid
87
What is the purpose of the GCU?
Equalize load/ prevent reverse current flow
| One per engine
88
How does power flow from main bus to load bus?
Feeder lines (3 total/2 active)
One CB stays in stby
Prevent high current
89
What is purpose of the start bus?
Power source for starting engines
90
What is required N2% for generator to reach full capacity?
58% N2
91
What does moving the master generators to EMER do?
Isolates generator and battery from system/ only standby is active
92
If the emergency bus feeder line fails, what happens?
Emergency bus power relay opens
| Emergency bus-tie relay closes
93
What is the standby bus normally powered
LH load bus
94
What are the sources of DC power?
Battery
Starter/generator
External power
95
What is connected to the RH load bus?
No 2 inverter
RH overhead bus
RH nonessential bus
RH radio bus
96
What is connected to the LH load bus?
```
No 1 inverter
LH radio bus
LH nonessential bus
LH overhead bus
Standby bus
```
97
Power from the non-essential buses go to
Wx radar
| VCCS
98
The power from the radio buses go to?
Nav/comm equipment
99
What are the two load buses connected by?
Load bus tie
100
When the battery switch is moved to EMER, what happens?
Battery only powers Emergency bus
| Battery relay/tie in are de-energized but emergency bus power relay is energized
101
When the battery switch is ON, which relays are energized?
Battery relay
Battery tie-in relay
Emergency bus power relay
102
What is the purpose of the LH/RH main buses?
Distribute power from respective generators
| Tied to battery charge bus in case one gen fails
103
What does the battery bus do?
Provides DC power distribution for battery or GPU
104
What is on Emergency bus?
```
Selected LH instruments
LDG gear position
Engine ignition (L)
Emer pitch trim
VHF Nav1
Engine Fire detection
Standby bus
```
105
What is purpose of battery charge bus?
Central connection for all DC power
| Allows one generator to power whole system
106
What is the purpose of the battery tie in relay?
Allows battery to charge from generators
107
When will you get an AC bus shed?
Emergency bus is powering #2 inverter
108
What does putting the generator reset switches into: off, norm, and reset do?
Off - isolates generator from system
Norm - GCU controls generator operation
Reset - resets generator and GCU
109
During gear retraction, when will the fuselage doors close?
Once all gear are up and locked
110
What are the flap G limits
Flaps up: -1.0 to 3.2
| Flaps ext: 0 to 2.0
111
What speed on taxi does anti-skid become active?
14 knots
112
What is max speed for emergency gear extension?
150 KIAS
113
What type of braking is available?
Power
Manual
Anti-skid
Emergency
114
What is the pressure of the brake accumulator?
900 +- 50
115
What does the rudder servo do?
Yaw damper
Rudder boost
Autopilot
116
What is max landing gear operating altitude?
20,000 feet
117
How does EMER Door Close work?
Sends nitrogen to being fuselage doors up: takes 3 sec
118
When will the landing gear horn sound?
All gear not down/locked:
Flaps 0-10, one/both throttles <70% N2
Flaps extended beyond 10 - cannot be silenced
119
What does downlock release let you do?
Move gear handle if stuck down due to weight on wheels issue
120
The fuselage doors will only close under normal conditions if
All three wheels are down and locked
121
How long is normal gear extension?
7 secs
122
What does the Emerg L/G Down handle do?
Releases mechanical up locks for fuselage doors and all gear
Takes 30 secs
All gear lights will illuminate
123
What does a red unlocked light mean on the landing gear indicator?
Main fuselage doors not closed and locked
124
What bleed air psi goes into the hydraulic reservoir?
15 psi
125
When will HYD LEVEL LO illuminate?
.6 gallons
126
What is the flow rate and psi of the hydraulic pumps
0 gpm at 1500 psi
| 3.9 gpm at 1400 psi
127
When will L/R H PMP PRESS LO illuminate?
750 psi
128
What is the capacity of the hydraulic system?
1.2 gallons
129
What will illuminate when the hydraulic filter becomes clogged?
Nothing
130
At what psi will the hydraulic pressure release valve open?
1650 psi
131
At what hydraulic psi does the pilot have to open the bypass valve?
1850 psi
132
What do the mixing valves do?
Allow braking from either pilot/copilot side
133
In a full turn, what are the degree limits of the spoiler
-14 deg away from turn
68 deg up inner
72 deg up outer
134
What causes a flap asym?
7 deg difference
Right flap affects flap gauge
When annunciators illuminates, power is removed from flap lever
135
What deflection will speed brakes go up to?
36 deg
136
How long does it take for speed brakes to be extended?
2.6 sec in flight
| .6 sec on the ground
137
How long does it take for horiz stab trim to move from nose up to nose down?
14 sec
| 45 for emergency
138
What is max rudder deflection?
30 deg
139
What are the deflection limits on the elevator?
25 deg up
| 12 deg down
140
Is there a warning horn for rudder trim?
No
141
What will cause speed brakes to retract?
Throttles moved to Norm TO
| Flaps extended beyond 10 deg
142
What restrictions are in place with flaps?
20,000 feet
200 knots to extend to 10
170 to extend 10-30
165 flaps 30
143
Do the aft flaps have asym detection?
No. Can only be detected thru I commanded roll/yaw
144
What types of flaps are on the T-1?
Double slotted fowlers
145
What are the secondary flight controls?
Flaps
Speed brake
Trim
146
What does the rudder boost use to determine asymmetric thrust?
Bleed air differential
147
What are the primary flight controls?
Rudder
Elevator
Spoilers
148
At what energy will brakes fail?
14.8 million foot/lbs
149
What are some of the limitations of setting the parking brake?
Do not set with hot brakes
Do not set when cold w/ visible moisture
Do not set with copilot brakes
150
At what temp will thermal(fuse) plugs blow?
430 deg F
151
At how many foot/lbs will fuse plugs blow?
4.05 million foot/lbs per brake
152
Do not use autopilot below
200 feet AGL
153
What does the GND MAP button do?
Helps determine ground features such as water, cities
154
What is the max commanded roll by the heading bug?
27 deg
155
What does 1/2 bank do?
Limits bank to 1/2 normal
| Approx 15 deg
156
What is min/max range of radar?
5-300 NM
157
What is the tilt range of the radar?
+- 14 deg
Controlled by tilt knob
1/4 deg increments
158
What does Auto on radar tilt do?
Adjusts for aircraft altitude
159
What is attenuation?
Decrease in radar strength
| Occurs due to precipitation/distance
160
How to calculate cloud tops?
(Diff of tilt *100) * dist = height
161
What is a PAC alert?
Yellow bar on MFD with Wx overlay indicating system is detecting attenuation
162
What can you do to suppress ground return?
Use GND CLTR SPRS
163
What’s a good radar tilt for departure?
+5 - +7
164
Calculation for radar tilt value on descent?
Alt / (range * 0.7) = tilt from 0
165
Start malfunction prior to moving throttle from CUTOFF to IDLE?
Push to Diseng
166
Start malfunction after moving throttle to IDLE after 8% N2 call
Throttle - cutoff
Ignition - off
15 second fuel purge
Push to disengage
167
Starter malfunction: starter does not disengage by 45% N2, EFC was just called
Push to Diseng (no extinguish)
Throttle - cutoff
Battery - off
Master Gen - Emergency
168
For engine start, at what temp is external power required?
5 deg F
| -15 deg C
169
Min voltage for battery start?
22 volts
170
Min voltage for GPU start?
28 volts
171
When should final flap setting be selected?
By 250 AGL
172
With the left stall warning computer failed, what stall indications are available?
Both stall lights
| Both stick shakers
173
Does the MFD range affect TCAS range?
No
| Displays from 12 to as low as 4.5 NM
174
What are TCAS’ display limits in ABV/BLO, and only ABV?
+-9900
| +9900/-2700
175
What does open blue diamond on TCAS indicate?
General traffic
176
What does a solid blue diamond indicate on TCAS?
Close traffic
177
What does a solid yellow circle indicate on TCAS?
Potential conflict
| “TRAFFIC(x3)”
178
What does a solid red box on TCAS indicate?
Traffic conflict
| Accompanied by RA
179
On map mode, what needs to be selected to see the traffic overlay/TCAS?
TFC ON
180
Will you get an RA with a mode C transponder?
Yes
| Not coordinated
181
When will you get an RA/TA?
RA - 15-35 sec prior
| TA - 20-45 sec prior
182
During an RA, where should you put VSI needle?
In the green arc by about 250 feet/min
183
With no power, standby indicator will remain on with how many degrees for how long?
+-6 degrees
| 9 minutes
184
What is a rough guide to correct the standby altimeter by due to position error?
By flight level
| FL 300 = 30,300 feet
185
A standard rate turn is
360 deg turn
30 deg bank
2 minutes
186
On the mag compass, which way should you turn to get your desired heading?
Away
187
What will cause the ELT to go off?
5 g’s
| ELT switch - on
188
What is AOA for an on speed approach?
0.6
189
What is on speed Vco AOA?
0.7
190
What is best endurance AOA?
0.45
| Also L/D Max
191
What is max range AOA?
0.18
192
What is surveillance area of TCAS, and how many aircraft can it track?
4.5-14 NM
| 30 aircraft
193
What is approach to stall AOA
0.75
194
The difference between displayed and actual bearing of an aircraft on TCAS can be up to?
+-10 degrees
195
By when should you comply with an RA, and increase/decrease/reversal?
5 secs
| 2.5 secs
196
When does cabin pressure hi illuminate?
11 +-1 PSI
197
When operating normally, pressure differential should not exceed
9.1 psi
198
With BLO 1 selected, which blower is active?
Aft blower unit
199
With throttles advanced to Norm TO, on takeoff, cabin is pressurized to a __ to __ differential
80
| 120
200
During the H Stab Anti-Ice test, how long do u hold button?
3 secs
201
What’s the difference between windshield heat HIGH/LOW?
High - just lower portion
| Low - broad
202
When does ICING illuminate?
.020 inches
| 50-70 sec cycle to melt
203
What does BL Air Duct Fail illuminate?
Greater than 3.5+-0.5 psi or 350 deg F in wing anti-ice duct
204
Why might blowers stay on when OFF is selected, right after hearing was selected?
To cool heating elements down to 100 deg F
205
When will the oxygen dump overboard?
2700 psi
206
A temp drop of ___ deg results in an oxygen psi drop of ___%?
100 deg F
| 20%
207
If either horiz stab anti-ice/de ice fail, what must you do?
Turn both off, activate STB Deice backup
208
What temp comes out ACU?
39 deg F
209
What triggers a Cabin Air OV HT?
390 +-15
210
What does the bleed air selector do?
Selects the source of bleed air for environmental system
211
When does Wing OV HT illuminate?
212 deg F
| 350 deg F
212
What’s the difference between Sys1 and Sys2?
Nothing. Just different valves
213
When does ENG ICE TEMP LO(L/R) illuminate?
120 deg F
214
1/2 inch of ice could add how many lbs to aircraft?
500 lbs
215
What does the temp controller do?
| What does the mode switch do?
Selects how much hot air gets mixed with conditioned air from ACU
Mode switch senses temp
216
When does Cabin Pressure Lo illuminate?
9,500+-500
217
What does the cabin dump handle do?
Opens right outflow valve
| Allows cabin px to equal outside px
218
When above 18,000 feet, what needs to be turned on?
Windshield heat
219
What is the wiper limitation?
200 KIAS
220
What does AV BLO FAIL indicate?
Loss of cooling to avionics rack
221
Does Aux Cool power any blowers?
Yes
| 1 and 2
222
When does Wing Ice Temp LO illuminate?
Below 140 deg F
223
What happens when selecting EMER on bleed air select?
Hot unconditioned air is forced into cabin
| Will get Air Cond Fail
224
If cabin altitude exceeds 12,500+-500 and red PASS OXYGEN is not pulled, will masks drop?
Yes
225
If red PASS OXYGEN knob is pulled by accident, what should you do?
Push knob in before pulling SYS READY
226
How do you use H STB DEICE switch?
Hold momentarily
| 30 sec of power is provided/repeat every 2 min
227
What is the horiz stab anti-ice?
Heat mats on leading edge of 260-280 and elevator horn
228
What is horiz stab de-ice?
Also consists of mats, elevator horn, and gap
When powered, 12 zones activated
10 zones - 16 secs
2 zones - 30 secs
229
When does STB DEICE FAIL illuminate?
Malfunction in sequence timer, heater mat, or current sensor
230
When does STB ANTI ICE FAIL illuminate?
If the horiz stab temp reached 310 deg F or current sensors fail
231
What happens if temp leaving ACU compressor is <400 deg C or <53 psi?
Closes pressure regulator shutoff valves
Cuts off bleed air to ACU
AIR COND FAIL
232
Moving the manual pressurization knob to full decrease could result in cabin altitude to depressurize to a max of
12,500+-1,500
233
Describe difference between Auto FLDK, Auto Duct, and Man Duct
Senses in flight deck/supply ducts
Senses in air ducts
Pilot opens/closes control valve
234
At what temp will heaters’ overheat protection activate?
420+-30
235
When does windshield overheat illuminate?
130 deg F
236
When the VCS is on, where does refrigerant go to?
BLO 1,2
| Avionics rack
237
What triggers BL AIR DCT FAIL?
350 deg F
| 3.5 psi or less in Wing Anti-Ice
238
The cabin rate of climb is adjustable between
50-2000 fpm
239
What is temp and psi from bleed air?
600 deg F
150 psi
30 psi once thru regulator
240
Where is heater 1?
| Heater 2?
Side window, Defoe, flight deck
| Glareshield
241
VCCS will auto shed when?
Engine start button pressed
Windshield heat on
Horiz stab anti/de-ice
Outside air temp < 20 deg F
242
If icing conditions are encountered, use no greater than 10 deg flaps unless which conditions are encountered?
Icing less than 19 minutes and RAT is warmer then -8 deg C
| RAT greater than 10 deg C is observed during descent, approach, or landing
