Day 14-28 Flashcards
(61 cards)
An investor purchased a bond classified as a held-to-maturity investment between interest dates at a discount. At the purchase date, the carrying amount of the bond is more than the:
Cash paid to seller (yes/no)
Face amount of bond (yes/no)
No/No
Correct! When a bond is purchased at a discount, the price paid is less than face value. Any cash paid to the seller for accrued interest is debited to interest receivable, not to the bond investment. Thus, the carrying value is the portion of the total amount paid attributable to the total bond price, exclusive of accrued interest. The carrying value must be less than the cash paid to the seller, which includes accrued interest.
The credit losses associated with the impairment of debt securities are separated in which of the following circumstances?
- When the entity has the positive ability and intent to sell the impaired security
- When the entity has the positive ability and intent to hold the impaired security
- When the entity has positive ability and intent to hold the impaired security and expects to recover the entire cost basis of the impaired security
- When the entity has positive ability and intent to hold the impaired security and does not expect to recover the entire cost basis of the impaired security
When the entity has positive ability and intent to hold the impaired security and does not expect to recover the entire cost basis of the impaired security
When the entity has positive ability and intent to hold the impaired security and does not expect to recover the entire cost basis of the impaired security, the credit losses are recognized in earnings.
Zinc Company does not elect to use the fair value option for reporting financial assets. An unrealized gain, net of tax, on Zinc’s held-to-maturity portfolio of marketable debt securities should be reflected in the current financial statements as
- An extraordinary item shown as a direct increase to retained earnings.
- A current gain resulting from holding marketable debt securities.
- A footnote or parenthetical disclosure only.
- A valuation allowance and included in the equity section of the statement of financial position.
An unrealized gain on held-to-maturity securities is disclosed only in the notes to the financial statements. Gains are reflected in the financial statements only when they are realized (i.e., upon sale or for other than temporary declines in value). The year-end financial statements would present the held-to-maturity portfolio at cost. Parenthetical or footnote disclosure would indicate their market value.
Which, if either, of the following statements concerning the transfer of investments between categories under IFRS No. 9 is/are correct?
I. Only investments in debt securities may be transferred between categories.
II. When investments are transferred between categories, financial statements of prior periods presented for comparative purposes must not be restated.
1 only
Inco, Inc., a U.S. entity, has elected to prepare financial statements in accordance with IFRS to provide to its foreign suppliers. Inco has the following information concerning an investment in the bonds of Tryco, Inc., as of December 31
Par value $100,000 Original cost 108,000 Current premium 3,500 Fair value 105,000 Inco's business model is to regularly invest in debt to receive the cash flow provided by interest and the repayment of principal on maturity. The bonds are not associated with any other asset or liability. Which one of the following is the amount at which Inco should report its investment in Tryco in its December 31 IFRS-based Statement of Financial Position?
103,500
Under IFRS No. 9, investments in debt securities made under an entity’s business model plan to make and hold such investments solely to receive cash from interest and principal repayment, and when there is no accounting mismatch, should be reported at amortized cost. Amortized cost is par value ($100,000) plus the unamortized premium ($3,500), or $100,000 + $3,500 = $103,500, the correct answer.
Which, if any, of the following transfers between categories is possible under IFRS No. 9 for investments in debt securities?
Amortized cost to fair value (yes/no)
Fair value to amortized cost (yes/no)
yes/yes
Under IFRS No. 9, investments in debt securities may be (1) transferred from amortized cost (when the investment originally meets both the business model test and the cash flow characteristic test) to fair value when the investment fails to continue to meet both the business model test and the cash flow characteristic test and (2) transferred from fair value to amortized cost when an investment that originally fails to meet both the business model test and the cash flow characteristic test subsequently meets both tests.
Which of the following is a pair of values that are compared to determine the amount of a possible impairment loss on an intangible asset, with an indefinite life, other than goodwill?
- Fair value, present value.
- Carrying value, book value.
- Future value, carrying value.
- Fair value, carrying value.
Fair value, carrying value
A possible impairment of an indefinite life intangible other than goodwill is determined by comparing the carrying value and the fair value of the asset.
Wind Co. incurred organization costs of $6,000 at the beginning of its first year of operations. How should Wind treat the organization costs in its financial statements in accordance with GAAP?
- Never amortized.
- Amortized over 60 months.
- Amortized over 40 years.
- Expensed immediately.
expensed immediately
In the past, firms capitalized and amortized organization costs. However, now, organization costs are expensed immediately. Such costs are internally generated. Typically, only costs paid to outside entities are capitalized to intangible assets, and only those intangibles with definite lives are amortized.
After an impairment loss is recognized, the adjusted carrying amount of the intangible asset shall be its new accounting basis. Which of the following statements about subsequent reversal of a previously recognized impairment loss is correct?
It is prohibited.
It is required when the reversal is considered permanent.
It must be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.
It is encouraged, but not required.
it is prohibited.
All intangibles are subject to impairment, but the resulting impairment losses cannot be reversed. Although impairment losses on plant assets held for disposal can be reversed to the extent of previous losses, this is not the case for intangibles.
Grayson Co. incurred significant costs in defending its patent rights. Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of the related litigation costs?
- Litigation costs would be capitalized regardless of the outcome of the litigation.
- Litigation costs would be expensed regardless of the outcome of the litigation.
- Litigation costs would be capitalized if the patent right is successfully defended.
- Litigation costs would be capitalized only if the patent was purchased rather than internally developed.
Litigation costs would be capitalized if the patent right is successfully defended.
Litigation costs can be capitalized only if the defense of the patent was successful.
On January 2, 20X4, Beal, Inc. acquired a $70,000 whole-life insurance policy on its president. The annual premium is $2,000. The company is the owner and beneficiary.
Beal charged officer’s life insurance expense as follows:
20X4 $2,000 20X5 1,800 20X6 1,500 20X7 1,100 Total $6,400
In Beal’s December 31, 20X7 Balance Sheet, the investment in cash surrender value should be:
$0
$1,600
$6,400
$8,000
1600
The $1,600 ending cash surrender value is the difference between the total premiums paid ($8,000 = 4 × $2,000) and the total amount charged to insurance expense ($6,400). An increasing portion of the premiums on life insurance are allocated to the investment feature of life insurance each year.
tandard Co. spent $10,000,000 on its new software package that is to be used only for internal use. The amount spent is for costs after the application development stage. The economic life of the product is expected to be three years. The equipment on which the package is to be used is being depreciated over five years.
What amount of expense should Standard report on its income statement for the first full year?
3,333,333
The cost of developing software for internal purposes is expensed up to the “application development stage” at which point the effort appears to be leading to a useable application. After that point, costs are capitalized. With a three-year useful life and $10 million capitalized cost, the amortization expense is one-third, or $3.33 million.
The useful life of the product is used rather than the useful life of the equipment because new software can be developed after three years for use on that equipment.
ellow Co. spent $12,000,000 during the current year developing its new software package. Of this amount, $4,000,000 was spent before it was at the application development stage and the package was only to be used internally. The package was completed during the year and is expected to have a 4-year useful life.
Yellow has a policy of taking a full-year’s amortization in the first year. After the development stage, $50,000 was spent on training employees to use the program.
What amount should Yellow report as an expense for the current year?
6,050,000
(1) software development costs incurred before the application development stage was reached, $4,000,000;
(2) amortization of capitalized software development costs incurred after the application development stage was reached, $8,000,000/4 = $2,000,000;
(3) $50,000 training costs.
The sum of these is $6,050,000.
Training costs are expensed as incurred. The application development stage is the point after which there is sufficient evidence of a product that software development costs are capitalized and amortized. Such costs will benefit future periods.
In what cases are software development costs capitalized as intangible and amortized?
when they occur after the point of technological feasibility.
A collection agency spent $50,000 in staff payroll costs investigating the feasibility of developing its own software program for tracking customer contacts. After committing to funding the project, software developers were paid $200,000 to write the code, and the company incurred $70,000 in general and administrative costs related to training and software maintenance. What amount should be capitalized?
200,000
The only costs that can be capitalized is the cost of software development; the $200,000 to write the code. The investigation of the feasibility and the administrative costs for training and maintenance must be expensed.
Under IFRS, the test for asset impairment is to compare the carrying value of the intangible asset to its recoverable amount. Which of the following is the recoverable amount according to IFRS?
- The greater of future undiscounted cash flows or future discounted cash flows.
- The greater of future discounted cash flows or fair value.
- The greater of fair value less cost to sell or value in use.
- The greater of fair value or value in use.
The greater of fair value less cost to sell or value in use
When selling shares and there is a brokerage fees involved should you debit brokerage fees?
yes… don’t debit “brokerage fees or anything”
Choose the best description of accretion expense associated with an asset retirement obligation.
- Interest expense
- Finance charge
- Growth in asset retirement obligation
- Depletion expense
Growth in asset retirement obligation.
Accretion expense is simply the increase in the asset retirement obligation over time. The asset retirement obligation is initially recorded at present value or fair value, and over time grows with interest until it reaches its future value—the amount due. Accretion expense is similar to the interest cost component of pension expense—the growth in projected benefit obligation. It is caused by the fact that the asset retirement obligation is recorded at present value but not paid until later.
The recording of an asset retirement obligation for a natural resources development site increases which of the following for the firm involved in the site?
Liability? (yes/no)
Depletion base? (yes/no)
yes/yes
A firm’s natural resource exploitation site will require an expenditure of $5 million to reclaim the site for environmental purposes. That expenditure is expected to be made five years from now. The present value today of that amount is $3.5 million. Because of this obligation, by what amount will (1) total depletion on the site increase and (2) how much accretion expense will be recognized, over the five years (in millions)?
3.5……..1.5
The natural resources account is increased by the asset retirement obligation, which is the present value of the $5 to be paid later, or $3.5. Therefore, total depletion over the venture’s life increases by that amount. The growth in the obligation over time is the accretion expense. The $3.5 amount will grow to $5 in five years, at which time the expenditure of that amount is made. The journal entry to record the asset retirement obligation is a debit to the natural resources account of $3.5 and a credit to asset retirement obligation of $3.5.
Which of the following information about threatened litigation should not be considered to determine whether an accrual is appropriate prior to an issuance of a company’s financial statements?
- The period in which the underlying cause of the threatened litigation occurred.
- The degree of probability of an unfavorable outcome.
- The ability to make a reasonable estimate of the amount of loss.
- The period in which the threatened litigation became known to management.
The period in which the threatened litigation became known to management.
This question is stated in the null form (what is not considered). So, let’s review what must be considered to determine if an accrual is appropriate. A contingency is accrued if it is probable to occur, estimable, and an event or transaction has occurred. This response refers to the period that management becomes aware of the litigation. This is not one of the factors we would take into consideration to determine if an accrual is necessary, therefore this is the correct response.
Vadis Co. sells appliances that include a three-year warranty. Service calls under the warranty are performed by an independent mechanic under a contract with Vadis. Based on experience, warranty costs are estimated at $30 for each machine sold.
When should Vadis recognize these warranty costs?
When the machines are sold
At the point of sale, Vadis has committed to service the products it sells. The firm has incurred a recognized obligation at that point because it is both probable and estimable (FAS 5).
The cost of the warranty, therefore, is recognized in the year of sale. The cost (expense) is the temporary account that measures the reduction in net assets from operations (earnings) caused by the increase in the obligation.
A less acceptable explanation is that the warranty cost or expense should be matched against the sales it helped to produce. Either explanation leads to the same result, however.
Which of the following is not a contingent liability under international accounting standards?
- A provision with a 60% chance of requiring an outflow of benefits, amount is estimable.
- A provision with a 40% chance of requiring an outflow of benefits, amount is estimable.
- A provision with a 90% chance of requiring an outflow of benefits, amount not estimable.
- A possible obligation.
A provision with a 60% chance of requiring an outflow of benefits, amount is estimable
A probable (> 50%) outflow of benefits is implied, and the amount is estimable. This is a recognized liability for international accounting standards, not a contingent liability
On October 1, 20X4, Fleur Retailers signed a 4-month, 16% note payable to finance the purchase of holiday merchandise.
At that date, there was no direct method of pricing the merchandise, and the note’s market rate of interest was 11%. Fleur recorded the purchase at the note’s face amount. All of the merchandise was sold by December 1, 20X4.
Fleur’s 20X4 financial statements reported interest payable and interest expense on the note for three months at 16%. All amounts due on the note were paid February 1, 20X5.
As a result of Fleur’s accounting treatment of the note, interest, and merchandise, which of the following items was reported correctly?
12/31/x4 Retained earnings?
12/31/x4 Interest payable?
Retained earnings, no….
Interest payable…. yes.
Interest expense should reflect market rate, but they were recording it at the stated rate, meaning that earnings/net income etc. would be incorrectly stated.
On the other hand, the interest payable reflects the stated rate which determines the cash amount to be paid. Interest payable is correctly stated.