DAY 1 - AI Flashcards by Catherine Losito

What is the primary structure of a protein?
A. The 3D shape formed by folding
B. The sequence of amino acids
C. The association of multiple polypeptides
D. The hydrogen bonding in helices

B. The sequence of amino acids

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Which of the following is a disaccharide?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Ribose

C. Lactose

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What is the role of ATP in cellular metabolism?
A. It acts as a structural molecule
B. It stores genetic information
C. It serves as an energy currency
D. It catalyzes reactions

C. It serves as an energy currency

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Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin K

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Enzymes are primarily composed of:
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids

C. Proteins

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Which bond forms between two amino acids?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Peptide bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Disulfide bond

B. Peptide bond

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The double helix model of DNA was proposed by:
A. Mendel and Darwin
B. Watson and Crick
C. Franklin and Chargaff
D. Avery and Griffith

B. Watson and Crick

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Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?
A. Oleic acid
B. Linoleic acid
C. Stearic acid
D. Arachidonic acid

C. Stearic acid

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What is the main function of hemoglobin?
A. Transporting carbon dioxide
B. Storing energy
C. Transporting oxygen
D. Catalyzing blood reactions

C. Transporting oxygen

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Which molecule is used as the reducing power in biosynthetic reactions?
A. ATP
B. NADPH
C. FAD
D. NADH

B. NADPH

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What is the role of insulin in the body?
A. Breaks down fats
B. Increases blood glucose
C. Stimulates glycogen formation
D. Inhibits protein synthesis

C. Stimulates glycogen formation

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Which amino acid contains a sulfur group?
A. Serine
B. Threonine
C. Methionine
D. Lysine

C. Methionine

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What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?
A. DNA replication
B. Protein synthesis
C. Lipid metabolism
D. Energy production

B. Protein synthesis

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Glycolysis takes place in the:
A. Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Cytoplasm

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Which of these is not a component of a nucleotide?
A. Phosphate group
B. Sugar
C. Fatty acid
D. Nitrogenous base

C. Fatty acid

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Which enzyme unwinds DNA during replication?
A. Ligase
B. Polymerase
C. Helicase
D. Nuclease

C. Helicase

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A non-protein component essential for enzyme activity is called:
A. Apoenzyme
B. Cofactor
C. Substrate
D. Inhibitor

B. Cofactor

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What is the function of tRNA during protein synthesis?
A. Translates codons into amino acids
B. Replicates DNA
C. Modifies mRNA
D. Synthesizes lipids

A. Translates codons into amino acids

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The enzyme that synthesizes RNA from a DNA template is:
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Ligase
D. Reverse transcriptase

B. RNA polymerase

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Which metabolic cycle generates the most ATP?
A. Glycolysis
B. Calvin cycle
C. Citric acid cycle
D. Pentose phosphate pathway

C. Citric acid cycle

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What is the pH of human blood under normal conditions?
A. 6.5
B. 7.4
C. 7.0
D. 8.2

B. 7.4

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Which element is central to heme in hemoglobin?
A. Magnesium
B. Iron
C. Zinc
D. Copper

B. Iron

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DNA differs from RNA in that DNA:
A. Contains uracil
B. Is single-stranded
C. Has deoxyribose
D. Is shorter

C. Has deoxyribose

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The fluid mosaic model describes the structure of:
A. Mitochondria
B. Plasma membrane
C. Nucleus
D. Cell wall

B. Plasma membrane

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The main nitrogenous waste in humans is: A. Ammonia B. Uric acid C. Urea D. Creatinine

C. Urea

Which lipid is essential for membrane fluidity? A. Triglyceride B. Steroid C. Phospholipid D. Cholesterol

D. Cholesterol

What type of bond stabilizes alpha-helices in proteins? A. Covalent B. Ionic C. Hydrogen D. Peptide

C. Hydrogen

What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis in muscles? A. Ethanol B. Acetyl-CoA C. Lactic acid D. Pyruvate

C. Lactic acid

Which carbohydrate is used for energy storage in animals? A. Cellulose B. Glycogen C. Starch D. Fructose

B. Glycogen

Which coenzyme is derived from niacin (vitamin B3)? A. FAD B. NAD+ C. CoA D. TPP

B. NAD+

What is the primary purpose of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)? A. Cut DNA at specific sites B. Amplify DNA segments C. Sequence proteins D. Insert DNA into cells

B. Amplify DNA segments

Which enzyme is commonly used to join DNA fragments together? A. DNA polymerase B. DNA ligase C. Restriction enzyme D. Helicase

B. DNA ligase

What is a plasmid? A. A type of cell wall B. A virus C. A small circular DNA molecule D. A protein enzyme

C. A small circular DNA molecule

Which process involves the introduction of foreign DNA into a host cell? A. Translation B. Cloning C. Transformation D. Replication

C. Transformation

Which organism is commonly used in recombinant DNA technology? A. Homo sapiens B. Escherichia coli C. Drosophila melanogaster D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

B. Escherichia coli

What is the function of a restriction enzyme? A. Synthesizes DNA B. Cuts DNA at specific sites C. Joins RNA strands D. Labels proteins

B. Cuts DNA at specific sites

CRISPR-Cas9 is best known for its ability to: A. Diagnose diseases B. Synthesize proteins C. Edit genes precisely D. Create vaccines

C. Edit genes precisely

The term 'recombinant DNA' refers to: A. Naturally occurring DNA B. DNA from viruses C. DNA from two sources combined D. Duplicated DNA strands

C. DNA from two sources combined

Which of the following is used as a vector in gene cloning? A. Ribosome B. Plasmid C. Histone D. Lysosome

B. Plasmid

In gene therapy, the goal is to: A. Remove infected cells B. Replace defective genes C. Multiply normal cells D. Eliminate RNA

B. Replace defective genes

Golden rice was genetically modified to produce which nutrient? A. Vitamin A B. Iron C. Protein D. Vitamin C

A. Vitamin A

What is the role of a probe in molecular biology? A. Amplify DNA B. Cut DNA C. Detect specific DNA sequences D. Join DNA fragments

C. Detect specific DNA sequences

Which technique is used to separate DNA fragments by size? A. Electrophoresis B. Chromatography C. Filtration D. Centrifugation

A. Electrophoresis

In ELISA, what does the enzyme do? A. Amplify proteins B. Bind antigens C. Produce a detectable signal D. Label DNA

C. Produce a detectable signal

The Bt gene used in genetically modified crops confers resistance to: A. Fungal infections B. Herbicides C. Insect pests D. Drought

C. Insect pests

What is the first step in recombinant DNA technology? A. Inserting DNA into host B. Cutting DNA C. Selecting host D. Replicating DNA

B. Cutting DNA

Which of the following is NOT typically used as a host for gene cloning? A. E. coli B. Yeast C. Human cells D. Prions

D. Prions

DNA microarrays are used to: A. Visualize proteins B. Compare gene expression C. Synthesize RNA D. Isolate viruses

B. Compare gene expression

Somatic cell nuclear transfer is a technique used in: A. Protein engineering B. DNA fingerprinting C. Cloning D. Mutagenesis

C. Cloning

Which of the following techniques is used to create monoclonal antibodies? A. Electroporation B. Hybridoma technology C. Gene splicing D. PCR

B. Hybridoma technology

A bioreactor is used to: A. Amplify DNA B. Separate proteins C. Grow cells or microorganisms D. Transfer genes

C. Grow cells or microorganisms

In SDS-PAGE, what does SDS do to proteins? A. Stains them B. Gives them a uniform negative charge C. Breaks disulfide bonds D. Cleaves them into peptides

B. Gives them a uniform negative charge

A transgenic organism is one that: A. Has a deleted gene B. Contains DNA from another species C. Is a clone D. Has undergone natural mutation

B. Contains DNA from another species

What does 'expression vector' refer to? A. A tool for DNA sequencing B. A plasmid for protein production C. A virus used in immunization D. A method of gene silencing

B. A plasmid for protein production

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is commonly used in: A. Animal cell cloning B. Bacterial transformation C. Plant genetic engineering D. Vaccine production

C. Plant genetic engineering

What is the function of a reporter gene? A. Enhance replication B. Visualize gene expression C. Encode ribosomes D. Silence target genes

B. Visualize gene expression

What is the key advantage of using Taq polymerase in PCR? A. High speed B. Error correction C. Heat stability D. RNA binding

C. Heat stability

Which of the following best describes gene silencing? A. Enhancing gene expression B. Preventing gene expression C. Deleting genes D. Mutating genes

B. Preventing gene expression

The term 'biopharming' refers to: A. Producing drugs using genetically modified organisms B. Cultivating organic crops C. Fermenting alcohol D. Harvesting stem cells

A. Producing drugs using genetically modified organisms

RNA interference (RNAi) is a process used to: A. Amplify mRNA B. Insert new genes C. Silence specific mRNA D. Translate proteins

C. Silence specific mRNA

Which staining technique differentiates bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative? A. Acid-fast stain B. Gram stain C. Endospore stain D. Negative stain

B. Gram stain

What is the primary function of bacterial pili? A. DNA replication B. Locomotion C. Attachment to surfaces D. Nutrient absorption

C. Attachment to surfaces

Which of the following is a prokaryotic microorganism? A. Fungi B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. Algae

C. Bacteria

What structure allows bacteria to survive extreme conditions? A. Flagella B. Plasmid C. Endospore D. Capsule

C. Endospore

In which phase of bacterial growth is the rate of cell division highest? A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Stationary phase D. Death phase

B. Log phase

What is the purpose of Koch's postulates? A. Classify bacteria B. Develop vaccines C. Prove a microbe causes a disease D. Identify antibiotics

C. Prove a microbe causes a disease

Which component of bacterial cells is targeted by penicillin? A. Ribosomes B. DNA C. Cell wall D. Plasma membrane

C. Cell wall

Which of the following is NOT a method of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria? A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Conjugation D. Binary fission

D. Binary fission

The term 'obligate aerobe' refers to a microorganism that: A. Can live without oxygen B. Requires oxygen to survive C. Is killed by oxygen D. Uses carbon dioxide instead of oxygen

B. Requires oxygen to survive

Which of the following microorganisms causes tuberculosis? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus anthracis

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which structure is responsible for bacterial motility? A. Capsule B. Pili C. Flagella D. Endospore

C. Flagella

What type of microorganism is responsible for malaria? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Protozoan D. Fungi

C. Protozoan

What is the function of ribosomes in bacterial cells? A. Energy production B. Protein synthesis C. DNA replication D. Cell division

B. Protein synthesis

Which microorganism is used in the production of bread and alcohol? A. Lactobacillus B. Penicillium C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae D. Escherichia coli

C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

What is the outermost layer of a Gram-negative bacterium? A. Peptidoglycan B. Plasma membrane C. Outer membrane D. Capsule

C. Outer membrane

Which of the following is a viral disease? A. Tuberculosis B. Tetanus C. Influenza D. Syphilis

C. Influenza

The 'zone of inhibition' in an antibiotic sensitivity test indicates: A. Bacterial resistance B. Bacterial growth C. Effectiveness of the antibiotic D. Mutagenic properties

C. Effectiveness of the antibiotic

What does an obligate anaerobe require? A. Oxygen to survive B. Complete absence of oxygen C. Low pH D. Light exposure

B. Complete absence of oxygen

Which of the following is considered a eukaryotic microorganism? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Archaea D. Fungi

D. Fungi

Which molecule is unique to the bacterial cell wall? A. Cellulose B. Chitin C. Peptidoglycan D. Collagen

C. Peptidoglycan

Which method is used for sterilization of heat-sensitive materials? A. Autoclaving B. Incineration C. UV radiation D. Filtration

D. Filtration

What type of culture media allows the growth of specific microbes while inhibiting others? A. Differential media B. Enriched media C. Selective media D. Minimal media

C. Selective media

Which bacteria are known for nitrogen fixation? A. Clostridium B. Rhizobium C. Salmonella D. Vibrio

B. Rhizobium

The viral capsid is made of: A. Lipids B. Nucleic acids C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates

C. Proteins

In a bacterial growth curve, nutrient depletion leads to which phase? A. Lag B. Log C. Stationary D. Exponential

C. Stationary

The smallest infectious agents are: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Fungi D. Viruses

D. Viruses

Which microscopy technique is best for viewing live, unstained specimens? A. Electron microscopy B. Bright-field C. Dark-field D. Fluorescence microscopy

C. Dark-field

Which enzyme is essential for the replication of retroviruses? A. RNA polymerase B. DNA ligase C. Reverse transcriptase D. Helicase

C. Reverse transcriptase

The process of heat-treating milk to kill harmful bacteria is called: A. Sterilization B. Fermentation C. Pasteurization D. Filtration

C. Pasteurization

Which genus includes bacteria that produce endospores? A. Escherichia B. Staphylococcus C. Bacillus D. Pseudomonas

C. Bacillus

Which fluid property determines the internal friction in the fluid when it flows? A. Density B. Viscosity C. Surface Tension D. Pressure

B. Viscosity

What is the SI unit of dynamic viscosity? A. Pascal-second B. Poise C. N·m D. kg/m³

A. Pascal-second

Which principle explains the pressure decrease when fluid velocity increases? A. Bernoulli’s principle B. Archimedes’ principle C. Pascal’s law D. Boyle’s law

A. Bernoulli’s principle

What does Reynolds number help determine in fluid dynamics? A. Heat capacity B. Phase change C. Laminar vs turbulent flow D. Compressibility

C. Laminar vs turbulent flow

Which of the following is a measure of a fluid’s resistance to flow? A. Density B. Viscosity C. Pressure D. Temperature

B. Viscosity

Capillary rise is due to which fluid property? A. Density B. Compressibility C. Surface tension D. Pressure

C. Surface tension

What is the behavior of an ideal fluid? A. High viscosity B. Incompressible and no viscosity C. Highly compressible D. Low surface tension

B. Incompressible and no viscosity

Which of the following fluids has the highest viscosity at room temperature? A. Water B. Ethanol C. Glycerol D. Air

C. Glycerol

What happens to surface tension as temperature increases? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains constant D. Doubles

B. Decreases

Which factor most significantly affects a fluid’s density? A. Color B. Pressure and Temperature C. Flow rate D. Viscosity

B. Pressure and Temperature

What is a Newtonian fluid? A. A fluid whose viscosity changes with stress B. A fluid with constant viscosity C. A compressible fluid D. A fluid with surface tension

B. A fluid with constant viscosity

Which of the following best describes turbulent flow? A. Smooth, parallel layers B. Chaotic, irregular flow C. Static fluid D. Flow with zero velocity

B. Chaotic, irregular flow

Which device is commonly used to measure fluid pressure? A. Thermometer B. Manometer C. Barometer D. Viscometer

B. Manometer

In Poiseuille’s law, the flow rate is directly proportional to which power of the radius of the tube? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3

C. 4

Which fluid property affects the height of a liquid column in a capillary tube? A. Pressure B. Density C. Surface tension D. Viscosity

C. Surface tension

Which unit is commonly used for measuring kinematic viscosity? A. m²/s B. Pa·s C. N/m² D. kg/m³

A. m²/s

Which type of fluid flow is described by layers sliding past each other without mixing? A. Turbulent B. Rotational C. Laminar D. Uniform

C. Laminar

Which physical property determines whether a fluid floats or sinks in another fluid? A. Viscosity B. Density C. Surface tension D. Volume

B. Density

What does a high Reynolds number generally indicate? A. Laminar flow B. Turbulent flow C. Compressible fluid D. Inviscid flow

B. Turbulent flow

The Navier-Stokes equations describe which behavior of fluids? A. Boiling B. Equilibrium C. Motion and flow D. Freezing

C. Motion and flow

What is the primary force responsible for surface tension? A. Gravitational force B. Electrostatic force C. Cohesive intermolecular forces D. Magnetic force

C. Cohesive intermolecular forces

Which phenomenon describes the upward flow of liquid against gravity in a narrow space? A. Surface tension B. Capillary action C. Viscous drag D. Convection

B. Capillary action

A viscometer measures which property of a fluid? A. Surface tension B. Compressibility C. Viscosity D. Density

C. Viscosity

Which of the following represents a dimensionless number in fluid mechanics? A. Newton B. Joule C. Reynolds number D. Pascal

C. Reynolds number

Compressibility of a fluid is defined as the change in volume with respect to which factor? A. Temperature B. Pressure C. Viscosity D. Velocity

B. Pressure

At what condition does a fluid become incompressible? A. High temperature B. High pressure C. Constant volume D. Low Mach number

D. Low Mach number

Which property determines the height of liquid in a barometer? A. Viscosity B. Surface tension C. Density D. Atmospheric pressure

D. Atmospheric pressure

What does a low Reynolds number typically signify? A. High turbulence B. Laminar flow C. High viscosity D. Surface waves

B. Laminar flow

Which of these is NOT a property of an ideal fluid? A. Incompressibility B. No viscosity C. Surface tension D. No thermal conductivity

C. Surface tension

Which equation explains the conservation of mass in fluid flow? A. Bernoulli’s equation B. Continuity equation C. Clausius equation D. Maxwell’s relation

B. Continuity equation

Which law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed? A. Zeroth Law B. First Law C. Second Law D. Third Law

B. First Law

The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics is primarily concerned with which concept? A. Entropy B. Energy conservation C. Thermal equilibrium D. Heat flow

C. Thermal equilibrium

What does the Second Law of Thermodynamics state about entropy in an isolated system? A. Entropy always decreases B. Entropy remains constant C. Entropy always increases D. Entropy is unpredictable

C. Entropy always increases

Which statement best describes the Third Law of Thermodynamics? A. The entropy of a perfect crystal is zero at absolute zero temperature B. Energy can be completely converted to work C. Heat flows from cold to hot bodies D. All processes are reversible

A. The entropy of a perfect crystal is zero at absolute zero temperature

Which thermodynamic law introduces the concept of internal energy (U)? A. Zeroth Law B. First Law C. Second Law D. Third Law

B. First Law

Which quantity remains constant in an adiabatic process? A. Volume B. Pressure C. Heat exchange D. Temperature

C. Heat exchange

In a cyclic process, the net change in internal energy is: A. Maximum B. Zero C. Equal to work done D. Equal to heat supplied

B. Zero

Which of the following represents the mathematical form of the First Law of Thermodynamics? A. Q = W B. ΔU = Q - W C. ΔS = Q/T D. Q = mcΔT

B. ΔU = Q - W

What is the primary implication of the Second Law of Thermodynamics for heat engines? A. 100% efficiency is possible B. Some energy is always lost as heat C. Work can be completely converted to heat D. Heat can be transferred without a temperature difference

B. Some energy is always lost as heat

Which of the following devices operates on the Second Law of Thermodynamics? A. Thermometer B. Heat engine C. Manometer D. Barometer

B. Heat engine

What is defined as the condition where multiple phases of a substance coexist in equilibrium? A. Phase rule B. Phase equilibrium C. Triple point D. Critical point

B. Phase equilibrium

Which point represents the temperature and pressure at which all three phases coexist in equilibrium? A. Critical point B. Boiling point C. Triple point D. Melting point

C. Triple point

What does the phase rule (F = C - P + 2) describe? A. Pressure variation B. Number of phases possible C. Degrees of freedom D. Phase diagram slope

C. Degrees of freedom

In a one-component system, how many degrees of freedom exist at the triple point? A. 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. 3

C. 0

Which term refers to the highest temperature at which a substance can exist as a liquid? A. Freezing point B. Triple point C. Critical temperature D. Boiling point

C. Critical temperature

At the critical point, what happens to the distinction between liquid and gas phases? A. Becomes clearer B. Disappears C. Increases D. Doubles

B. Disappears

In a phase diagram, what does the line between solid and liquid represent? A. Sublimation B. Melting curve C. Vaporization D. Condensation

B. Melting curve

Which phase transition involves a direct conversion from solid to gas? A. Melting B. Sublimation C. Condensation D. Freezing

B. Sublimation

Which factor increases the boiling point of a liquid? A. Decreased pressure B. Increased altitude C. Increased pressure D. Lower temperature

C. Increased pressure

What is the term for a substance that exists in more than one crystalline form? A. Polymorph B. Isobar C. Isotope D. Allotrope

A. Polymorph

Which phase diagram feature represents conditions under which a substance can exist in both liquid and vapor states? A. Sublimation curve B. Fusion line C. Vapor pressure curve D. Triple point

C. Vapor pressure curve

Which of the following is a key assumption in phase equilibrium? A. All phases have different temperature B. Pressure varies across phases C. Chemical potential is equal in all phases D. Volume remains constant

C. Chemical potential is equal in all phases

What type of system does the phase rule apply to? A. Closed systems only B. Open systems only C. Equilibrium systems D. Isolated systems only

C. Equilibrium systems

What phase transition occurs when a gas becomes a solid without passing through the liquid phase? A. Condensation B. Freezing C. Sublimation D. Deposition

D. Deposition

What is the critical pressure of a substance? A. The pressure required to solidify a gas B. The pressure needed to liquefy a gas at critical temperature C. The pressure at absolute zero D. The vapor pressure at melting point

B. The pressure needed to liquefy a gas at critical temperature

How many phases are present at the triple point of water? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4

C. 3

Which factor can shift the phase boundaries in a phase diagram? A. Volume B. Entropy C. Temperature and pressure D. Chemical composition

C. Temperature and pressure

Which technique is used to determine solid-liquid equilibrium in a binary mixture? A. UV-Vis spectroscopy B. X-ray diffraction C. Differential Scanning Calorimetry D. Polarimetry

C. Differential Scanning Calorimetry

In a binary phase diagram, what does a eutectic point indicate? A. Highest boiling point B. Point where maximum solid forms C. Lowest temperature where liquid exists D. Complete solubility

C. Lowest temperature where liquid exists

Which of the following is a single-component system in phase equilibrium? A. Ice-water-steam system B. Salt solution C. Air mixture D. Sugar solution

A. Ice-water-steam system

At equilibrium, the chemical potential of a substance is: A. Maximum in the solid B. Different in all phases C. Equal in all phases D. Dependent on mass

C. Equal in all phases

The slope of the solid-liquid equilibrium line for water is: A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Undefined

B. Negative

Which of the following is true at the boiling point? A. Vapor pressure = external pressure B. Density is maximum C. Heat is released D. Freezing occurs

A. Vapor pressure = external pressure

The term 'supercritical fluid' refers to a substance: A. Below melting point B. Beyond the triple point C. Above its critical temperature and pressure D. At constant pressure

C. Above its critical temperature and pressure

Which component of a phase diagram represents vapor pressure? A. Fusion line B. Sublimation curve C. Vaporization curve D. Isothermal line

C. Vaporization curve

What defines a metastable phase? A. Permanent and stable B. Non-equilibrium but temporarily stable C. Unstable and rapidly changing D. Exists only at critical point

B. Non-equilibrium but temporarily stable

Which of the following does not affect phase equilibrium? A. Pressure B. Temperature C. Surface area D. Composition

C. Surface area

In a multicomponent system, the phase rule is modified as: A. F = C - P + 1 B. F = C - P C. F = C - P + 2 D. F = P - C + 2

C. F = C - P + 2

A peritectic reaction involves which of the following? A. Liquid to two solids B. Solid + liquid to new solid C. Solid to gas directly D. Gas to two liquids

B. Solid + liquid to new solid

The lever rule in phase diagrams is used to determine: A. Temperature B. Phase type C. Phase compositions D. Critical point

C. Phase compositions

Which of the following is not a colligative property? A. Vapor pressure lowering B. Boiling point elevation C. Color change D. Freezing point depression

C. Color change

Colligative properties depend on which of the following? A. Nature of solute B. Concentration of solute particles C. Molecular weight of solvent D. Type of solvent

B. Concentration of solute particles

Which formula represents boiling point elevation? A. ΔT_b = iK_bm B. ΔT_f = K_fm C. P = nRT/V D. π = iCRT

A. ΔT_b = iK_bm

What is the van’t Hoff factor (i) for NaCl in aqueous solution? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. 2

Which expression defines osmotic pressure (π)? A. π = K_bm B. π = iCRT C. π = iK_fm D. π = nRT/P

B. π = iCRT

Which colligative property is used to determine molar mass of large molecules? A. Freezing point depression B. Boiling point elevation C. Osmotic pressure D. Vapor pressure lowering

C. Osmotic pressure

The freezing point of a solution is lower than that of the pure solvent because: A. Solute raises the freezing point B. Vapor pressure increases C. Solute interferes with solid formation D. Temperature decreases

C. Solute interferes with solid formation

Which of the following solutes will produce the greatest boiling point elevation in 1 molal solution? A. Glucose B. NaCl C. CaCl₂ D. Urea

C. CaCl₂

What is the unit of molality? A. mol/L B. mol/kg C. g/mol D. kg/mol

B. mol/kg

Which factor affects vapor pressure lowering? A. Type of solute B. Solute concentration C. Solvent mass D. System volume

B. Solute concentration

How does adding a non-volatile solute affect the vapor pressure of a solvent? A. Increases it B. Decreases it C. No effect D. Converts solvent to solid

B. Decreases it

Which law explains the vapor pressure lowering due to solute addition? A. Raoult's law B. Henry's law C. Boyle’s law D. Charles’s law

A. Raoult's law

What is the boiling point elevation constant (K_b) specific to? A. Solute B. Temperature C. Solvent D. Pressure

C. Solvent

Freezing point depression is directly proportional to: A. Solvent volume B. Molarity C. Molality D. Density

C. Molality

The greater the number of dissolved particles, the: A. Higher the vapor pressure B. Greater the colligative effect C. Lower the osmotic pressure D. Less the freezing point depression

B. Greater the colligative effect

Electrolyte solutions show greater colligative effects due to: A. Chemical reactivity B. Ion dissociation C. Surface tension D. Low density

B. Ion dissociation

Which condition leads to deviation from ideal colligative behavior? A. Dilute solutions B. Non-volatile solutes C. Ion pairing D. Ideal gases

C. Ion pairing

In osmosis, solvent flows from: A. Lower to higher solute concentration B. Higher to lower solute concentration C. Equal concentration sides D. Solute to solvent directly

A. Lower to higher solute concentration

Colligative properties apply to which type of solutions? A. Only ionic B. Non-ideal C. Dilute D. Supersaturated

C. Dilute

Which of the following has the least effect on freezing point depression? A. NaCl B. CaCl₂ C. C₆H₁₂O₆ D. KNO₃

C. C₆H₁₂O₆

Van’t Hoff factor accounts for: A. Solubility B. Ionization or association C. Temperature effects D. Polarity

B. Ionization or association

Reverse osmosis is used in: A. Ice formation B. Desalination C. Decomposition D. Saturation

B. Desalination

For non-electrolytes, the van’t Hoff factor (i) is: A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. >1

B. 1

Which property is useful in determining molar mass of polymers? A. Freezing point depression B. Boiling point elevation C. Osmotic pressure D. Vapor pressure lowering

C. Osmotic pressure

Colligative properties arise from: A. Solute mass B. Nature of solvent C. Number of solute particles D. Heat capacity

C. Number of solute particles

Addition of solute affects solvent properties due to: A. Colligative interactions B. Surface adsorption C. Molecular weight change D. pH shift

A. Colligative interactions

Which of these solutes would cause the largest change in boiling point for a given molality? A. NaCl B. Glucose C. MgCl₂ D. Sucrose

C. MgCl₂

Osmotic pressure increases with: A. Higher solute mass B. Lower volume C. Higher temperature D. Smaller solute particles

C. Higher temperature

The depression of vapor pressure is proportional to: A. Mole fraction of solute B. Molality C. Molarity D. Normality

A. Mole fraction of solute

What happens to osmotic pressure if solute concentration doubles? A. Halves B. Doubles C. Triples D. Remains constant

B. Doubles

What does the term 'enthalpy' represent in thermochemistry? A. Total kinetic energy B. Heat content at constant pressure C. Gibbs free energy D. Internal energy at constant volume

B. Heat content at constant pressure

Which of the following is an exothermic process? A. Melting of ice B. Vaporization of water C. Combustion of methane D. Boiling ethanol

C. Combustion of methane

What is the sign of ΔH for an endothermic reaction? A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Undefined

A. Positive

Which law states that enthalpy change is independent of the pathway? A. Hess’s Law B. Boyle’s Law C. Raoult’s Law D. Charles’s Law

A. Hess’s Law

What is the standard enthalpy of formation for an element in its standard state? A. 1 B. 0 C. -1 D. Depends on the element

B. 0

Which of the following has the highest molar enthalpy of vaporization? A. Water B. Ethanol C. Methane D. Benzene

A. Water

What unit is commonly used for enthalpy? A. atm B. J/mol C. g/L D. mol/m³

B. J/mol

When calculating enthalpy change using bond energies, which step comes first? A. Subtract bond energies of products from reactants B. Add bond energies of products C. Add bond energies of reactants D. Find average atomic mass

C. Add bond energies of reactants

Which reaction type typically has negative enthalpy? A. Decomposition B. Neutralization C. Photosynthesis D. Evaporation

B. Neutralization

Which of the following affects the enthalpy change of a reaction? A. Pressure B. Temperature C. State of reactants and products D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following statements is true about exothermic reactions? A. Heat is absorbed B. Products have higher enthalpy than reactants C. Enthalpy change is positive D. Heat is released to the surroundings

D. Heat is released to the surroundings

Which instrument is used to measure heat changes in a reaction? A. Thermometer B. Barometer C. Calorimeter D. Spectrophotometer

C. Calorimeter

What does a bomb calorimeter measure? A. Constant pressure heat B. Heat at constant volume C. Electrical energy D. Gas pressure

B. Heat at constant volume

The heat capacity of a substance depends on: A. Mass and temperature B. Mass and specific heat C. Pressure and density D. Volume and temperature

B. Mass and specific heat

A reaction with ΔH = -500 kJ is: A. Endothermic B. Exothermic C. Isothermal D. Thermoneutral

B. Exothermic

Which of the following processes is endothermic? A. Condensation B. Freezing C. Melting D. Combustion

C. Melting

The enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid and strong base is approximately: A. -57 kJ/mol B. +57 kJ/mol C. 0 kJ/mol D. -120 kJ/mol

A. -57 kJ/mol

Standard state conditions include: A. 1 atm, 298 K B. 1 atm, 273 K C. 1 bar, 300 K D. 1 atm, 0 °C

A. 1 atm, 298 K

What does ΔH_f° stand for? A. Enthalpy of fuel B. Formation enthalpy C. Final enthalpy D. Heat flux

B. Formation enthalpy

What is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of liquid water freezes at 0°C? A. 0 B. -6.01 kJ/mol C. +6.01 kJ/mol D. -40.6 kJ/mol

B. -6.01 kJ/mol

Which of the following processes increases entropy? A. Freezing B. Condensation C. Sublimation D. Compression

C. Sublimation

The heat absorbed or released in a reaction at constant pressure is known as: A. Internal energy B. Work C. Enthalpy change D. Entropy

C. Enthalpy change

In a calorimetry experiment, the total heat released by the system is: A. Gained by the surroundings B. Lost to the air C. Stored in the system D. Equal to zero

A. Gained by the surroundings

Which of the following reactions would have the most negative ΔH? A. Freezing water B. Combustion of hydrogen C. Dissolution of sugar D. Boiling water

B. Combustion of hydrogen

The specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the heat required to raise the temperature of: A. 1 mol by 1°C B. 1 kg by 1°C C. 1 g by 1°C D. 1 L by 1°C

C. 1 g by 1°C

The enthalpy change when 1 mol of a compound is formed from its elements under standard conditions is called: A. Standard heat of formation B. Heat of combustion C. Heat of reaction D. Activation energy

A. Standard heat of formation

If heat is absorbed from the surroundings, the reaction is: A. Exothermic B. Spontaneous C. Endothermic D. Neutral

C. Endothermic

Which of the following has a standard enthalpy of formation of zero? A. O₂(g) B. CO₂(g) C. H₂O(l) D. CH₄(g)

A. O₂(g)

What is the energy change when water vapor condenses to liquid? A. Energy is absorbed B. No energy change C. Energy is released D. Energy doubles

C. Energy is released

The total enthalpy change of a reaction can be calculated by: A. Subtracting ΔH products from ΔH reactants B. Adding ΔH of all products C. Multiplying ΔH by temperature D. Subtracting entropy from enthalpy

A. Subtracting ΔH products from ΔH reactants

What does the first law of thermodynamics state? A. Energy is always lost B. Energy cannot be created or destroyed C. Heat flows from cold to hot D. Entropy remains constant

B. Energy cannot be created or destroyed

In an endothermic reaction, the system: A. Releases heat B. Absorbs heat C. Compresses D. Expands

B. Absorbs heat

A process at constant pressure is called: A. Isochoric B. Isothermal C. Adiabatic D. Isobaric

D. Isobaric

The change in internal energy (ΔU) is given by: A. q + w B. q - w C. w - q D. q × w

A. q + w

Which process has no heat exchange with the surroundings? A. Isothermal B. Adiabatic C. Isobaric D. Isochoric

B. Adiabatic

In which reaction is enthalpy change always negative? A. Decomposition B. Combustion C. Photosynthesis D. Vaporization

B. Combustion

The heat released or absorbed at constant volume is: A. Enthalpy B. Work C. Internal energy D. Pressure

C. Internal energy

Which equation is used in bomb calorimetry? A. q = mcΔT B. q = mL C. q = ΔU + PΔV D. q = nRT

A. q = mcΔT

Which substance has the highest specific heat capacity? A. Copper B. Aluminum C. Water D. Iron

C. Water

Enthalpy change for a reverse reaction is: A. Equal and opposite B. Half C. Double D. Zero

A. Equal and opposite

What is standard enthalpy change of combustion? A. Heat released by dissolving a solute B. Heat released by burning 1 mole of a substance C. Heat used to form a compound D. Heat at phase change

B. Heat released by burning 1 mole of a substance

When a gas expands, it usually: A. Gains heat B. Does work on surroundings C. Loses volume D. Becomes colder

B. Does work on surroundings

Heat of neutralization involves reaction between: A. Metal and acid B. Acid and base C. Salt and water D. Gas and liquid

B. Acid and base

Which of these statements is correct? A. ΔH = q at constant pressure B. ΔH = w at constant volume C. ΔH = ΔS × T D. ΔH = 0 for all reactions

A. ΔH = q at constant pressure

Specific heat is: A. Same for all substances B. Energy required to change state C. Energy to raise 1 g by 1°C D. Equal to molar heat capacity

C. Energy to raise 1 g by 1°C

During an exothermic reaction, the temperature of the surroundings: A. Decreases B. Increases C. Stays the same D. Becomes negative

B. Increases

Which factor does NOT affect the enthalpy of a reaction? A. Physical state of reactants B. Concentration C. Temperature D. Time of reaction

D. Time of reaction

Work is said to be done by a system when: A. Gas is compressed B. Volume increases C. Pressure decreases D. Heat is added

B. Volume increases

The symbol 'q' in thermochemistry represents: A. Work B. Pressure C. Heat D. Temperature

C. Heat

Energy transferred due to temperature difference is called: A. Work B. Power C. Entropy D. Heat

D. Heat

What is the main purpose of coagulation in water treatment? A. Remove hardness B. Kill pathogens C. Destabilize and aggregate suspended particles D. Remove dissolved gases

Destabilize and aggregate suspended particles

Which chemical is commonly used as a coagulant in water treatment? A. Chlorine B. Alum (Aluminum sulfate) C. Sodium hydroxide D. Carbon dioxide

Alum (Aluminum sulfate)

What is the primary function of a sedimentation tank? A. Kill bacteria B. Mix chemicals C. Allow suspended solids to settle D. Aerate the water

Allow suspended solids to settle

Which of the following processes is used to remove hardness from water? A. Coagulation B. Ion exchange C. Sedimentation D. Filtration

Ion exchange

Granular activated carbon in water treatment is primarily used for: A. Killing microorganisms B. Removing turbidity C. Adsorbing organic contaminants D. Softening water

Adsorbing organic contaminants

Which disinfectant is most commonly used in municipal water treatment plants? A. Ozone B. UV light C. Chlorine D. Hydrogen peroxide

Chlorine

What is the purpose of aeration in water treatment? A. To add chlorine B. To remove taste and odor C. To remove heavy metals D. To sterilize water

To remove taste and odor

Membrane filtration methods like reverse osmosis are effective in removing: A. Bacteria and viruses B. Only large particles C. Only dissolved gases D. Chlorine

Bacteria and viruses

Slow sand filters differ from rapid sand filters by: A. Having a coagulant added B. Using finer sand C. Relying on biological activity D. Being faster

Relying on biological activity

Backwashing in filter units is done to: A. Remove hardness B. Restore filter capacity C. Disinfect the filter D. Add chemicals

Restore filter capacity

Which advanced treatment is commonly used to remove pharmaceuticals from wastewater? A. Chlorination B. Ozonation C. Sedimentation D. Aeration

Ozonation

Which unit operation typically follows coagulation and flocculation? A. Aeration B. Sedimentation C. Disinfection D. Ion exchange

Sedimentation

Fluoridation of drinking water is done to: A. Improve taste B. Reduce microbial contamination C. Prevent dental cavities D. Softening

Prevent dental cavities

What is the primary concern of chlorination byproducts like trihalomethanes (THMs)? A. They cause scaling B. They are carcinogenic C. They make water hard D. They cause corrosion

They are carcinogenic

UV disinfection is preferred in some systems because it: A. Leaves residual protection B. Produces no harmful byproducts C. Is cheaper than chlorination D. Removes heavy metals

Produces no harmful byproducts

Which method is most effective in desalinating seawater? A. Sedimentation B. Chlorination C. Reverse osmosis D. Filtration

Reverse osmosis

Biological treatment in wastewater plants is primarily used to: A. Disinfect water B. Remove heavy metals C. Break down organic matter D. Adjust pH

Break down organic matter

What role does lime play in water softening? A. Raises pH and precipitates hardness ions B. Lowers pH C. Acts as a disinfectant D. Removes turbidity

Raises pH and precipitates hardness ions

Which of the following is used to measure turbidity in water? A. Spectrophotometer B. Nephelometer C. pH meter D. Turbine flow meter

Nephelometer

Which type of sedimentation tank has inclined plates to increase surface area? A. Clarifier B. Flocculator C. Lamella clarifier D. Aeration basin

Lamella clarifier

A trickling filter is a type of: A. Physical filter B. Chemical reactor C. Biological treatment D. Membrane filter

Biological treatment

Filtration through activated carbon removes contaminants primarily through: A. Sedimentation B. Adsorption C. Ion exchange D. Biodegradation

Adsorption

In water treatment, 'breakpoint chlorination' refers to: A. Minimum chlorine dose B. Chlorine level that oxidizes all ammonia C. Chlorine needed to lower pH D. Point where chlorine precipitates

Chlorine level that oxidizes all ammonia

Which of the following is not a disinfection method? A. UV radiation B. Ozone C. Filtration D. Chlorine

Filtration

What is the main limitation of UV disinfection? A. Too costly B. Not effective against viruses C. Requires clear water D. Forms toxic byproducts

Requires clear water

The sludge produced in water treatment is often disposed by: A. Burning B. Direct discharge into rivers C. Landfilling or composting D. Reuse in drinking water

Landfilling or composting

In a dual media filter, which materials are commonly used? A. Sand and clay B. Coal and gravel C. Anthracite and sand D. Silt and carbon

Anthracite and sand

What is the function of a flocculator? A. Kill bacteria B. Aggregate particles into flocs C. Remove dissolved salts D. Add oxygen

Aggregate particles into flocs

Reverse osmosis membranes are typically made from: A. PVC B. Polyamide C. Polyester D. Cellulose nitrate

Polyamide

Which technique is used for arsenic removal from drinking water? A. Activated carbon B. Ion exchange C. Membrane bioreactor D. Ultrafiltration

Ion exchange

What does BOD stand for in environmental analysis? A. Biological Oxygen Demand B. Basic Organic Density C. Biological Oxidation Duration D. Biodegradable Organic Deposition

Biological Oxygen Demand

What is the standard duration for measuring BOD in a laboratory test? A. 5 days B. 7 days C. 3 days D. 10 days

5 days

What is the main purpose of BOD testing in wastewater? A. To determine nutrient content B. To assess biodegradable organic matter C. To identify metal contaminants D. To measure pH

To assess biodegradable organic matter

COD measures the amount of oxygen required to: A. Oxidize biodegradable organics B. Disinfect water C. Oxidize both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organics D. Aerate water

Oxidize both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organics

Which chemical is used as an oxidizing agent in COD determination? A. Sodium hypochlorite B. Potassium dichromate C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Chlorine

Potassium dichromate

What does a high BOD value indicate about the water sample? A. Low pollution B. Low organic load C. High organic pollution D. Low microbial activity

High organic pollution

Why is BOD considered a critical parameter in wastewater management? A. It determines heavy metal concentration B. It reflects organic pollution levels affecting aquatic life C. It measures water temperature D. It assesses chlorination effectiveness

It reflects organic pollution levels affecting aquatic life

In the BOD test, why is the sample incubated in darkness? A. To prevent algae growth B. To speed up reaction C. To reduce temperature D. To avoid oxidation

To prevent algae growth

What is the unit of measurement for both BOD and COD? A. mg/L B. ppm C. mol/L D. mg/kg

mg/L

What is the typical BOD5 value for untreated domestic sewage? A. 10–20 mg/L B. 200–400 mg/L C. 500–700 mg/L D. 800–1000 mg/L

200–400 mg/L

COD is usually higher than BOD because: A. It ignores organic matter B. It uses bacteria C. It measures all oxidizable matter D. It is less accurate

It measures all oxidizable matter

What is the main limitation of the BOD test? A. It is too fast B. It cannot measure organics C. It takes several days and only captures biodegradable organics D. It uses expensive reagents

It takes several days and only captures biodegradable organics

What is added to a BOD test sample to neutralize chlorine? A. Sodium chloride B. Sulfuric acid C. Sodium sulfite D. Ammonia

Sodium sulfite

Which factor can falsely lower BOD readings? A. Excess nutrients B. Temperature increase C. Toxic substances that inhibit microbes D. High DO concentration

Toxic substances that inhibit microbes

What role do seed organisms play in BOD tests? A. Consume nutrients B. Measure DO C. Oxidize the organic matter D. Control pH

Oxidize the organic matter

Theoretical Oxygen Demand (ThOD) is: A. A measured value B. The same as COD C. Calculated based on chemical composition D. Used to determine pH

Calculated based on chemical composition

Which indicator is used to detect the end point in COD titration? A. Phenolphthalein B. Ferroin C. Methyl orange D. Eriochrome black T

Ferroin

What substance is typically added to COD samples to remove chloride interference? A. Barium sulfate B. Silver sulfate C. Sodium nitrate D. Zinc chloride

Silver sulfate

What is the implication of a low BOD/COD ratio in a wastewater sample? A. Water is nutrient-rich B. High biodegradability C. Low biodegradability D. Alkaline water

Low biodegradability

In a COD test, heating is typically done at: A. 60°C B. 80°C C. 100°C D. 150°C

150°C

What is the preferred method for determining dissolved oxygen in BOD testing? A. Turbidity meter B. Winkler titration C. Spectrophotometry D. Ion-selective electrode

Winkler titration

How does nitrification affect BOD measurements? A. Increases DO B. Lowers pH C. Increases BOD value D. Removes turbidity

Increases BOD value

Which substance is added to suppress nitrification in BOD testing? A. Nitrate B. Allylthiourea C. Chloride D. Sulfur dioxide

Allylthiourea

Which type of wastewater typically has a high BOD/COD ratio? A. Petrochemical effluent B. Municipal sewage C. Industrial solvent waste D. Landfill leachate

Municipal sewage

COD testing is preferable when: A. Rapid analysis is needed B. Exact biodegradability is required C. Heavy metals must be detected D. Water is already treated

Rapid analysis is needed

In COD analysis, what is the function of sulfuric acid? A. Precipitates solids B. Prevents foaming C. Maintains acidic conditions for oxidation D. Acts as oxidizing agent

Maintains acidic conditions for oxidation

What is a typical COD value for untreated domestic wastewater? A. 20–50 mg/L B. 100–200 mg/L C. 300–600 mg/L D. 800–1000 mg/L

300–600 mg/L

Which is a typical BOD:COD ratio for biodegradable wastewater? A. 0.2 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 0.8

0.6

High COD levels in water can indicate: A. High oxygen concentration B. High levels of oxidizable pollutants C. Alkalinity D. Disinfection

High levels of oxidizable pollutants

BOD and COD are critical in environmental engineering because they: A. Measure toxicity B. Indicate nutrient levels C. Evaluate organic pollution load D. Predict temperature trends

Evaluate organic pollution load

What does 'carbon footprint' primarily measure? A. Water usage B. Air pollution levels C. Total greenhouse gas emissions in CO2 equivalents D. Solid waste generation

Total greenhouse gas emissions in CO2 equivalents

Which activity contributes the most to an individual’s carbon footprint in developed countries? A. Electricity usage B. Water consumption C. Transportation D. Waste disposal

Transportation

What is the average annual carbon footprint per person in the United States (as of 2020 estimates)? A. 2 tons CO2e B. 5 tons CO2e C. 16 tons CO2e D. 25 tons CO2e

16 tons CO2e

Which of the following fuels has the highest CO2 emissions per unit energy? A. Natural gas B. Coal C. Diesel D. Gasoline

Coal

What is the primary greenhouse gas included in carbon footprint calculations? A. Methane B. Nitrous oxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Ozone

Carbon dioxide

Which gas has a higher global warming potential (GWP) than CO2? A. Nitrogen B. Methane C. Oxygen D. Carbon monoxide

Methane

What is the Global Warming Potential (GWP) of methane over 100 years? A. 1 B. 10 C. 25 D. 100

Which of the following actions reduces carbon footprint the most? A. Recycling paper B. Installing energy-efficient bulbs C. Eating a plant-based diet D. Avoiding short flights

Eating a plant-based diet

What is a carbon offset? A. Reduction in taxes for eco-friendly companies B. Investment in projects that reduce or capture greenhouse gases C. Penalty for carbon emissions D. Measurement unit for emissions

Investment in projects that reduce or capture greenhouse gases

Which industrial sector contributes the most to global CO2 emissions? A. Agriculture B. Residential C. Transportation D. Energy production

Energy production

Which of the following would decrease a product’s carbon footprint? A. Longer supply chains B. Single-use packaging C. Local sourcing of materials D. Fossil-fuel transportation

Local sourcing of materials

How does afforestation impact carbon footprint? A. Increases it B. Neutral effect C. Reduces it by capturing CO2 D. Only affects biodiversity

Reduces it by capturing CO2

Which of the following practices in agriculture helps reduce carbon footprint? A. Intensive tillage B. Cover cropping C. Excess fertilization D. Monoculture

Cover cropping

Which is a key strategy to reduce household carbon emissions? A. Using incandescent bulbs B. Switching to LED lighting C. Increasing thermostat settings in winter D. Installing electric heaters

Switching to LED lighting

What is the carbon footprint of producing 1 kg of beef approximately? A. 2 kg CO2e B. 6 kg CO2e C. 15 kg CO2e D. 27 kg CO2e

27 kg CO2e

Which international agreement aims to limit global carbon emissions? A. Kyoto Protocol B. Basel Convention C. Stockholm Convention D. Vienna Convention

Kyoto Protocol

Which lifestyle change has one of the greatest effects on personal carbon footprint? A. Using reusable bags B. Driving less C. Having one fewer child D. Composting

Having one fewer child

Electric vehicles help reduce carbon footprint mainly by: A. Using plastic parts B. Reducing noise C. Using no fossil fuels directly D. Having smaller engines

Using no fossil fuels directly

What does 'carbon neutral' mean? A. No emissions at all B. Balanced emissions with offsets or reductions C. Only CO2 is emitted D. Carbon monoxide is avoided

Balanced emissions with offsets or reductions

Which of the following transportation modes has the lowest carbon footprint per passenger kilometer? A. Airplane B. Private car C. Bus D. Train

Train

Which metric is often used to express national carbon footprints? A. Carbon per square meter B. Tons of CO2e per capita C. Carbon credits D. Carbon ppm

Tons of CO2e per capita

Which type of diet generally contributes to a lower carbon footprint? A. Carnivorous B. Omnivorous C. Lacto-vegetarian D. Plant-based vegan

Plant-based vegan

Why does concrete production contribute significantly to carbon emissions? A. It requires large amounts of water B. It uses non-renewable aggregates C. It releases CO2 during cement production D. It consumes electricity only

It releases CO2 during cement production

Which gas is used as the reference for calculating Global Warming Potential (GWP)? A. Methane B. Carbon dioxide C. Nitrous oxide D. Ozone

Carbon dioxide

Which sector contributes the most methane to the global carbon footprint? A. Transportation B. Waste C. Agriculture D. Manufacturing

Agriculture

How does improving home insulation affect carbon footprint? A. Increases emissions B. Has no impact C. Reduces heating/cooling needs and emissions D. Requires more energy

Reduces heating/cooling needs and emissions

Why is air travel considered carbon-intensive? A. It emits only water vapor B. It uses renewable fuels C. It emits large amounts of CO2 per passenger D. It does not emit CO2

It emits large amounts of CO2 per passenger

Which renewable energy source has the lowest carbon footprint during operation? A. Natural gas B. Hydropower C. Coal D. Solar PV

Solar PV

What does the term 'embodied carbon' refer to? A. Carbon stored in forests B. Carbon in soil C. Carbon emitted during manufacturing of a product D. Carbon absorbed by oceans

Carbon emitted during manufacturing of a product

How does carpooling help reduce carbon footprint? A. Reduces fuel efficiency B. Increases traffic C. Spreads emissions among more people D. Has no effect

Spreads emissions among more people

What is the main goal of climate change mitigation? A. Prevent acid rain B. Stop all pollution C. Reduce greenhouse gas emissions D. Increase fossil fuel use

Reduce greenhouse gas emissions

Which international agreement aims to limit global warming to below 2°C? A. Montreal Protocol B. Paris Agreement C. Kyoto Protocol D. Geneva Convention

Paris Agreement

Carbon pricing is a mitigation strategy that: A. Subsidizes fossil fuels B. Taxes carbon emissions or sets cap-and-trade limits C. Removes carbon from the air D. Measures temperature changes

Taxes carbon emissions or sets cap-and-trade limits

Which sector is the largest contributor to global CO2 emissions? A. Residential B. Energy production C. Forestry D. Transportation

Energy production

What is the function of carbon capture and storage (CCS)? A. Convert CO2 to methane B. Emit CO2 faster C. Store captured CO2 underground D. Burn CO2 for energy

Store captured CO2 underground

Which renewable energy source has the most potential to reduce emissions globally? A. Geothermal B. Solar C. Tidal D. Nuclear

Solar

How does reforestation help mitigate climate change? A. Reduces soil erosion B. Absorbs CO2 from the atmosphere C. Increases rainfall D. Cools the ground

Absorbs CO2 from the atmosphere

What is the role of afforestation in mitigation strategies? A. Promotes desertification B. Increases fossil fuel reserves C. Adds forest cover to sequester carbon D. Destroys biodiversity

Adds forest cover to sequester carbon

Which of the following policies can support climate change mitigation? A. Fossil fuel subsidies B. Carbon tax implementation C. Lowering vehicle emission standards D. Encouraging deforestation

Carbon tax implementation

How can building design contribute to climate mitigation? A. Use of thick concrete walls B. Use of reflective roofs and insulation C. Fossil fuel HVAC systems D. Dark exterior paints

Use of reflective roofs and insulation

Which is a benefit of transitioning to electric vehicles? A. Higher emissions B. Increased noise pollution C. Reduction in tailpipe CO2 emissions D. Less reliance on renewable energy

Reduction in tailpipe CO2 emissions

LED lighting contributes to mitigation by: A. Increasing energy use B. Decreasing energy demand C. Releasing carbon D. Heating interiors

Decreasing energy demand

What is a 'carbon sink' in the context of mitigation? A. A fossil fuel deposit B. An ocean current C. A system that absorbs more carbon than it emits D. A carbon emission source

A system that absorbs more carbon than it emits

What does the term 'net-zero emissions' refer to? A. Reducing emissions by half B. Balancing emitted and removed GHGs C. Zero GHGs from industry D. No CO2 allowed in cities

Balancing emitted and removed GHGs

Which building material has a lower carbon footprint? A. Steel B. Concrete C. Cross-laminated timber D. Brick

Cross-laminated timber

Sustainable agriculture can reduce GHG emissions through: A. Over-irrigation B. No-till farming and organic practices C. Increased fertilizer use D. Slash-and-burn methods

No-till farming and organic practices

Methane emissions from livestock can be reduced by: A. Feeding antibiotics B. Genetic modification C. Changing feed to include seaweed or oils D. Using chemical supplements

Changing feed to include seaweed or oils

What is the role of international climate finance? A. Support fossil fuel industries B. Provide grants for military operations C. Help developing countries adopt mitigation and adaptation strategies D. Fund carbon-intensive industries

Help developing countries adopt mitigation and adaptation strategies

What role does energy efficiency play in mitigation? A. Increases emissions B. Reduces energy waste and associated emissions C. Has no impact D. Increases cost of living

Reduces energy waste and associated emissions

What is the role of the IPCC in climate change mitigation? A. Implements national laws B. Monitors volcanoes C. Provides scientific assessments and policy recommendations D. Funds energy companies

Provides scientific assessments and policy recommendations

What is the purpose of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement? A. To set global laws B. To define each country's emission reduction targets C. To tax imports D. To reduce rainfall

To define each country's emission reduction targets

Why is phasing out coal a significant mitigation strategy? A. Coal is inexpensive B. Coal has low emissions C. Coal is the most carbon-intensive fuel D. Coal cools the earth

Coal is the most carbon-intensive fuel

Which of the following is an example of a 'nature-based solution' for climate mitigation? A. Installing solar panels B. Carbon trading C. Reforestation D. Building sea walls

Reforestation

What type of transportation has the lowest carbon emissions? A. Gasoline car B. Electric car C. Airplane D. Bicycle

Bicycle

How can public transportation systems help mitigate climate change? A. Reduce vehicle emissions by transporting more people efficiently B. Increase energy demand C. Decrease walking D. Encourage fuel use

Reduce vehicle emissions by transporting more people efficiently

What does the term 'green infrastructure' refer to in climate mitigation? A. Nuclear plants B. Urban forests and permeable surfaces C. Oil pipelines D. Concrete barriers

Urban forests and permeable surfaces

Why is reducing food waste a climate mitigation strategy? A. Reduces hunger B. Avoids emissions from food production and decay C. Improves diet D. Saves water only

Avoids emissions from food production and decay

Which of the following is a low-carbon renewable energy source? A. Diesel B. Wind C. Coal D. Natural gas

Wind

Why is peatland restoration important for climate mitigation? A. Increases urban areas B. Peatlands act as large carbon sinks C. Helps in flood prevention D. Reduces air pressure

Peatlands act as large carbon sinks

Why is improving waste management a mitigation strategy? A. Increases CO2 B. Promotes plastic use C. Reduces methane from landfills D. Supports fossil fuel industries

Reduces methane from landfills

Which type of bonding is primarily responsible for the structure of diamond? A. Ionic bonding B. Covalent bonding C. Metallic bonding D. Hydrogen bonding

Covalent bonding

The crystal structure of most metals at room temperature is: A. Body-centered cubic B. Face-centered cubic C. Hexagonal close-packed D. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is not a Bravais lattice? A. Simple cubic B. Body-centered tetragonal C. Hexagonal D. Oblique

Oblique

What is the coordination number of atoms in a face-centered cubic (FCC) structure? A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 4

The unit cell of a body-centered cubic (BCC) structure contains how many atoms? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

In crystallography, Miller indices are used to: A. Determine color B. Define crystal planes C. Measure temperature D. Estimate hardness

Define crystal planes

Which of the following has the highest atomic packing factor? A. Simple cubic B. Body-centered cubic C. Face-centered cubic D. Hexagonal

Face-centered cubic

Dislocations in crystals are line defects that primarily affect: A. Thermal properties B. Magnetic properties C. Mechanical strength D. Electrical conductivity

Mechanical strength

X-ray diffraction (XRD) is used to determine: A. Chemical composition B. Phase purity C. Crystal structure D. Melting point

Crystal structure

Amorphous solids differ from crystalline solids in that they lack: A. Atoms B. Electrons C. Long-range order D. Mass

Long-range order

Which of the following is a two-dimensional defect? A. Vacancy B. Edge dislocation C. Grain boundary D. Interstitial

Grain boundary

What term describes the repeating pattern in a crystal lattice? A. Grain B. Polymer C. Unit cell D. Phase

Unit cell

Interstitial sites are important in which type of solid solution? A. Substitutional B. Interstitial C. Allotropic D. Amorphous

Interstitial

Which crystal system has unequal axes and no right angles? A. Cubic B. Tetragonal C. Monoclinic D. Triclinic

Triclinic

The presence of grain boundaries in a material usually: A. Increases conductivity B. Improves transparency C. Enhances strength D. Reduces density

Enhances strength

Polymorphism in materials refers to: A. Different molecules B. Multiple colors C. Different crystal structures for the same material D. Optical activity

Different crystal structures for the same material

The primary building block of silicate materials is: A. SiC tetrahedron B. SiO₂ molecule C. SiO₄ tetrahedron D. Si₃N₄ unit

SiO₄ tetrahedron

Close-packed structures maximize: A. Electrical resistivity B. Volume C. Atomic packing D. Surface area

Atomic packing

Which of the following techniques can visualize atomic arrangements? A. XRD B. SEM C. TEM D. AFM

TEM

The point defect where an atom is missing from the lattice is called a: A. Interstitial B. Dislocation C. Vacancy D. Grain boundary

Vacancy

Allotropes are: A. Impurities B. Isomers C. Structural forms of an element D. Compounds of the same element

Structural forms of an element

The stacking sequence of HCP crystals is: A. ABCABC B. ABABAB C. AABBCC D. ABCBCA

ABABAB

Which bonding type dominates in metals? A. Covalent B. Ionic C. Van der Waals D. Metallic

Metallic

A slip system consists of: A. Slip plane and direction B. Crystal and defect C. Temperature and pressure D. Electrons and ions

Slip plane and direction

Which term defines the resistance of a crystal to dislocation motion? A. Ductility B. Plasticity C. Hardness D. Yield strength

Yield strength

Quasicrystals are characterized by: A. Perfect symmetry B. Periodic order C. Aperiodic long-range order D. Amorphous structure

Aperiodic long-range order

Which is not a common metallic crystal structure? A. FCC B. BCC C. HCP D. Tetragonal

Tetragonal

What term refers to a boundary between two grains in a polycrystalline material? A. Twin B. Dislocation C. Grain boundary D. Phase

Grain boundary

The density of a crystal depends on: A. Lattice energy B. Atomic packing factor C. Atomic number D. Band gap

Atomic packing factor

Point defects in crystals include: A. Grain boundaries B. Edge dislocations C. Vacancies and interstitials D. Twin planes

Vacancies and interstitials

Which property measures a material’s resistance to permanent deformation? A. Elasticity B. Hardness C. Ductility D. Brittleness

Hardness

Young’s modulus is a measure of: A. Plastic deformation B. Shear strength C. Elastic stiffness D. Poisson’s ratio

Elastic stiffness

Which of the following materials has the highest thermal conductivity? A. Copper B. Glass C. Rubber D. Wood

Copper

The area under a stress-strain curve represents: A. Elastic limit B. Hardness C. Toughness D. Brittleness

Toughness

What is Poisson’s ratio? A. Ratio of strain to stress B. Ratio of lateral to axial strain C. Ratio of load to deformation D. Ratio of tension to compression

Ratio of lateral to axial strain

A material with high ductility can: A. Resist scratching B. Be easily magnetized C. Stretch without breaking D. Conduct electricity well

Stretch without breaking

The temperature at which a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called: A. Melting point B. Glass transition temperature C. Curie temperature D. Critical temperature

Curie temperature

Which of the following is an intensive property? A. Mass B. Volume C. Density D. Length

Density

Which mechanical property indicates resistance to scratching or abrasion? A. Elasticity B. Plasticity C. Hardness D. Creep

Hardness

The slope of the initial linear portion of a stress-strain curve is the: A. Shear modulus B. Tensile strength C. Elastic modulus D. Yield strength

Elastic modulus

Thermal expansion is caused by: A. Electron movement B. Phase change C. Vibrations of atoms D. Magnetic properties

Vibrations of atoms

A brittle material fails by: A. Plastic deformation B. Creep C. Elastic fracture D. Sudden fracture without significant deformation

Sudden fracture without significant deformation

Fatigue failure occurs due to: A. Overheating B. Prolonged exposure to UV C. Repeated cyclic loading D. Chemical attack

Repeated cyclic loading

Which property of a material determines its suitability as a spring? A. Yield strength B. Toughness C. Modulus of elasticity D. Plasticity

Modulus of elasticity

The ability of a material to absorb energy up to fracture is called: A. Elasticity B. Hardness C. Toughness D. Creep

Toughness

Which property measures a material's resistance to flow? A. Elastic modulus B. Shear stress C. Viscosity D. Toughness

Viscosity

Creep is the time-dependent deformation of materials under: A. Low temperature B. Rapid cooling C. Constant load at high temperature D. Magnetic field

Constant load at high temperature

Which electrical property determines how easily a material conducts electricity? A. Permittivity B. Permeability C. Resistivity D. Conductivity

Conductivity

A material with low thermal expansion and high thermal conductivity is ideal for: A. Insulation B. Heat sinks C. Bearings D. Lenses

Heat sinks

Which of the following increases with the addition of alloying elements in metals? A. Electrical conductivity B. Ductility C. Hardness D. Transparency

Hardness

The term 'anisotropy' in materials refers to: A. Same properties in all directions B. Random orientation C. Direction-dependent properties D. Crystalline symmetry

Direction-dependent properties

Fracture toughness is a material’s ability to resist fracture in the presence of: A. Low temperature B. Fatigue loading C. A notch or flaw D. Compression

A notch or flaw

Which material property is most critical for a bulletproof vest? A. Elasticity B. Ductility C. Hardness D. Toughness

Toughness

Which test is used to measure the hardness of a material? A. Izod B. Charpy C. Brinell D. Tensile

Brinell

Elastic deformation is: A. Permanent B. Non-recoverable C. Reversible D. Accompanied by cracking

Reversible

What is the typical Poisson’s ratio for most metals? A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.5 D. 1.0

0.3

Thermal shock resistance is important in materials exposed to: A. Acids B. Radiation C. Rapid temperature changes D. UV light

Rapid temperature changes

Which of the following properties defines how a material responds to light? A. Thermal conductivity B. Optical transparency C. Viscosity D. Creep

Optical transparency

Resilience is best described as a material’s ability to: A. Absorb energy elastically B. Return to original size after plastic deformation C. Resist fatigue D. Conduct heat

Absorb energy elastically

Which material property affects the efficiency of transformers? A. Elasticity B. Magnetic permeability C. Thermal conductivity D. Hardness

Magnetic permeability

Which of the following is a thermoplastic polymer? A. Epoxy resin B. Polyethylene C. Vulcanized rubber D. Bakelite

Polyethylene

Which property is typical of ceramics? A. High ductility B. Excellent electrical conductivity C. Brittleness D. Low melting point

Brittleness

Which of the following metals has the highest electrical conductivity? A. Gold B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Silver

Silver

The process of vulcanization of rubber involves: A. Cooling rapidly B. Adding plasticizers C. Crosslinking with sulfur D. Blending with polymers

Crosslinking with sulfur

Ceramics are generally made from: A. Hydrocarbons B. Metal oxides and non-metallic elements C. Silicones D. Proteins

Metal oxides and non-metallic elements

Which type of polymerization involves the stepwise growth of molecular chains? A. Addition polymerization B. Chain-growth polymerization C. Step-growth polymerization D. Copolymerization

Step-growth polymerization

Which ceramic material is widely used in biomedical implants? A. Zirconia B. Alumina C. Silicon carbide D. Kaolinite

Alumina

In metallic bonding, electrons are: A. Fixed to atoms B. Shared between specific atoms C. Free to move in a 'sea' D. Absent

Free to move in a 'sea'

Which polymer is used in making bulletproof glass? A. Polystyrene B. Polycarbonate C. Polyethylene D. Polyamide

Polycarbonate

Stainless steel resists corrosion due to the presence of: A. Aluminum B. Copper C. Chromium D. Nickel

Chromium

Which polymer is commonly used in textiles? A. PVC B. PET C. PTFE D. PMMA

PET

Which property is most characteristic of metals? A. Transparency B. High brittleness C. Electrical conductivity D. Low density

Electrical conductivity

Glass is a type of: A. Crystalline ceramic B. Metallic alloy C. Amorphous ceramic D. Thermoplastic polymer

Amorphous ceramic

Which of the following ceramics is commonly used as an abrasive? A. Silica B. Alumina C. Kaolinite D. Zircon

Alumina

The polymer Teflon is made from: A. Ethylene B. Styrene C. Tetrafluoroethylene D. Vinyl chloride

Tetrafluoroethylene

The main component of bone china ceramics is: A. Silica B. Kaolin C. Bone ash D. Zircon

Bone ash

Which metal is commonly used in aircraft due to its low density and strength? A. Lead B. Zinc C. Aluminum D. Copper

Aluminum

Which of the following polymers is a natural polymer? A. Polystyrene B. Cellulose C. Nylon D. Polyethylene

Cellulose

Ceramic superconductors are known for their ability to: A. Withstand high pressure B. Conduct electricity without resistance C. Melt easily D. Absorb UV radiation

Conduct electricity without resistance

What is the structure of a crystalline metal? A. Amorphous B. Layered C. Polycrystalline D. Glassy

Polycrystalline

Which polymer has high resistance to chemicals and is used in non-stick cookware? A. Polystyrene B. Polycarbonate C. PTFE D. PVC

PTFE

Which metal is liquid at room temperature? A. Mercury B. Tin C. Lead D. Zinc

Mercury

Which type of ceramic is used in spark plugs? A. Silicon carbide B. Zirconia C. Alumina D. Boron nitride

Alumina

Elastomers are polymers that: A. Shatter easily B. Return to their shape after stretching C. Conduct electricity D. Form crystalline solids

Return to their shape after stretching

Which metal is most commonly used in electrical wiring? A. Gold B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Iron

Copper

Which polymer is known for high strength and is used in bulletproof vests? A. Polyethylene B. Kevlar C. Polypropylene D. Polystyrene

Kevlar

Which ceramic is most suitable for high-temperature furnace linings? A. Kaolinite B. Alumina C. Glass D. Porcelain

Alumina

Which metal alloy is primarily used for making coins? A. Brass B. Bronze C. Stainless steel D. Cupronickel

Cupronickel

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer? A. Polypropylene B. PLA C. PVC D. Nylon

PLA

Which metal forms an oxide layer that protects it from further corrosion? A. Iron B. Aluminum C. Zinc D. Magnesium

Aluminum

What is the main purpose of the matrix in a composite material? A. To conduct electricity B. To hold fibers together and transfer loads C. To provide thermal insulation D. To act as a lubricant

To hold fibers together and transfer loads

Which of the following is a typical reinforcement in composite materials? A. Graphite fibers B. Polyethylene C. Silicon dioxide D. Zinc oxide

Graphite fibers

Carbon fiber-reinforced polymers are primarily used in: A. Biomedical implants B. Thermal insulation C. Aerospace and sports equipment D. Packaging

Aerospace and sports equipment

In fiber-reinforced composites, the strength is highest when the fibers are: A. Randomly oriented B. Perpendicular to load C. Aligned with load direction D. Short and randomly scattered

Aligned with load direction

A composite made from concrete and steel reinforcement is called: A. Ferrocement B. Polymer matrix composite C. Reinforced concrete D. Laminated composite

Reinforced concrete

Which of the following is a particulate composite? A. Plywood B. Carbon fiber epoxy C. Concrete D. Kevlar laminate

Concrete

What type of matrix is used in metal matrix composites (MMCs)? A. Polymers B. Ceramics C. Metals D. Glasses

Metals

Which type of composite uses two or more types of reinforcement? A. Hybrid composite B. Laminated composite C. Ceramic matrix composite D. Intermetallic composite

Hybrid composite

A sandwich composite structure typically includes: A. Two dense skins and a lightweight core B. Only fiber reinforcement C. Homogeneous material D. Layers of rubber

Two dense skins and a lightweight core

Which matrix type provides excellent high-temperature resistance in composites? A. Polymer B. Ceramic C. Glass D. Wood

Ceramic

Composites with layers of materials stacked in a specific sequence are called: A. Random composites B. Isotropic composites C. Laminated composites D. Foam composites

Laminated composites

Which property is typically improved in a composite compared to its constituents? A. Color B. Density C. Mechanical strength D. Electrical resistance

Mechanical strength

Which of these is a natural composite material? A. Glass fiber B. Bone C. Carbon fiber D. Epoxy resin

Bone

Which composite material is commonly used in the automotive industry for body panels? A. Kevlar-epoxy B. Fiberglass C. Ceramic matrix D. Carbon-carbon

Fiberglass

What is the main disadvantage of polymer matrix composites (PMCs)? A. High cost B. Low weight C. Poor resistance to high temperature D. Non-magnetic

Poor resistance to high temperature

The pull-out strength of fibers in a composite affects: A. Color B. Thermal conductivity C. Load transfer efficiency D. Corrosion resistance

Load transfer efficiency

Which of the following best describes the role of fiber reinforcement? A. Improves aesthetics B. Increases weight C. Bears most of the load D. Acts as an adhesive

Bears most of the load

Which manufacturing process is commonly used for fiber-reinforced composites? A. Extrusion B. Injection molding C. Pultrusion D. Casting

Pultrusion

Carbon-carbon composites are best known for their use in: A. Insulation panels B. Brake discs in aerospace C. Bicycle frames D. Packaging materials

Brake discs in aerospace

Which is an example of a ceramic matrix composite (CMC)? A. Silicon carbide reinforced with carbon fibers B. Nylon reinforced with glass C. Steel reinforced concrete D. Epoxy reinforced with Kevlar

Silicon carbide reinforced with carbon fibers

The interfacial bond in composites determines: A. Thermal conductivity B. Mechanical performance C. Color uniformity D. Elastic modulus

Mechanical performance

What is the typical use of boron fibers in composites? A. Improving toughness in sportswear B. Thermal insulation C. High-strength aerospace components D. Electrical wiring

High-strength aerospace components

Kevlar is a polymer used in composites primarily for its: A. Low cost B. Electrical properties C. High tensile strength and impact resistance D. Transparency

High tensile strength and impact resistance

The term 'anisotropy' in composites often refers to: A. Equal properties in all directions B. Variation of properties with direction C. Random distribution D. High conductivity

Variation of properties with direction

Which composite manufacturing technique involves winding fibers around a rotating mandrel? A. Vacuum infusion B. Pultrusion C. Filament winding D. Spray-up

Filament winding

Glass fiber composites are widely used due to their: A. Low cost and high strength-to-weight ratio B. High conductivity C. Magnetic properties D. Resistance to freezing

Low cost and high strength-to-weight ratio

Which of the following affects the toughness of a composite? A. Thermal expansion of the matrix B. Fiber orientation and bonding C. Color of the fibers D. Humidity

Fiber orientation and bonding

Metal matrix composites (MMCs) are typically reinforced with: A. Fiberglass B. Carbon nanotubes C. Silicon carbide particles D. Polyethylene

Silicon carbide particles

What is the typical benefit of using sandwich composites in construction? A. Reduced thermal conductivity B. Enhanced optical clarity C. High stiffness-to-weight ratio D. Increased biodegradability

High stiffness-to-weight ratio

In which application would a polymer matrix composite be least suitable? A. Automotive body panels B. Rocket engine nozzles C. Sporting goods D. Boat hulls

Rocket engine nozzles

What is the SI unit of energy? A) Calorie B) Watt C) Joule D) Erg

C) Joule

Which law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed? A) Law of Inertia B) First Law of Thermodynamics C) Second Law of Thermodynamics D) Newton's Third Law

B) First Law of Thermodynamics

What type of energy is stored in chemical bonds? A) Kinetic B) Potential C) Chemical D) Thermal

C) Chemical

Which energy transformation occurs in a hydroelectric power plant? A) Electrical to mechanical B) Kinetic to electrical C) Thermal to chemical D) Nuclear to electrical

B) Kinetic to electrical

What form of energy is associated with the motion of particles? A) Thermal B) Mechanical C) Chemical D) Electrical

A) Thermal

Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy? A) Solar B) Wind C) Natural gas D) Hydropower

C) Natural gas

Which device converts electrical energy into mechanical energy? A) Generator B) Motor C) Battery D) Transformer

B) Motor

Which equation represents kinetic energy? A) KE = 1/2 mv^2 B) KE = mgh C) KE = mcΔT D) KE = VIt

A) KE = 1/2 mv^2

What type of energy is involved in photosynthesis? A) Mechanical B) Light C) Thermal D) Nuclear

B) Light

Which is a common unit for energy in food? A) Watt B) Kilojoule C) Calorie D) Newton

C) Calorie

Which of the following represents potential energy? A) Moving car B) Water in a dam C) Flowing river D) Sound waves

B) Water in a dam

In a coal-fired power plant, what is the primary energy conversion? A) Mechanical to chemical B) Chemical to thermal C) Electrical to chemical D) Thermal to nuclear

B) Chemical to thermal

Which has the highest energy density? A) Coal B) Natural gas C) Uranium D) Wood

C) Uranium

What is the main energy currency of cells? A) DNA B) RNA C) ATP D) Glucose

C) ATP

Which is a form of electromagnetic energy? A) Sound B) Wind C) Light D) Vibration

C) Light

The efficiency of a machine is calculated as: A) Input/Output B) Output/Input × 100 C) Energy used/Energy lost D) Energy lost/Output

B) Output/Input × 100

Which unit is used to measure electricity consumption? A) Kilowatt-hour B) Joule C) Calorie D) Ampere

A) Kilowatt-hour

Thermal energy always moves from: A) Cold to hot B) High to low pressure C) Hot to cold D) Low to high concentration

C) Hot to cold

Which law explains the increase of entropy? A) First Law of Thermodynamics B) Newton's Law C) Second Law of Thermodynamics D) Zeroth Law

C) Second Law of Thermodynamics

Which energy form powers photovoltaic cells? A) Nuclear B) Solar C) Wind D) Thermal

B) Solar

What energy form is stored in an object due to its position? A) Thermal B) Kinetic C) Potential D) Electrical

C) Potential

Which of the following fuels is considered carbon neutral? A) Coal B) Biodiesel C) Diesel D) Natural Gas

B) Biodiesel

Which is an example of mechanical energy? A) Compressed spring B) Light wave C) Radio signal D) Thermal gradient

A) Compressed spring

Energy in a swinging pendulum alternates between: A) Nuclear and electrical B) Kinetic and potential C) Sound and light D) Thermal and nuclear

B) Kinetic and potential

Which device measures energy consumption at home? A) Thermometer B) Voltmeter C) Energy meter D) Hydrometer

C) Energy meter

The term 'enthalpy' refers to: A) Entropy measure B) Heat content of a system C) Disorder level D) Atomic structure

B) Heat content of a system

In exothermic reactions, energy is: A) Absorbed B) Created C) Released D) Destroyed

C) Released

What is the main form of energy lost in energy transformations? A) Electrical B) Thermal C) Mechanical D) Light

B) Thermal

Which of the following systems has the most entropy? A) Ice cube B) Water vapor C) Liquid water D) Salt crystal

B) Water vapor

Which energy type is produced in a nuclear reactor? A) Electrical B) Mechanical C) Nuclear D) Light

A) Electrical

What type of bond is primarily responsible for the strength of metals? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Metallic bond D) Hydrogen bond

C) Metallic bond

Which material is known for its high tensile strength and is widely used in construction? A) Aluminum B) Concrete C) Steel D) Plastic

C) Steel

What property describes a material's ability to deform without breaking? A) Brittleness B) Ductility C) Hardness D) Elasticity

B) Ductility

Which of the following is a composite material? A) Steel B) Brass C) Fiberglass D) Copper

C) Fiberglass

What is the main constituent of Portland cement? A) Silica B) Alumina C) Calcium silicates D) Gypsum

C) Calcium silicates

What is the primary use of ceramics in engineering? A) Electrical conductivity B) Thermal insulation C) Flexibility D) Transparency

B) Thermal insulation

Which material is most likely to exhibit corrosion? A) Gold B) Aluminum C) Iron D) Platinum

C) Iron

Which process increases the hardness of steel? A) Annealing B) Quenching C) Casting D) Forging

B) Quenching

What does the term 'amorphous' refer to in materials science? A) Regular atomic structure B) Lack of long-range order C) Magnetic property D) Transparent structure

B) Lack of long-range order

Which test is used to measure a material's hardness? A) Tension test B) Brinell test C) Fatigue test D) Impact test

B) Brinell test

Which polymer is known for its use in bulletproof vests? A) PVC B) Nylon C) Kevlar D) Teflon

C) Kevlar

Which of these materials is an alloy? A) Graphite B) Bronze C) Quartz D) Diamond

B) Bronze

What property makes aluminum suitable for aircraft construction? A) High density B) Brittleness C) Low melting point D) Low weight and high strength

D) Low weight and high strength

What is a characteristic of thermoplastics? A) Decompose when heated B) Can be reshaped multiple times C) Permanently set after heating D) Conduct electricity

B) Can be reshaped multiple times

Which crystal structure is most closely packed? A) Body-centered cubic B) Face-centered cubic C) Simple cubic D) Hexagonal cubic

B) Face-centered cubic

Which technique is used for surface hardening of steel? A) Alloying B) Quenching C) Carburizing D) Annealing

C) Carburizing

What is the primary function of a refractory material? A) Conduct electricity B) Resist high temperatures C) Resist corrosion D) Provide transparency

B) Resist high temperatures

Which engineering material is derived from sand? A) Plastic B) Glass C) Copper D) Steel

B) Glass

Which material has the highest electrical conductivity? A) Aluminum B) Silver C) Copper D) Gold

B) Silver

What causes creep in materials? A) High impact forces B) Repeated bending C) Constant stress at high temperature D) Sudden loading

C) Constant stress at high temperature

Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer? A) Polyethylene B) Polypropylene C) Epoxy resin D) Polystyrene

C) Epoxy resin

Which microstructure is found in hardened steel? A) Austenite B) Ferrite C) Martensite D) Pearlite

C) Martensite

Which test evaluates a material's resistance to fracture under shock loading? A) Creep test B) Fatigue test C) Impact test D) Torsion test

C) Impact test

What property of ceramics makes them brittle? A) Metallic bonds B) Strong directional bonds C) Ductility D) High thermal conductivity

B) Strong directional bonds

Which method is used to strengthen polymers? A) Heat treatment B) Vulcanization C) Electroplating D) Alloying

B) Vulcanization

Which material is commonly used for electrical insulation? A) Copper B) Rubber C) Steel D) Silver

B) Rubber

What does tempering do to hardened steel? A) Increases brittleness B) Increases softness C) Reduces brittleness while retaining hardness D) Melts steel

C) Reduces brittleness while retaining hardness

What is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust used in materials? A) Iron B) Silicon C) Aluminum D) Oxygen

C) Aluminum

Which engineering material is used in semiconductor manufacturing? A) Sulfur B) Nitrogen C) Silicon D) Magnesium

C) Silicon

Which metal is known for forming a protective oxide layer? A) Iron B) Zinc C) Aluminum D) Copper

C) Aluminum

Which gas is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect? A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon dioxide D) Hydrogen

C) Carbon dioxide

What is the main cause of acid rain? A) Carbon monoxide B) Nitrogen dioxide and sulfur dioxide C) Methane D) Ozone

B) Nitrogen dioxide and sulfur dioxide

Which environmental parameter is measured in parts per million (ppm)? A) Temperature B) Humidity C) Pollutant concentration D) Wind speed

C) Pollutant concentration

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer? A) Troposphere B) Mesosphere C) Stratosphere D) Thermosphere

C) Stratosphere

What is the main source of photochemical smog? A) Industrial emissions B) Vehicle exhausts C) Forest fires D) Volcanoes

B) Vehicle exhausts

Which gas is most effective at trapping heat in the atmosphere? A) Carbon dioxide B) Methane C) Nitrogen D) Oxygen

B) Methane

What is the pH range of acid rain? A) 6.5–7.5 B) 8–9 C) Below 5.6 D) Above 9

C) Below 5.6

Which process removes CO₂ from the atmosphere? A) Combustion B) Photosynthesis C) Respiration D) Fossil fuel burning

B) Photosynthesis

Which chemical is responsible for ozone depletion? A) CO₂ B) CH₄ C) CFCs D) NO₂

C) CFCs

What is eutrophication? A) Oil spillage B) Excessive nutrient accumulation in water bodies C) Deforestation D) Ozone layer thinning

B) Excessive nutrient accumulation in water bodies

Which pollutant is commonly associated with smog and respiratory problems? A) Ozone (O₃) B) CO₂ C) N₂ D) Argon

A) Ozone (O₃)

What does BOD measure in water? A) Nitrate level B) Oxygen required for microbial activity C) pH D) Salinity

B) Oxygen required for microbial activity

Which technique is used to measure air quality index (AQI)? A) Gravimetric analysis B) Spectrophotometry C) Continuous air monitoring D) Titration

C) Continuous air monitoring

Which element is a major contaminant in groundwater from industrial waste? A) Iron B) Lead C) Sodium D) Magnesium

B) Lead

What is the major source of marine pollution? A) Acid rain B) Industrial waste C) Agricultural runoff D) Vehicle emissions

C) Agricultural runoff

Which waste is categorized as hazardous? A) Biodegradable waste B) Medical waste C) Kitchen waste D) Paper

B) Medical waste

What is the most common method of solid waste disposal in urban areas? A) Landfilling B) Incineration C) Composting D) Recycling

A) Landfilling

Which heavy metal is particularly dangerous to aquatic life? A) Zinc B) Lead C) Mercury D) Iron

C) Mercury

Which process breaks down organic matter in the absence of oxygen? A) Aerobic digestion B) Photosynthesis C) Anaerobic digestion D) Oxidation

C) Anaerobic digestion

What is the effect of increased carbon dioxide on ocean water? A) Decreased temperature B) Increased salinity C) Ocean acidification D) Alkalinity

C) Ocean acidification

What is the function of catalytic converters in vehicles? A) Increase fuel efficiency B) Reduce emissions C) Boost engine power D) Add oxygen

B) Reduce emissions

Which indicator species is used to assess air pollution? A) Frogs B) Lichens C) Butterflies D) Earthworms

B) Lichens

What is the primary cause of ozone layer depletion? A) CO₂ emissions B) Methane C) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) D) Ozone generators

C) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Which is a non-point source of pollution? A) Sewage outlet B) Industrial pipe C) Agricultural runoff D) Factory chimney

C) Agricultural runoff

Which environmental issue is linked to excessive CO₂ in the atmosphere? A) Acid rain B) Global warming C) Smog D) Ozone depletion

B) Global warming

Which renewable energy source has the least environmental impact? A) Biomass B) Wind energy C) Coal D) Natural gas

B) Wind energy

Which method is used to treat wastewater? A) Oxidation B) Precipitation C) Filtration and biological treatment D) Sublimation

C) Filtration and biological treatment

What is the role of activated carbon in water treatment? A) Raise pH B) Remove hardness C) Adsorb organic contaminants D) Add oxygen

C) Adsorb organic contaminants

Which protocol regulates substances that deplete the ozone layer? A) Kyoto Protocol B) Paris Agreement C) Montreal Protocol D) Geneva Convention

C) Montreal Protocol

Which pollutant is most responsible for indoor air pollution in rural areas? A) Carbon monoxide from biomass burning B) Radon gas C) Nitrogen oxides D) Lead

A) Carbon monoxide from biomass burning

Which document provides information about chemical hazards and safe handling? A) Chemical Abstracts B) Lab Notebook C) Safety Data Sheet (SDS) D) Patent File

C) Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

What does the NFPA diamond label represent? A) Fire extinguisher types B) Material purity C) Chemical hazard levels D) Environmental impact

C) Chemical hazard levels

What does the red section in the NFPA diamond indicate? A) Health hazard B) Fire hazard C) Reactivity D) Special information

B) Fire hazard

Which PPE is essential when handling concentrated acids? A) Lab apron B) Safety goggles and gloves C) Face shield only D) Cotton gloves

B) Safety goggles and gloves

Which type of fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires? A) Water B) Foam C) CO₂ D) Wet chemical

C) CO₂

What should you do first if a chemical spill occurs on your skin? A) Call 911 B) Wipe it off with a cloth C) Flush with water immediately D) Apply ointment

C) Flush with water immediately

Which color code is used to indicate health hazards in chemical labeling? A) Blue B) Red C) Yellow D) White

A) Blue

What is the main purpose of a fume hood? A) Increase ventilation B) Store chemicals C) Provide lighting D) Contain harmful vapors

D) Contain harmful vapors

What does a GHS pictogram with a skull and crossbones mean? A) Explosive B) Toxic C) Irritant D) Flammable

B) Toxic

Which class of chemicals requires storage in a flammable cabinet? A) Acids B) Bases C) Organic solvents D) Salts

C) Organic solvents

Which chemical poses the highest inhalation hazard? A) Sodium chloride B) Acetone C) Ammonia gas D) Water

C) Ammonia gas

What is the first step in risk assessment in a lab? A) Begin experiment B) Wear gloves C) Identify hazards D) Write report

C) Identify hazards

Which emergency equipment is used to rinse eyes exposed to chemicals? A) Fume hood B) Shower C) Eye wash station D) Fire blanket

C) Eye wash station

How are incompatible chemicals generally stored? A) Together in dry area B) In a single container C) Separately with barriers D) With water

C) Separately with barriers

Which symbol indicates a corrosive substance in GHS? A) Flame B) Exclamation mark C) Test tubes pouring on hand and surface D) Skull

C) Test tubes pouring on hand and surface

What is the correct disposal method for a broken mercury thermometer? A) Trash can B) Flush down sink C) Hazardous waste container D) Burn

C) Hazardous waste container

Why is labeling of secondary containers important? A) For aesthetics B) To match equipment C) To identify contents and hazards D) To prevent theft

C) To identify contents and hazards

Which of the following is not a route of chemical exposure? A) Inhalation B) Injection C) Hearing D) Ingestion

C) Hearing

Which regulatory agency enforces chemical safety in the workplace? A) NASA B) FDA C) OSHA D) CDC

C) OSHA

What does the yellow section in the NFPA diamond indicate? A) Health hazard B) Reactivity C) Flammability D) Special handling

B) Reactivity

Which type of glove is most suitable for handling organic solvents? A) Cotton B) Latex C) Nitrile D) Wool

C) Nitrile

Which hazard is associated with peroxide-forming chemicals? A) Corrosion B) Explosions C) Radioactivity D) Irritation

B) Explosions

What is the correct action for a small chemical spill on a lab bench? A) Leave it B) Inform supervisor and clean it up safely C) Evacuate lab D) Spray with water

B) Inform supervisor and clean it up safely

Which safety feature automatically cuts gas supply during emergencies? A) Bunsen burner B) Emergency shutoff valve C) Fume hood fan D) Fire extinguisher

B) Emergency shutoff valve

How should strong acids be diluted? A) Pour water into acid B) Pour acid into water C) Mix both together rapidly D) Shake the container

B) Pour acid into water

Which of the following is a long-term health hazard? A) Irritation B) Explosion C) Carcinogenicity D) Corrosion

C) Carcinogenicity

How are chemical waste containers labeled? A) Color-coded by hazard B) With date only C) With content and hazard class D) Without labels

C) With content and hazard class

Which is the most effective control in the hierarchy of hazard control? A) PPE B) Administrative control C) Elimination D) Substitution

C) Elimination

What is the main function of a fire blanket? A) Wrap lab glassware B) Store chemicals C) Extinguish clothing fires D) Clean spills

C) Extinguish clothing fires

Which gas detection method is used in confined spaces? A) Visual inspection B) UV light C) Gas detector or monitor D) pH paper

C) Gas detector or monitor

Which of the following is a functional group found in alcohols? A. -OH B. -COOH C. -NH2 D. -SH

-OH

What functional group is present in aldehydes? A. -CHO B. -CO- C. -OH D. -NH2

-CHO

The carboxyl group contains which atoms? A. Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen B. Carbon and hydrogen only C. Carbon and nitrogen only D. Carbon and oxygen only

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen

Which compound contains an amine group? A. CH3NH2 B. CH3COOH C. CH3OH D. CH3SH

CH3NH2

Which functional group is present in ketones? A. -CO- B. -CHO C. -COOH D. -OH

-CO-

Which of the following is an ether? A. CH3OCH3 B. CH3COOH C. CH3CH2OH D. CH3NH2

CH3OCH3

Phenol is an example of which type of compound? A. Aromatic alcohol B. Carboxylic acid C. Ketone D. Aldehyde

Aromatic alcohol

Which of the following represents a carboxylic acid? A. CH3COOH B. CH3CH2OH C. CH3NH2 D. CH3CHO

CH3COOH

What is the functional group of an ester? A. -COO- B. -OH C. -NH2 D. -CHO

-COO-

Which functional group does acetic acid contain? A. Carboxyl B. Hydroxyl C. Carbonyl D. Amino

Carboxyl

Which of the following is a functional group found in alcohols? (variant 1) A. -OH B. -COOH C. -NH2 D. -SH

-OH

What functional group is present in aldehydes? (variant 1) A. -CHO B. -CO- C. -OH D. -NH2

-CHO

The carboxyl group contains which atoms? (variant 1) A. Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen B. Carbon and hydrogen only C. Carbon and nitrogen only D. Carbon and oxygen only

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen

Which compound contains an amine group? (variant 1) A. CH3NH2 B. CH3COOH C. CH3OH D. CH3SH

CH3NH2

Which functional group is present in ketones? (variant 1) A. -CO- B. -CHO C. -COOH D. -OH

-CO-

Which of the following is an ether? (variant 1) A. CH3OCH3 B. CH3COOH C. CH3CH2OH D. CH3NH2

CH3OCH3

Phenol is an example of which type of compound? (variant 1) A. Aromatic alcohol B. Carboxylic acid C. Ketone D. Aldehyde

Aromatic alcohol

Which of the following represents a carboxylic acid? (variant 1) A. CH3COOH B. CH3CH2OH C. CH3NH2 D. CH3CHO

CH3COOH

What is the functional group of an ester? (variant 1) A. -COO- B. -OH C. -NH2 D. -CHO

-COO-

Which functional group does acetic acid contain? (variant 1) A. Carboxyl B. Hydroxyl C. Carbonyl D. Amino

Carboxyl

Which of the following is a functional group found in alcohols? (variant 2) A. -OH B. -COOH C. -NH2 D. -SH

-OH

What functional group is present in aldehydes? (variant 2) A. -CHO B. -CO- C. -OH D. -NH2

-CHO

The carboxyl group contains which atoms? (variant 2) A. Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen B. Carbon and hydrogen only C. Carbon and nitrogen only D. Carbon and oxygen only

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen

Which compound contains an amine group? (variant 2) A. CH3NH2 B. CH3COOH C. CH3OH D. CH3SH

CH3NH2

Which functional group is present in ketones? (variant 2) A. -CO- B. -CHO C. -COOH D. -OH

-CO-

Which of the following is an ether? (variant 2) A. CH3OCH3 B. CH3COOH C. CH3CH2OH D. CH3NH2

CH3OCH3

Phenol is an example of which type of compound? (variant 2) A. Aromatic alcohol B. Carboxylic acid C. Ketone D. Aldehyde

Aromatic alcohol

Which of the following represents a carboxylic acid? (variant 2) A. CH3COOH B. CH3CH2OH C. CH3NH2 D. CH3CHO

CH3COOH

What is the functional group of an ester? (variant 2) A. -COO- B. -OH C. -NH2 D. -CHO

-COO-

Which functional group does acetic acid contain? (variant 2) A. Carboxyl B. Hydroxyl C. Carbonyl D. Amino

Carboxyl

What type of reaction occurs when an alkene reacts with hydrogen? A. Addition B. Elimination C. Substitution D. Condensation

Addition

Which compound is produced when ethene undergoes hydration? A. Ethanol B. Ethane C. Ethanoic acid D. Methanol

Ethanol

Which of the following reactions converts an alcohol into an alkene? A. Dehydration B. Hydrogenation C. Hydrolysis D. Oxidation

Dehydration

What is the major product of oxidizing a primary alcohol? A. Aldehyde B. Ketone C. Alkene D. Ester

Aldehyde

What happens in a substitution reaction? A. One atom replaces another in a molecule B. Atoms are added across a double bond C. A molecule splits into two D. Two molecules combine and lose water

One atom replaces another in a molecule

Which compound undergoes nucleophilic substitution most readily? A. Alkyl halide B. Alkene C. Alcohol D. Ketone

Alkyl halide

What reagent is commonly used to oxidize alcohols? A. KMnO4 B. NaCl C. HCl D. NaOH

KMnO4

What type of reaction is esterification? A. Condensation B. Hydrolysis C. Addition D. Substitution

Condensation

Hydrolysis of an ester produces? A. Alcohol and acid B. Aldehyde and acid C. Alcohol and ketone D. Alcohol and ester

Alcohol and acid

What kind of reaction is breaking an ester using water? A. Hydrolysis B. Dehydration C. Oxidation D. Addition

Hydrolysis

What type of reaction occurs when an alkene reacts with hydrogen? (variant 1) A. Addition B. Elimination C. Substitution D. Condensation

Addition

Which compound is produced when ethene undergoes hydration? (variant 1) A. Ethanol B. Ethane C. Ethanoic acid D. Methanol

Ethanol

Which of the following reactions converts an alcohol into an alkene? (variant 1) A. Dehydration B. Hydrogenation C. Hydrolysis D. Oxidation

Dehydration

What is the major product of oxidizing a primary alcohol? (variant 1) A. Aldehyde B. Ketone C. Alkene D. Ester

Aldehyde

What happens in a substitution reaction? (variant 1) A. One atom replaces another in a molecule B. Atoms are added across a double bond C. A molecule splits into two D. Two molecules combine and lose water

One atom replaces another in a molecule

Which compound undergoes nucleophilic substitution most readily? (variant 1) A. Alkyl halide B. Alkene C. Alcohol D. Ketone

Alkyl halide

What reagent is commonly used to oxidize alcohols? (variant 1) A. KMnO4 B. NaCl C. HCl D. NaOH

KMnO4

What type of reaction is esterification? (variant 1) A. Condensation B. Hydrolysis C. Addition D. Substitution

Condensation

Hydrolysis of an ester produces? (variant 1) A. Alcohol and acid B. Aldehyde and acid C. Alcohol and ketone D. Alcohol and ester

Alcohol and acid

What kind of reaction is breaking an ester using water? (variant 1) A. Hydrolysis B. Dehydration C. Oxidation D. Addition

Hydrolysis

What type of reaction occurs when an alkene reacts with hydrogen? (variant 2) A. Addition B. Elimination C. Substitution D. Condensation

Addition

Which compound is produced when ethene undergoes hydration? (variant 2) A. Ethanol B. Ethane C. Ethanoic acid D. Methanol

Ethanol

Which of the following reactions converts an alcohol into an alkene? (variant 2) A. Dehydration B. Hydrogenation C. Hydrolysis D. Oxidation

Dehydration

What is the major product of oxidizing a primary alcohol? (variant 2) A. Aldehyde B. Ketone C. Alkene D. Ester

Aldehyde

What happens in a substitution reaction? (variant 2) A. One atom replaces another in a molecule B. Atoms are added across a double bond C. A molecule splits into two D. Two molecules combine and lose water

One atom replaces another in a molecule

Which compound undergoes nucleophilic substitution most readily? (variant 2) A. Alkyl halide B. Alkene C. Alcohol D. Ketone

Alkyl halide

What reagent is commonly used to oxidize alcohols? (variant 2) A. KMnO4 B. NaCl C. HCl D. NaOH

KMnO4

What type of reaction is esterification? (variant 2) A. Condensation B. Hydrolysis C. Addition D. Substitution

Condensation

Hydrolysis of an ester produces? (variant 2) A. Alcohol and acid B. Aldehyde and acid C. Alcohol and ketone D. Alcohol and ester

Alcohol and acid

What kind of reaction is breaking an ester using water? (variant 2) A. Hydrolysis B. Dehydration C. Oxidation D. Addition

Hydrolysis

Which of the following describes stereoisomers? A. Same molecular formula, different spatial arrangement B. Different molecular formula C. Same structure, different atoms D. Different molecular weight

Same molecular formula, different spatial arrangement

Which of the following is a characteristic of enantiomers? A. They are non-superimposable mirror images B. They have different molecular formulas C. They have different bonding patterns D. They are identical in all physical properties

They are non-superimposable mirror images

What kind of center is required for optical activity? A. Chiral center B. Achiral center C. Ionic center D. Planar center

Chiral center

Which is true about diastereomers? A. They are not mirror images B. They are mirror images C. They are the same compound D. They have identical physical properties

They are not mirror images

How many stereoisomers are possible for a molecule with 2 chiral centers? A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8

Which statement best defines a meso compound? A. It has chiral centers but is optically inactive B. It has no chiral centers C. It rotates plane-polarized light D. It is a mixture of enantiomers

It has chiral centers but is optically inactive

Which is NOT a type of stereoisomer? A. Structural isomer B. Enantiomer C. Diastereomer D. Geometric isomer

Structural isomer

What is the relationship between cis-trans isomers? A. They differ in the spatial arrangement around a double bond B. They are mirror images C. They differ in connectivity D. They are resonance forms

They differ in the spatial arrangement around a double bond

Which tool is used to distinguish enantiomers? A. Polarimeter B. Spectrophotometer C. pH meter D. Thermometer

Polarimeter

What is a racemic mixture? A. Equal amounts of two enantiomers B. Only one enantiomer C. A compound with no chiral centers D. A single pure stereoisomer

Equal amounts of two enantiomers

Which of the following describes stereoisomers? (variant 1) A. Same molecular formula, different spatial arrangement B. Different molecular formula C. Same structure, different atoms D. Different molecular weight

Same molecular formula, different spatial arrangement

Which of the following is a characteristic of enantiomers? (variant 1) A. They are non-superimposable mirror images B. They have different molecular formulas C. They have different bonding patterns D. They are identical in all physical properties

They are non-superimposable mirror images

What kind of center is required for optical activity? (variant 1) A. Chiral center B. Achiral center C. Ionic center D. Planar center

Chiral center

Which is true about diastereomers? (variant 1) A. They are not mirror images B. They are mirror images C. They are the same compound D. They have identical physical properties

They are not mirror images

How many stereoisomers are possible for a molecule with 2 chiral centers? (variant 1) A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8

Which statement best defines a meso compound? (variant 1) A. It has chiral centers but is optically inactive B. It has no chiral centers C. It rotates plane-polarized light D. It is a mixture of enantiomers

It has chiral centers but is optically inactive

Which is NOT a type of stereoisomer? (variant 1) A. Structural isomer B. Enantiomer C. Diastereomer D. Geometric isomer

Structural isomer

What is the relationship between cis-trans isomers? (variant 1) A. They differ in the spatial arrangement around a double bond B. They are mirror images C. They differ in connectivity D. They are resonance forms

They differ in the spatial arrangement around a double bond

Which tool is used to distinguish enantiomers? (variant 1) A. Polarimeter B. Spectrophotometer C. pH meter D. Thermometer

Polarimeter

What is a racemic mixture? (variant 1) A. Equal amounts of two enantiomers B. Only one enantiomer C. A compound with no chiral centers D. A single pure stereoisomer

Equal amounts of two enantiomers

Which of the following describes stereoisomers? (variant 2) A. Same molecular formula, different spatial arrangement B. Different molecular formula C. Same structure, different atoms D. Different molecular weight

Same molecular formula, different spatial arrangement

Which of the following is a characteristic of enantiomers? (variant 2) A. They are non-superimposable mirror images B. They have different molecular formulas C. They have different bonding patterns D. They are identical in all physical properties

They are non-superimposable mirror images

What kind of center is required for optical activity? (variant 2) A. Chiral center B. Achiral center C. Ionic center D. Planar center

Chiral center

Which is true about diastereomers? (variant 2) A. They are not mirror images B. They are mirror images C. They are the same compound D. They have identical physical properties

They are not mirror images

How many stereoisomers are possible for a molecule with 2 chiral centers? (variant 2) A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8

Which statement best defines a meso compound? (variant 2) A. It has chiral centers but is optically inactive B. It has no chiral centers C. It rotates plane-polarized light D. It is a mixture of enantiomers

It has chiral centers but is optically inactive

Which is NOT a type of stereoisomer? (variant 2) A. Structural isomer B. Enantiomer C. Diastereomer D. Geometric isomer

Structural isomer

What is the relationship between cis-trans isomers? (variant 2) A. They differ in the spatial arrangement around a double bond B. They are mirror images C. They differ in connectivity D. They are resonance forms

They differ in the spatial arrangement around a double bond

Which tool is used to distinguish enantiomers? (variant 2) A. Polarimeter B. Spectrophotometer C. pH meter D. Thermometer

Polarimeter

What is a racemic mixture? (variant 2) A. Equal amounts of two enantiomers B. Only one enantiomer C. A compound with no chiral centers D. A single pure stereoisomer

Equal amounts of two enantiomers

What is the pH of a 0.01 M HNO3 solution at 25°C? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Which of the following will not affect the position of equilibrium in a reaction at constant temperature? A. Change in concentration B. Addition of a catalyst C. Change in pressure D. Change in reactant volume

Addition of a catalyst

In the equilibrium: CH3COOH ⇌ CH3COO⁻ + H⁺, adding NaOH will: A. Shift equilibrium right B. Shift equilibrium left C. No effect D. Increase CH3COOH concentration

Shift equilibrium right

The solubility of AgCl in water is governed by: A. Common ion effect B. pH C. Temperature only D. Pressure

Common ion effect

What is the Ksp expression for Fe(OH)3? A. [Fe3+][OH-]^3 B. [Fe3+]/[OH-]^3 C. [Fe3+][OH-]^2 D. [Fe3+][OH-]

[Fe3+][OH-]^3

If Q < K for a reaction, the system will: A. Shift right B. Shift left C. Be at equilibrium D. Precipitate

Shift right

Which of the following pairs is a buffer system? A. HCl and NaCl B. NH3 and NH4Cl C. NaOH and KOH D. Na2CO3 and NaCl

NH3 and NH4Cl

The pH of a buffer solution containing equal concentrations of a weak acid and its conjugate base is: A. Equal to pKa B. Less than pKa C. Greater than pKa D. Cannot be determined

Equal to pKa

What happens to the pH when a small amount of acid is added to a buffer solution? A. Increases slightly B. Decreases slightly C. Remains exactly the same D. Drops sharply

Decreases slightly

Which condition favors the forward reaction in an exothermic equilibrium? A. Increasing temperature B. Decreasing temperature C. Adding products D. Removing reactants

Decreasing temperature

Which of the following changes will increase the solubility of Mg(OH)2 in water? A. Adding NaOH B. Decreasing pH C. Adding MgCl2 D. Increasing OH⁻ concentration

Decreasing pH

If the Ka of a weak acid is 1.8 × 10⁻⁵, what is its pKa? A. 4.74 B. 3.56 C. 5.00 D. 2.25

4.74

What is the purpose of the ICE table in equilibrium calculations? A. To balance chemical equations B. To determine enthalpy C. To calculate concentrations D. To find the oxidation state

To calculate concentrations

For a buffer made from acetic acid and sodium acetate, increasing the ratio [A⁻]/[HA] will: A. Lower the pH B. Raise the pH C. Keep pH constant D. Precipitate acetic acid

Raise the pH

The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is used to calculate: A. Solubility B. pH of buffer C. Ksp D. ΔG

pH of buffer

At equilibrium, which of the following must be equal? A. Rates of forward and reverse reactions B. Concentrations of all species C. Total moles of reactants and products D. Energy of reactants and products

Rates of forward and reverse reactions

Which of the following solutions has the highest pH? A. 0.1 M HCl B. 0.1 M NaOH C. 0.1 M CH3COOH D. 0.1 M NH4Cl

0.1 M NaOH

Which principle explains the shift in equilibrium when pressure is increased? A. Hess's Law B. Le Chatelier's Principle C. Dalton’s Law D. Raoult’s Law

Le Chatelier's Principle

Which salt will hydrolyze in water to produce a basic solution? A. NaCl B. KNO3 C. CH3COONa D. NH4Cl

CH3COONa

The pH at the equivalence point of a weak acid–strong base titration is: A. Less than 7 B. Equal to 7 C. Greater than 7 D. Unpredictable

Greater than 7

Which species acts as a Bronsted-Lowry acid? A. OH⁻ B. H₂O C. NH₃ D. H₃O⁺

H₃O⁺

Which of the following will increase the ionization of a weak acid? A. Adding its conjugate base B. Removing H⁺ C. Increasing pressure D. Diluting the solution

Diluting the solution

What is the primary function of a buffer? A. Maintain temperature B. Control pressure C. Resist pH change D. Increase solubility

Resist pH change

In a saturated solution of PbCl₂, what would cause more PbCl₂ to dissolve? A. Adding Pb(NO₃)₂ B. Adding NaCl C. Removing Cl⁻ ions D. Increasing pressure

Removing Cl⁻ ions

Which of the following expressions is correct for the dissociation of NH₄⁺ in water? A. [NH₃][H₃O⁺]/[NH₄⁺] B. [NH₄⁺][OH⁻]/[NH₃] C. [NH₄⁺]/[NH₃][H₃O⁺] D. [NH₄⁺]/[OH⁻]

[NH₃][H₃O⁺]/[NH₄⁺]

For the reaction: CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + H₂(g), decreasing temperature shifts equilibrium: A. To the right B. To the left C. No change D. Reaction stops

To the left

What is the effect of dilution on the pH of a strong acid solution? A. Increases B. Decreases C. No effect D. Becomes neutral

Increases

Which acid is stronger based on Ka value? A. Ka = 1.8 x 10⁻⁵ B. Ka = 6.3 x 10⁻⁴ C. Ka = 3.2 x 10⁻⁷ D. Ka = 2.1 x 10⁻⁶

Ka = 6.3 x 10⁻⁴

A buffer solution contains 0.25 M acetic acid and 0.30 M sodium acetate. What is the ratio [A⁻]/[HA]? A. 1.2 B. 0.83 C. 1.5 D. 0.5

1.2

What is the effect of adding NaF to a saturated solution of CaF₂? A. Decreases solubility B. Increases solubility C. No change D. Forms gas

Decreases solubility

Which property of a precipitate is most important in gravimetric analysis? A. Color B. Low density C. Insolubility D. High volatility

Insolubility

Why is the precipitate BaSO₄ commonly used in gravimetric analysis of sulfate? A. It is colored B. It is hygroscopic C. It is highly insoluble D. It decomposes on heating

It is highly insoluble

Which reagent is used to precipitate chloride ions in gravimetric analysis? A. BaCl₂ B. AgNO₃ C. Pb(NO₃)₂ D. K₂CrO₄

AgNO₃

What is the function of digestion in gravimetric analysis? A. Dissolve the precipitate B. Form smaller crystals C. Promote crystal growth D. Oxidize analyte

Promote crystal growth

Which filter type is commonly used for collecting precipitates? A. Glass fiber B. Ashless filter paper C. Cellulose D. Cotton wool

Ashless filter paper

How is a precipitate typically dried in gravimetric analysis? A. Air-dried only B. Using desiccator C. Heating to constant mass D. Freezing

Heating to constant mass

Why must a precipitate be weighed after cooling in a desiccator? A. To remove all water B. To prevent reaction with air C. To prevent moisture absorption D. To dissolve the sample

To prevent moisture absorption

Which compound precipitates phosphate as a gravimetric method? A. Ammonium molybdate B. Silver nitrate C. Barium chloride D. Calcium chloride

Ammonium molybdate

Why is excess precipitating reagent added? A. Speed up reaction B. Ensure complete precipitation C. Increase solubility D. Avoid filtration

Ensure complete precipitation

Co-precipitation can lead to which of the following issues? A. Higher purity B. Lower recovery C. Contamination D. Faster drying

Contamination

Which term describes inclusion of impurities within the crystal lattice? A. Occlusion B. Adsorption C. Inclusion D. Agglomeration

Inclusion

What type of reaction is gravimetric precipitation based on? A. Redox B. Acid-base C. Double displacement D. Decomposition

Double displacement

Which gravimetric method involves converting the analyte to a gas? A. Volatilization B. Ignition C. Precipitation D. Complexation

Volatilization

In gravimetry, what is 'ignition'? A. Melting the sample B. Burning off impurities C. Heating to decompose or convert the precipitate D. Drying the filter

Heating to decompose or convert the precipitate

Why must you use a Gooch crucible in some gravimetric analyses? A. It filters colored solutions B. It withstands heat C. It can be weighed directly D. It is disposable

It can be weighed directly

Which of the following improves the purity of a precipitate? A. Using hot solution B. Rapid addition of reagent C. Skipping digestion D. Washing with saturated solution

Washing with saturated solution

What is the function of using dilute acids during washing? A. Increase solubility B. Prevent hydrolysis C. Prevent re-dissolution D. Remove water

Prevent re-dissolution

Which of the following could cause a gravimetric result to be too high? A. Loss during transfer B. Incomplete precipitation C. Contamination with foreign ions D. Evaporation of solvent

Contamination with foreign ions

Why must a gravimetric precipitate be stable under heating? A. To melt easily B. To decompose C. To not lose mass during drying D. To change color

To not lose mass during drying

Which property is least desirable in a gravimetric precipitate? A. High purity B. Easy to filter C. Low solubility D. Colloidal nature

Colloidal nature

What happens if a precipitate is not washed thoroughly? A. It becomes less visible B. Its mass will be lower C. Impurities remain D. It dissolves

Impurities remain

Why is constant mass important in gravimetry? A. For accuracy B. For purity C. To complete reaction D. To reduce moisture

For accuracy

In gravimetric sulfate analysis, sulfate is usually precipitated as: A. Na₂SO₄ B. BaSO₄ C. CaSO₄ D. PbSO₄

BaSO₄

What role does nitric acid play in chloride determination by AgNO₃? A. Oxidizes chloride B. Prevents co-precipitation C. Provides acidic medium D. Reduces Ag⁺

Provides acidic medium

What is the chemical formula of the precipitate used to estimate iron(III) gravimetrically? A. Fe₂O₃ B. FeCl₃ C. Fe(OH)₃ D. Fe₃O₄

Fe₂O₃

Which of the following is used to prevent peptization of a precipitate? A. Dilute acid B. Saturated solution C. Salt solution D. Ammonia

Dilute acid

What does 'peptization' refer to in gravimetric analysis? A. Drying the sample B. Formation of large crystals C. Disintegration of coagulated precipitate D. Evaporation of solvent

Disintegration of coagulated precipitate

What happens if a gravimetric sample is weighed before reaching constant mass? A. Result too high B. Result too low C. Accurate D. Unchanged

Result too high

Why should gravimetric procedures avoid exposure to air for long periods? A. Avoid oxidation B. Prevent absorption of moisture or CO₂ C. Prevent heat loss D. Improve color

Prevent absorption of moisture or CO₂

Which step ensures that a gravimetric method is selective for the analyte? A. Use of masking agents B. Use of excess reagent C. Slow filtration D. Air drying

Use of masking agents

Which type of titration involves the reaction of an acid with a base? A. Redox titration B. Precipitation titration C. Complexometric titration D. Acid-base titration

Acid-base titration

Which indicator is commonly used in a strong acid–strong base titration? A. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl orange C. Bromothymol blue D. Eriochrome Black T

Bromothymol blue

At the equivalence point of a titration, which of the following is true? A. Titrant is in excess B. Analyte is in excess C. Moles of titrant = moles of analyte D. pH = 7 always

Moles of titrant = moles of analyte

In a redox titration involving KMnO₄, what is the role of KMnO₄? A. Reducing agent B. Complexing agent C. Precipitating agent D. Oxidizing agent

Oxidizing agent

Which of the following can be titrated using EDTA? A. NaCl B. Mg²⁺ C. HCl D. Iodine

Mg²⁺

Which is the color change of phenolphthalein in a basic solution? A. Colorless to red B. Red to colorless C. Yellow to blue D. Colorless to green

Colorless to red

In complexometric titrations, which indicator is commonly used for Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺? A. Phenolphthalein B. Eriochrome Black T C. Methyl red D. Methyl orange

Eriochrome Black T

Why is a buffer solution used in EDTA titrations? A. Control pH for complex formation B. Change indicator color C. Prevent precipitation D. Dilute the analyte

Control pH for complex formation

Which unit expresses titrant concentration? A. mol/kg B. mol/L C. g/mL D. mol/g

mol/L

What is a primary standard? A. Solution with known pH B. Substance with known molarity C. Highly pure and stable substance used to prepare standard solutions D. Any standard solution

Highly pure and stable substance used to prepare standard solutions

Which condition is ideal for titration end point detection? A. Color change before equivalence point B. Color change after equivalence point C. Color change at equivalence point D. No color change

Color change at equivalence point

Why is it important to standardize a NaOH solution? A. It is unstable B. It is colored C. It is volatile D. It reacts slowly

It is unstable

Which acid is commonly used to standardize a NaOH solution? A. Acetic acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Potassium hydrogen phthalate (KHP)

Potassium hydrogen phthalate (KHP)

Which type of titration is used for chloride determination? A. Redox B. Acid-base C. Complexometric D. Precipitation

Precipitation

Mohr’s method involves the titration of chloride using: A. AgNO₃ and K₂CrO₄ indicator B. KMnO₄ and H₂SO₄ C. EDTA and Eriochrome Black T D. NaOH and phenolphthalein

AgNO₃ and K₂CrO₄ indicator

Volhard's method differs from Mohr's by using: A. Back-titration with Fe³⁺ B. Direct titration with Ba²⁺ C. Oxidation with KMnO₄ D. Complexation with EDTA

Back-titration with Fe³⁺

What is the formula used to calculate analyte concentration in titrations? A. M₁V₁ = M₂V₂ B. C = m/V C. Q = mcΔT D. PV = nRT

M₁V₁ = M₂V₂

Which titration technique involves the use of a burette and a conical flask? A. Back titration B. Direct titration C. Gravimetric analysis D. Spectrophotometry

Direct titration

Why is an indicator used in titrations? A. Increase solubility B. Stabilize the solution C. Signal the end point D. Lower pH

Signal the end point

What can cause a titration result to be falsely high? A. Excess titrant added after endpoint B. Weak acid used C. Small flask D. Fast stirring

Excess titrant added after endpoint

In a titration curve, the steepest part corresponds to: A. Initial reaction B. Half equivalence point C. Equivalence point D. End of titration

Equivalence point

Why must a burette be rinsed with the titrant before use? A. To warm it up B. To remove air C. To ensure correct concentration D. To prevent dilution

To prevent dilution

Which is a disadvantage of manual titrations? A. Low cost B. High accuracy C. Subjectivity in endpoint detection D. Speed

Subjectivity in endpoint detection

Back titration is preferred when: A. Analyte is a weak acid B. Reaction is very fast C. No suitable indicator exists D. Analyte is colored

No suitable indicator exists

What does a titration curve for a weak base–strong acid look like? A. High initial pH, sharp drop B. Low initial pH, steady rise C. Flat curve D. pH remains constant

High initial pH, sharp drop

Which of the following is used to standardize EDTA solutions? A. CaCO₃ B. MgSO₄ C. ZnCl₂ D. CaCl₂

CaCl₂

In a redox titration with iodine, which indicator is typically used? A. Starch B. Phenolphthalein C. Methyl orange D. Methylene blue

Starch

What causes a persistent pink color in phenolphthalein titrations? A. Excess acid B. Correct end point C. Excess base D. Low pH

Excess base

Which term describes the titration volume needed to reach the end point? A. Aliquot B. Titer C. Burette reading D. Blank

Titer

Which law relates absorbance to concentration in spectrophotometry? A. Boyle’s law B. Lambert-Beer’s law C. Raoult’s law D. Faraday’s law

Lambert-Beer’s law

What is the unit of absorbance in UV-Vis spectrophotometry? A. nm B. M C. Unitless D. cm⁻¹

Unitless

What is the typical wavelength range for UV-Vis spectrophotometry? A. 100–300 nm B. 200–800 nm C. 400–900 nm D. 600–1000 nm

200–800 nm

Which type of cuvette is used for UV measurements? A. Plastic B. Glass C. Quartz D. Metal

Quartz

Which component of a spectrophotometer selects the desired wavelength? A. Detector B. Monochromator C. Sample cell D. Light source

Monochromator

In atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS), what is the primary light source? A. Laser B. X-ray tube C. Hollow cathode lamp D. Halogen lamp

Hollow cathode lamp

Flame photometry is mainly used to detect: A. Transition metals B. Halogens C. Alkali and alkaline earth metals D. Organic compounds

Alkali and alkaline earth metals

Which is a major advantage of atomic absorption over flame photometry? A. Lower cost B. Better sensitivity and selectivity C. Faster results D. Less sample prep

Better sensitivity and selectivity

In UV-Vis spectrophotometry, stray light causes: A. Increased absorbance B. Decreased absorbance C. No effect D. Shift in wavelength

Decreased absorbance

Which detector is most commonly used in modern UV-Vis spectrophotometers? A. Photomultiplier tube B. CCD C. Thermocouple D. Bolometer

Photomultiplier tube

The molar absorptivity (ε) in Beer's Law has units of: A. M⁻¹ cm⁻¹ B. cm⁻¹ C. mol/cm D. L

M⁻¹ cm⁻¹

What causes a deviation from Beer’s Law at high concentrations? A. Temperature changes B. Stray light C. Refractive index change and molecular interactions D. Short pathlength

Refractive index change and molecular interactions

Which technique involves excitation of electrons to measure emission? A. AAS B. IR C. Flame photometry D. Fluorescence spectroscopy

Fluorescence spectroscopy

What is the typical sample state for AAS analysis? A. Solid B. Gas C. Aerosol in flame D. Liquid only

Aerosol in flame

Which parameter increases sensitivity in flame AAS? A. Longer pathlength B. High flame temperature C. Wider slit width D. Low sample volume

High flame temperature

A double beam spectrophotometer compares: A. Two analytes B. Sample and blank C. Two wavelengths D. Sample and solvent

Sample and blank

What is the purpose of using a blank in spectrophotometry? A. Check lamp performance B. Zero the instrument C. Measure wavelength D. Improve resolution

Zero the instrument

Which part of the spectrum does infrared (IR) spectroscopy analyze? A. X-ray B. UV C. Visible D. Vibrational region

Vibrational region

The term transmittance refers to: A. Light absorbed B. Light scattered C. Light reflected D. Light passed through a sample

Light passed through a sample

What happens to absorbance when concentration doubles? A. Decreases B. Increases linearly C. Stays same D. Drops to zero

Increases linearly

Which metal is commonly detected using AAS? A. Na B. K C. Fe D. All of the above

All of the above

What causes spectral interferences in AAS? A. Too much light B. Matrix absorption or overlapping lines C. High pressure D. Solvent boiling

Matrix absorption or overlapping lines

In fluorescence, the emitted light has: A. Higher energy B. Lower energy C. Same energy D. No energy

Lower energy

Which parameter affects resolution in UV-Vis spectrometry? A. Slit width B. Lamp type C. Sample size D. Voltage

Slit width

Which component of a flame photometer disperses light? A. Nebulizer B. Filter C. Monochromator D. Photodetector

Monochromator

Which technique is based on vibrational transitions? A. UV-Vis B. AAS C. IR spectroscopy D. Flame photometry

IR spectroscopy

In fluorescence spectroscopy, which variable is kept constant? A. Excitation wavelength B. Emission wavelength C. Slit width D. Detector voltage

Excitation wavelength

A calibration curve in UV-Vis is plotted as: A. Absorbance vs. time B. Absorbance vs. wavelength C. Absorbance vs. concentration D. Transmittance vs. volume

Absorbance vs. concentration

Which light source is typical for visible region spectroscopy? A. Deuterium lamp B. Xenon lamp C. Tungsten-halogen lamp D. Laser diode

Tungsten-halogen lamp

Which statement about Beer's Law is true? A. Only applies at high concentrations B. Depends on molar absorptivity C. Independent of path length D. Only used in IR

Depends on molar absorptivity

What is the molarity of a solution containing 0.5 mol of NaCl in 1 L of solution? A) 0.25 M B) 0.5 M C) 1 M D) 2 M

B) 0.5 M

Which unit is commonly used for parts per million (ppm)? A) g/L B) mg/L C) mol/L D) µg/mL

B) mg/L

What is the % w/v of a solution with 5 g of solute in 100 mL of solution? A) 0.5% B) 5% C) 50% D) 0.05%

B) 5%

Which formula is used to calculate dilution? A) P1V1 = P2V2 B) M1V1 = M2V2 C) W = mg D) pH = -log[H⁺]

B) M1V1 = M2V2

How many grams of NaCl are needed to prepare 1 L of 0.1 M solution? (Molar mass = 58.44 g/mol) A) 5.844 g B) 0.5844 g C) 58.44 g D) 1.0 g

A) 5.844 g

Which formula calculates normality? A) equivalents/L B) mol/L C) mass/volume D) grams/mol

A) equivalents/L

If 25 mL of 0.2 M HCl is diluted to 100 mL, what is the final concentration? A) 0.05 M B) 0.1 M C) 0.2 M D) 0.8 M

A) 0.05 M

Which unit is used for molality? A) mol/kg B) mol/L C) g/L D) mol/mL

A) mol/kg

How many moles are in 10 g of NaOH? (Molar mass = 40 g/mol) A) 0.25 mol B) 4 mol C) 0.4 mol D) 10 mol

A) 0.25 mol

What is the % w/w of a solution with 10 g solute in 90 g solvent? A) 10% B) 9% C) 11.1% D) 5%

C) 11.1%

What is the mass percent of NaCl in a solution with 5 g NaCl in 95 g water? A) 5% B) 10% C) 20% D) 50%

B) 5%

What is the mole fraction of ethanol in a solution with 1 mol ethanol and 3 mol water? A) 0.25 B) 0.33 C) 0.5 D) 0.75

A) 0.25

Which formula relates absorbance (A) to concentration (c)? A) A = εbc B) A = cV C) A = PV/nRT D) A = mc

A) A = εbc

If a solution has an absorbance of 0.3, path length 1 cm, and ε = 100, what is the concentration? A) 0.003 M B) 0.03 M C) 3 M D) 0.3 M

B) 0.003 M

What is the concentration in ppm of 1 mg of solute in 1 L of solution? A) 1 ppm B) 0.1 ppm C) 10 ppm D) 100 ppm

A) 1 ppm

Which equation relates pH to hydrogen ion concentration? A) pH = -log[H⁺] B) pH = log[H⁺] C) pH = -ln[H⁺] D) pH = [H⁺]

A) pH = -log[H⁺]

If a solution has [H⁺] = 1 x 10⁻⁵ M, what is the pH? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

C) 5

What is the pOH of a solution with [OH⁻] = 1 x 10⁻³ M? A) 3 B) 11 C) 10 D) 7

A) 3

What is the total normality if 1 L contains 0.1 N HCl and 0.2 N H₂SO₄? A) 0.3 N B) 0.4 N C) 0.2 N D) 0.5 N

B) 0.4 N

How is the analyte concentration found in titration? A) Using mass percent B) From indicator color C) Using titration formula D) From solvent weight

C) Using titration formula

Which parameter affects the accuracy of molarity calculations? A) Pressure B) Light C) Volume and temperature D) Density of air

C) Volume and temperature

How many equivalents in 1 mol of H₂SO₄? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0.5

B) 2

What is the concentration in mol/L of 98 g of H₂SO₄ in 1 L? (Molar mass = 98 g/mol) A) 0.98 M B) 1 M C) 9.8 M D) 98 M

B) 1 M

How is percent error calculated? A) (Experimental - Theoretical) / Theoretical x 100 B) Theoretical / Experimental C) Mean x SD D) (Measured - Actual) / Measured

A) (Experimental - Theoretical) / Theoretical x 100

Which term refers to closeness to true value? A) Precision B) Sensitivity C) Accuracy D) Specificity

C) Accuracy

Which term refers to reproducibility of results? A) Precision B) Accuracy C) Selectivity D) Calibration

A) Precision

Which is a source of random error? A) Weighing error B) Instrument drift C) Improper calibration D) Temperature fluctuation

D) Temperature fluctuation

What does ppm stand for? A) Percent per mol B) Parts per million C) Partial pressure measurement D) Peak power mean

B) Parts per million

Which of the following is a volumetric unit? A) g B) mol C) mL D) ppm

C) mL

What is the density if mass = 5 g and volume = 2 mL? A) 2.5 g/mL B) 0.4 g/mL C) 10 g/mL D) 3 g/mL

A) 2.5 g/mL