DAY 2 YARN Flashcards

(605 cards)

1
Q

What is the normal boiling point of water in absolute English units?
A. 100
B. 212
C. 373
D. 672

A

D. 672

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In this process, air is alternately compressed, cooled, and expanded, each expansion results in a considerable reduction in temperature. At low temperatures, the molecules move more slowly and occupy less space, so the air becomes liquid.

A. Lindé
B. Elliott
C. Claude
D. Kellogg

A

A. Lindé

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

It is a modified process for production of soda ash that is generally more efficient and more environment-friendly.
A. Haber
B. Collin
C. Solvay
D. LeBlanc

A

C. Solvay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lime contains about 90% CaO. Percentage CaO present in limestone is about?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 70
D. 80

A

B. 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

It is a thermal process equipment used in canning foods.
A. Retort
B. Steamer
C. Tunnel
D. Pasteurization

A

A. Retort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which measuring device is best used if a red-hot object does not reach a temperature range of 800-1600°C?
A. Thermocouple
B. Optical pyrometer
C. Photoelectric pyrometer
D. Radiation pyrometer

A

A. Thermocouple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diatomaceous earth is a/an
A. Explosive
B. Filter aid
C. Filter medium
D. Catalyst

A

B. Filter aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow glycerine?
A. silica gel
B. alumina
C. fuller’s earth
D. activated carbon

A

D. activated carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which industry does carbon black is mostly used?
A. Rubber
B. Paint
C. Steel
D. Petroleum

A

A. Rubber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The aim of cracking is to produce _________.
A. gasoline
B. lube oil
C. petroleum
D. coke

A

A. gasoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gun powder, which is an explosive comprises of charcoal, sulphur and _________.
A. glycerine
B. saltpeter
C. nitroglycerine
D. dynamite

A

B. saltpeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following constituents of a fuel does not contribute to its calorific value on combustion?
A. Hydrogen
B. Sulfur
C. Carbon
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is the main component of coal tars?
A. Phenol
B. Toluene
C. naphthalene
D. benzene

A

C. naphthalene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by
A. potassium hydroxide
B. dilute potassium carbonate
C. cuprous chloride
D. alkaline pyragallol solution

A

A. potassium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide (but containing no hydrogen or its compounds) is burnt in pure oxygen at a constant pressure, its gross calorific value as compared to net calorific value will be:
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. data insufficient; can’t be predicted

A

C. same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The gas which contributes maximum to the heating value of natural gas is
A. CO
B. CO2
C. H2
D. CH4

A

D. CH4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For every 10% increase in the excess air, the fuel consumption increases by __________ percent.
A. 0.1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10

A

A. 0.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In order to improve the octane number of a fuel, a certain additive is added. However, it was discovered that exposure to exhaust that has this compound can cause paralysis, appetite loss, nervous depression, gastritis, and diarrhea. What is the identity of the compound?
A. ethanol
B. ethylene glycol
C. butanol and wax base
D. tetraethyl lead

A

D. tetraethyl lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The process employing desorption of the absorbed solute by solvent-washing is called
A. elution
B. osmosis
C. reverse osmosis
D. sublimation

A

A. elution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Solvent lean phase is known as
A. Extract
B. Raffinate
C. Residue
D. None of the mentioned

A

B. Raffinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Leaching of coarse solid lumps is also termed as
A. Decoction
B. Dissolution
C. Percolation
D. Agitation and settling

A

C. Percolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Degree of freedom for leaching and solvent extraction process is
A. 1
B. 3
C. 0
D. 2

A

B. 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to leaching.
A. Fine solids cannot be leached in a Pachuka tank
B. Door classifier can be used for leaching of coarse solids
C. Vegedata seeds can be leached in either of Bollman extractor, Rotocel or Kennedy extractor
D. Very high temperature is not needed for the leaching of sugar beet

A

A. Fine solids cannot be leached in a Pachuka tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Bollman extractor
    A. Is a static bed leaching equipment
    B. Is used for extraction of oil from oilseed
    C. Is a centrifugal extractor
    D. Employs only counter-current extraction
A

B. Is used for extraction of oil from oilseed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In order to reduce the time required for the removing solute the sugar beets are cut into slices known as A. Cossette B. Mush C. Consot D. All of the mentioned
A. Cossette
26
Rose oil is extracted from rose leaves using __________distillation. A. high pressure B. low pressure C. extractive D. steam
D. steam
27
_________ mixing is applicable for differential contactors. A. Axial B. Radial C. Both axial and radial D. None of the mentioned
A. Axial
28
All of the following are assumptions in ideal leaching EXCEPT? A. The inert solid is not dissolved in the solvent. B. Sufficient contact time is provided so that all solute is dissolved in the solvent. C. The concentration of solution in the final stage and in the initial stages are equal. D. The solute is infinitely soluble in solvent.
C. The concentration of solution in the final stage and in the initial stages are equal.
29
Fractional solvent extraction A. Employs only one solvent B. Employs two solvents C. Results in low interfacial tension D. None of these
B. Employs two solvents
30
Which one of the following devices is not used for both the absorption as well as the liquid-liquid extraction processes? A. Packed towers B. Plate towers C. Spray towers D. Wetted wall column
D. Wetted wall column
31
In liquid extraction, if the selectivity is unity, then A. Separation of the constituents is the most effective B. No separation will occur C. Amount of solvent required will be minimum D. Solvent flow rate should be very low
B. No separation will occur
32
The flow of fluid in a packed bed typically follows which characteristic? A. Cross-flow B. Laminar behavior C. Turbulent motion D. A combination of laminar and turbulent behaviors
D. A combination of laminar and turbulent behaviors
33
In a gas-liquid absorption column, for obtaining the maximum absorption efficiency A. liquid stream should be distributed uniformly. B. gas stream should be distributed uniformly. C. both gas as well as liquid streams should be distributed uniformly. D. by passing should be completely avoided.
C. both gas as well as liquid streams should be distributed uniformly.
34
When the gas to be dissolved in liquid is a/an __________ then normally co-current adsorber are used. A. mixture of two gases B. pure gas C. ideal gas D. sparingly soluble gas
B. pure gas
35
For gas absorption, low viscosity solvents are preferred, because of their A. better flow characteristics. B. low pumping pressure drop. C. rapid absorption rates. D. all (a), (b) and (c).
D. all (a), (b) and (c).
36
A measure of the difficulty of the separation A. NTU B. HTU C. Kya D. M
A. NTU
37
Absorption factor, for a fixed degree of absorption from a fixed amount of gas should be A. 1 B. > 1 C. < 1 D.
B. > 1
38
If mass transfer and surface area are increased, the value of the height unit becomes A. small B. infinite C. zero D. large
A. small
39
Which of the following provides maximum contact surface for a liquid-vapor system? A. Packed tower B. Bubble-cap plate column C. Sieve-plate column D. Wetted wall column
A. Packed tower
40
Which of the following gas-liquid contacting devices incurs the least pressure drop for a particular duty? A. Grid tray tower B. Perforated tray tower C. Wetted wall tower D. Bubble cap tower
D. Bubble cap tower
41
In batch distillation, in order to maintain a constant distillate concentration, the reflux must A. be slowly increased B. slowly decreased C. maintained high for long time D. none of these
B. slowly decreased
42
Flash distillation is suitable for separating the constituents of a binary system, which A. Form minimum boiling azeotrope B. Have very wide boiling points C. Have very close boiling points D. Form constant boiling azeotrope
B. Have very wide boiling points
43
In distillation columns, the number of bubble caps per tray primarily depends upon the A. Allowable liquid velocity B. Allowable gas velocity C. Allowable gas and liquid velocities D. Feed composition
C. Allowable gas and liquid velocities
44
When the feed to a distillation column is a saturated liquid, slope of the feed line is A. Zero B. Unity C. Infinity D. None of these
C. Infinity
45
Smoker's equation for the calculation of number of equilibrium stages in a continuous binary distillation column is used, when the A. Relative volatility is close to one (e.g., separation of close boiling isomers) B. Feed is not at its bubble point C. Number of equilibrium stages in only stripping section is to be calculated D. Number of equilibrium stages required is likely to be very small
A. Relative volatility is close to one (e.g., separation of close boiling isomers)
46
Flooding in a column results due to A. High pressure drop B. Low pressure drop C. Low velocity of the liquid D. High temperature
A. High pressure drop
47
On moving the feed line (q-line) from saturated liquid feed (vertical position) to saturated vapor feed (horizontal feed), if the slope of both the operating lines are to be increased, then it will result in A. greater degree of separation with a fixed number of trays B. increased reboiler load C. increased reflux ratio D. None of these.
C. increased reflux ratio
48
In distillation, overhead product contains A. Only one component B. Two components C. Any number of components D. Only saturated liquid
C. Any number of components
49
Which of the following cannot be the value of absolute pressure of a fluid at any point? A. 0 bar B. -1 bar C. 1.45 bar D. 24 bar
B. -1 bar
50
Friction factor for fluid flow in pipe does not depend upon the _______. A. Pipe length B. Pipe roughness C. Fluid density & viscosity D. Mass flow rate of fluid
A. Pipe length
51
. In the complete turbulence zone (in rough pipes), the A. rough and smooth pipes have the same friction factor. B. laminar film covers the roughness projections. C. friction factor depends upon Nre only. D. friction factor is independent of the relative roughness.
D. friction factor is independent of the relative roughness.
52
In deriving Bernoulli's equation, the fluid is assumed to be __________. A. Steady, frictionless, with the density being pressure dependent B. Uniform, steady, incompressible, along a streamline C. Incompressible, frictionless, steady, along a streamline D. None of these
C. Incompressible, frictionless, steady, along a streamline
53
Two fluids are flowing through two similar pipes of the same diameter. The Reynolds Number is the same. For the same flow rate, if the viscosity of a fluid is reduced to half the value of the first fluid, the pressure drop will ________. A. Increase B. Decrease C. Remain unchanged D. Cannot say
B. Decrease
54
Absolute viscosity of a fluid is a function of the _____ of the fluid. A. motion B. pressure & temperature C. shearing stress D. both B and C
D. both B and C
55
If three pipes of different diameters, lengths & friction factors are connected in parallel, then A. Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 B. V1 = V2 = V3 C. Q1 = Q2 = Q3 D. fF,1 = fF,2 = fF,3
A. Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
56
Which of the following pipe bends will incur the largest head loss? A. U-bend B. 30 degree bend C. 45 degree bend D. 90 degree bend
A. U-bend
57
A piezometer provided in the pipe measures _______. A. Dynamic Pressure B. Static Pressure C. Friction Factor D. None of these
B. Static Pressure
58
Hydraulic intensifier is used for increasing the A. Rate of velocity of liquid supply B. Rate of flow through delivery pipeline of a pump C. Intensity of pressure of the liquid D. Momentum rate through delivery pipe
C. Intensity of pressure of the liquid
59
In centrifugal pumps, when cavitation occurs, the pressure of the impeller eye or vane becomes A. Less than atmospheric pressure B. Greater than atmospheric pressure C. Less than liquid vapor pressure D. Greater than liquid vapor pressure
C. Less than liquid vapor pressure
60
Which of the following is the most common pump for pumping either raw sewage or sludge? A. Reciprocating Pump B. Centrifugal Pump C. Gear Pump D. Electromagnetic Pump
A. Reciprocating Pump
61
The net positive suction head (NPSH) of a centrifugal pump is defined as the sum of the ________ and the pressure head at the _________. A. Discharge minus the vapor pressure of the liquid at discharge temperature B. Suction minus the vapor pressure of the liquid at suction temperature C. Discharge D. Suction
B. Suction minus the vapor pressure of the liquid at suction temperature
62
Surge tanks are provided in high pressure water pipelines to ________. A. Facilitate easy dismantling of pipeline for cleaning and maintenance B. Store a definite quantity of water all the time C. Reduce the water hammer D. None of the above
C. Reduce the water hammer
63
Screen capacity is not a function of A. Its openings size B. Screening mechanism C. Screening surface D. Atmospheric humidity
D. Atmospheric humidity
64
Ratio of rate of dissolution of cube to sphere? A. 1.24 B. 0.54 C. 1.94 D. 1.04
A. 1.24
65
Drag force acting on a body does not depend upon the: A. Density of the fluid B. Density of the body C. Velocity of the body D. Projected area of the body
B. Density of the body
66
Separation of particles of various sizes, shapes, and densities by allowing them to settle in a fluid is called: A. Froth flotation B. Classification C. Clarification D. Thickening
B. Classification
67
Which of the following material handling set of equipment is not suitable for moving materials in varying paths? A. Hand trolley B. Belt conveyor C. Crane D. Truck
B. Belt conveyor
68
When the weight of a ball inside the ball mill is just balanced by the centrifugal force, A. The ball abandons its circular path for a parabolic path B. The ball abandons its parabolic path for a circular path C. The ball continues to move on a circular path D. The ball continues to move on a parabolic path
A. The ball abandons its circular path for a parabolic path
69
Crushing of mineral particles is accomplished in a cage mill, when one or more alloy steel bars are revolved in opposite directions. A cage mill is a type of A. Vibratory B. Impact C. Roll D. None of these
B. Impact
70
Liners of a ball mill are never made of A. Lead B. Alloy steel C. Rubber or ceramic material D. Cast iron
A. Lead
71
Colloidal mills are used for __________ grinding. A. Coarse B. Intermediate C. Fine D. Ultrafine
D. Ultrafine
72
For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is _______. A. Trommel B. Grizzly Screen C. Shaking Screen D. Vibrating screen
D. Vibrating screen
73
Hot, lumpy, and abrasive materials are best transported by using a/an ________ conveyor. A. Apron B. Belt C. Screw D. Flight
A. Apron
74
What is the main difference between wet granulation and dry granulation process in particle technology? A. Wet granulation uses a liquid binder while dry granulation uses mechanical pressure B. Wet granulation uses mechanical pressure while dry granulation uses a liquid binder C. Wet granulation forms larger particles while dry granulation forms smaller particles D. Wet granulation forms smaller particles while dry granulation forms larger particles
A. Wet granulation uses a liquid binder while dry granulation uses mechanical pressure
75
Lap joints are preferred for plates having thickness __________ mm. A. < 12.5 B. > 3 C. > 5 D. 5-10
B. > 3
76
A high vapor velocity is required for high plate efficiency in a sieve plate column. The satisfactory value of operating vapor velocity for design purpose in sieve plate column is about __________ percent of the flooding velocity. A. 45 B. 60 C. 80 D. 95
C. 80
77
Safety valves are provided in chemical equipment to guard against excessive __________. A. Pressure B. Turbulence C. Noise D. Temperature
A. Pressure
78
Joint efficiency (J) for a seamless pipe is A. 1 B. 0.85 C. 1.2 D. < 0.5
A. 1
79
Baffles may be eliminated for A. low viscosity liquids (< 200 poise) B. high viscosity liquids (> 600 poise) C. large diameter tanks D. none of these
B. high viscosity liquids (> 600 poise)
80
Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe is an indication of its _________ diameter. A. Inner B. Outer C. Approximate D. None of these
C. Approximate
81
The normal range of velocity of steam in pipes is __________ m/s. A. 0.1 - 0.5 B. 1 - 5 C. 10 - 20 D. 80 - 100
D. 80 - 100
82
Skirt support is the most suitable for supporting _________ vessels. A. Small horizontal B. Large horizontal C. Tall vertical D. Thick walled
D. Thick walled
83
Wind load consideration in the design of a support can be neglected when the vessel is __________. A. Short and housed indoor B. Tall but empty C. Tall but full of liquid D. None of these
A. Short and housed indoor
84
Generally, no corrosion allowance in wall thickness of a part is required, when __________. A. stainless steel is used B. wall thickness is more than 20 mm C. wall thickness is more than 30 mm D. plate carbon steel and cast-iron parts are used
C. wall thickness is more than 30 mm
85
Which of the following filtration equipment is generally the most expensive? A. tower press B. AFP C. HBF D. Drum
A. tower press
86
In continuous filtration (at a constant pressure drop), filtrate flow rate varies inversely as the A. Square root of the velocity B. Square of the viscosity C. Filtration time only D. Washing time only
A. Square root of the velocity
87
7. Most rotary vacuum filters are operated at about ___ % of its surface area submerged in the slurry. A. 20 B. 50 C. 40 D. 35
D. 35
88
Which of the following is a modified fluidized bed dryer? A. Batch fluidized bed dryers B. Hybrid fluidized bed dryer C. Semi-continuous fluidized bed dryer D. Plug flow fluidized bed dryer
B. Hybrid fluidized bed dryer
89
Which of the following is an advantage of using centrifugal force in place of gravitational force? A. Far greater rates of separation B. Possibility of achieving separations which are either not practically feasible, or actually impossible, in the gravitational field C. Substantial reduction of the size of the equipment D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
90
Where the density difference of the two liquid phases to be separated is very small (as in milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is a: A. disc bowl centrifuge B. sharpies supercentrifuge C. batch basket centrifuge D. sparkler filter
A. disc bowl centrifuge
91
Given that T1 = 300°C, T2 = 600°C, what happens to the drying slope if T2 becomes 900°C? A. Increased by 1.5 B. Increased by 2 C. Decrease by 1.5 D. Decrease by 2
B. Increased by 2
92
Wet substance will most likely dry when: A. air is more humid than substance B. air is less humid than substance C. substance is more humid than air D. substance is less humid than air
B. air is less humid than substance
93
During constant rate drying period, vaporization rate per unit drying surface area: A. decreases with time B. increases with time C. does not change with time D. does not affect the moisture content of the wet solid.
C. does not change with time
94
Food and pharmaceutical products are commonly dried by _______ drying. A. Direct B. Indirect C. Freeze D. None of these
C. Freeze
95
It is the process where both mass and heat are transferred from gas to liquid. A. desorption B. humidification C. gas absorption D. dehumidification
D. dehumidification
96
Desert air coolers being rendered ineffective in rainy season is due to: A. Low humidity B. Low temperature C. High humidity D. Sunny weather
C. High humidity
97
Air initially at 101.3 kPa and 40°C and with a relative humidity of 50%, is cooled at constant pressure to 30°C. The cooled air has a: A. Higher dew point B. Higher absolute (specific) humidity C. Higher relative humidity D. Higher wet bulb temperature
C. Higher relative humidity
98
Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 and 25°C respectively) is passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35°C. The air will be: A. cooled B. humidified C. both (a) & (b) D. dehumidified
B. humidified
99
A natural draft cooling tower is filled with wooden grids, which covers about _______ percent of the tower height. A. 10-15 B. 30-40 C. 70-80 D. 90-100
A. 10-15
100
Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process with recirculated water supply? A. Wet bulb temperature B. Relative humidity C. Partial pressure of vapor D. None of these
D. None of these
101
Why do we use more than one type of feeding in an evaporator? A. To increase the feed efficiency B. To increase the efficiency of the steam used C. To decrease the steam consumption per unit mass of feed D. To increase the steam consumption per unit mass of feed
C. To decrease the steam consumption per unit mass of feed
102
Which type of feeding is supposed to give maximum economy to a particular consumption? A. Forward feed B. Backward feed C. Parallel feed D. Mixed feed
B. Backward feed
103
Crystallizers are one of the most important setups in industries nowadays. It is solely used to dry a solution to an extent to obtain the crystals of the solute. Which one of the following is the most suitable operation to carry out this process? A. Forced Circulation B. Natural Circulation C. Nucleate Boiling D. Non-nucleate Boiling
A. Forced Circulation
104
Why don't we use natural convection for evaporating waste streams, crystallizers, and viscous fluids? A. Slow process B. Sedimentation problem C. Prevents fouling at the heating surface D. Causes overheating
C. Prevents fouling at the heating surface
105
During crystallization, formation of crystal can occur in ________ solution only. A. Saturated B. Supersaturated C. Undersaturated D. All of the above
B. Supersaturated
106
Crystal size in a continuous crystallizer depends upon the A. Rate of heat transfer B. Degree of turbulence C. Degree of supersaturation D. All of the above
D. All of the above
107
Which of the following statements about evaporative crystallization are correct? Statement 1: The process depends on evaporation of the solvent. Statement 2: This process does not create vapor or suspension of crystals in mother liquor. A. True, False B. True, True C. False, True D. False, False
A. True, False
108
What are factors affecting crystallization? A. Degree of agglomeration B. Crystal shape C. Particle size distribution D. All of the above
D. All of the above
109
. How does concentration affect crystallization? A. Increase in concentration leads to large crystals B. Decrease in concentration leads to large crystals C. Increase in concentration leads to small crystals D. Decrease in concentration leads to small crystals
A. Increase in concentration leads to large crystals
110
This type of crystallizer provides an effective and inexpensive method of producing slurry in equipment that does not require expensive installation. A. scraped-surface B. reaction-type C. mixed-suspension D. classified-suspension
A. scraped-surface
111
The overall resistance for heat transfer through a series of flat resistances, is the A. product B. sum C. average D. logarithmic mean
B. sum
112
Maximum heat transfer rate is obtained in _________ flow. A. Laminar B. Turbulent C. Creeping D. Transition
B. Turbulent
113
Which of the following must be considered when determining the value of the fouling factor? A. Characteristic of the fluids B. Velocity of the fluid with suspended solid C. Suspended solids in the fluid D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
114
In case of heat transfer by conduction in a hollow cylinder, ________ mean area is used to calculate the heat transfer rate. A. geometric B. arithmetic C. logarithmic D. harmonic
C. logarithmic
115
In case of a multipass shell and tube heat exchanger, providing a baffle on the shell side __________ the heat transfer rate. A. increases B. decreases C. does not affect D. maintains
A. increases
116
Which is TRUE about a gas that is compressed isothermally? A. W > 0; Q > 0 B. W < 0; Q < 0 C. W < 0; Q > 0 D. W > 0; Q < 0
D. W > 0; Q < 0
117
For an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gas A. Only ΔE = 0 B. Only ΔH =0 C. ΔE = ΔH = 0 D. dQ = dE
C. ΔE = ΔH = 0
118
Which of the following is a state function? A. Gibbs free energy B. Helmholtz free energy C. Internal energy D. All of the above
D. All of the above
119
Heat of reaction at constant volume is identified with __________ change. A. enthalpy B. internal energy C. either A or B D. neither A nor B
B. internal energy
120
For which of the following reactions is the change in the enthalpy of the system equal to the change in the internal energy? A. H2 reacting with O2 to form H2O in a bomb calorimeter. B. An aqueous solution of HCl reacting with an aqueous solution of NaOH to form an aqueous solution of NaCl and H2 gas. C. CO2 gas reacting with solid NaOH to form solid NaHCO3. D. Solid Pb(NO3)2 reacting with solid KI to form solid PbI2 and solid KNO3.
D. Solid Pb(NO3)2 reacting with solid KI to form solid PbI2 and solid KNO3.
121
Which reaction below is the most likely to be endothermic? A. Mg(s) → Mg(g) B. Na(s) + Cl(g) → NaCl(s) C. Na+(aq) + e- → Na(g) D. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l)
A. Mg(s) → Mg(g)
122
Which of the following is TRUE? A. Ionization energy is exothermic while electron affinity is endothermic. B. Ionization energy is endothermic while electron affinity is exothermic. C. Both ionization energy and electron affinity are exothermic. D. Both ionization energy and electron affinity are endothermic.
B. Ionization energy is endothermic while electron affinity is exothermic.
123
Which of the following is true for solid/liquid substances at their melting points? A. ΔG = 0 B. ΔH = 0 C. ΔS = 0 D. both ΔH and ΔS=0
A. ΔG = 0
124
A refrigerator may be termed as a A. Heat pump B. Heat engine C. Carnot engine D. None of these
A. Heat pump
125
In a vapor compression refrigeration system, elevating the evaporator temperature results in: A. increased COP B. decreased COP C. no change in COP D. increased or decreased COP, depending on the refrigerant
A. increased COP
126
Which is not accompanied by an increase in entropy of the system? A. discharging a battery B. boiling of water at atmospheric temperature C. very slow expansion of gas into an evacuated flask D. rapid expansion of gas and recompression to its original state
D. rapid expansion of gas and recompression to its original state
127
For spontaneous changes in an isolated system: A. dS = 0 B. dS ≤ 0 C. dS > 0 D. dS = Constant
C. dS > 0
128
Consider the reaction A + 2B → 3C. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The reaction is exothermic. B. The reaction order with respect to A is 1. C. The rate law depends on the concentration of C. D. The rate of disappearance of A is a third of the rate of appearance of C.
D. The rate of disappearance of A is a third of the rate of appearance of C.
129
Which statement is TRUE about reaction mechanisms? A. The overall rate law can be determined from any step in the mechanism. B. The reaction rate is the rate of the fastest elementary step of the mechanism. C. The equation for the sum of all elementary steps is the equation of the overall reaction. D. Species that are produced and consumed in the mechanism act as catalysts for the reaction.
C. The equation for the sum of all elementary steps is the equation of the overall reaction.
130
Even though graphite is thermodynamically more stable than diamond at standard conditions, a diamond will not be converted into graphite over a span of thousands of years. Which explains this? A. The ∆G for the change from diamond to graphite is greater than zero. B. The ∆S for the change from diamond to graphite is less than zero. C. The change from graphite to diamond proceeds relatively faster. D. The change from diamond to graphite has very large activation energy.
D. The change from diamond to graphite has very large activation energy.
131
The equilibrium constant of chemical reaction __________ in the presence of catalyst. A. increases B. decreases C. remains unaffected D. can either increase or decrease (depends on the type of catalyst)
C. remains unaffected
132
What type of flow is commonly employ in PFRs? A. Laminar B. Transition C. Turbulent D. Depends on space time
C. Turbulent
133
Which type of reactor has the same components in it and the outlet stream? A. CSTR B. tubular C. batch D. plug flow
A. CSTR
134
Space time equals the mean residence time A. when the density of the reaction mixture is constant. B. for large diameter tubular reactor. C. for narrow diameter tubular reactor. D. for CSTR.
A. when the density of the reaction mixture is constant.
135
For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid-phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is a A. stirred tank B. tubular flow C. batch D. fixed bed
A. stirred tank
136
The most suitable reactor for carrying out an auto-thermal reaction is a A. Batch reactor B. CSTR C. Semi-batch reactor D. Plug-flow reactor
B. CSTR
137
Rate of a chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactants for a A. zero order B. third order C. consecutive D. none of these reaction.
A. zero order
138
Half-life period of a chemical reaction is proportional to CA^-1, if the reaction is of ________ order. A. first B. zero C. second D. third
C. second
139
The size of plug flow reactor (PFR) for all positive reaction orders and for any given duty, is that of mixed reactor. A. greater than B. equal to C. smaller than D. unpredictable from the data
C. smaller than
140
'N' plug flow reactors in series with a total volume 'V' gives the same conversion as a single plug flow reactor of volume 'V' for __________ order reactions. A. first B. second C. third D. any
D. any
141
Darcy is a unit of: A. capacitance B. permittivity C. luminance D. permeability
D. permeability
142
Which of the following is FALSE? A. The atmospheric pressure is always non-negative. B. The absolute pressure is always non-negative. C. The vacuum pressure cannot be negative. D. The gauge pressure is always positive.
D. The gauge pressure is always positive.
143
Which of the following is not an elastic element-pressure monitoring device? A. Bourdon tube B. bellows C. strain gauges D. diaphragm
C. strain gauges
144
Which of the following thermocouples is incapable of measuring sub-zero temperatures? A. chromel-alumel B. iron-constantan C. platinum-rhodium D. copper-constantan
C. platinum-rhodium
145
This type of flow meter utilizes the concept of Faraday's Law. A. thermal stress B. ultrasonic C. magnetic D. Coriolis
C. magnetic
146
Which property does NOT increase with an increase in temperature? A. density B. thermal diffusivity C. viscosity D. thermal conductivity
A. density
147
Tumbling is the process of improving the _________ materials. A. surface cleanliness B. surface finish C. creep limit D. fatigue limit
A. surface cleanliness
148
Consider a gas stream at 15°C and 105 kPa that flows through a duct and contains 1.2% CO2 by volume. Pure CO2 is also supplied in the duct at a rate of 0.0917 m3/min at 7°C and 131 kPa. Upon exiting, the gas contains 3.4% CO2. Assume that the inlet and outlet gas have the same condition. What is the volumetric flow rate of the inlet stream (m3/min)? A. 4.2 B. 5.2 C. 8.2 D. 8.7
B. 5.2
149
Which of the following is FALSE about the general balance equation? A. The accumulation term is always positive. B. The input and output terms are always positive. C. For a batch process, the accumulation term is not zero. D. For a continuous process, the generation and consumption terms are not always zero.
A. The accumulation term is always positive.
150
_______ is caused by premature explosion of fuel in the engine. In order to avoid this, the fuel must have a relatively high ________ number. A. Scaling, octane B. Scaling, cetane C. Knocking, octane D. Knocking, cetane
C. Knocking, octane
151
A cetane number of zero is characterized by which compound? A. methylnaphthalene B. n-cetane C. heptane D. isooctane
A. methylnaphthalene
152
Ignition of fuel in a diesel is by ___________. A. spark B. fuel injection C. hot compressed air-fuel mixture D. none of these
C. hot compressed air-fuel mixture
153
Which of the following is FALSE? A. Main constituents of LPG are propane and butane. B. CV of natural gas is about 10000 kcal/Nm³ C. CV of LPG is about 26000 kcal/Nm³ D. LPG is lighter than air
D. LPG is lighter than air
154
Supply of excess air for complete combustion of fuel is needed to facilitate which of the following? A. its thorough mixing of air B. achieving equilibrium C. reaching high temperature D. none of these
A. its thorough mixing of air
155
What is the air to fuel weight ratio when methane is burnt using theoretical air? A. 2:1 B. 10:1 C. 17:1 D. 29:1
C. 17:1
156
A coal sample (CV: 32.5 MJ/kg) has 22% VCM, 64% FC, 4% M, 1.4% N, and 1.6% S. It is burned using dry excess air at 28 °C and 1 atm. The stack gas that leaves at 250 °C, 740 mmHg and contains 8.37% CO2, 4.19% CO, and 2.51% H2. What is the mol of dry stack gas for a 100 kg fuel? A. 23.2 B. 36.3 C. 47.4 D. 52.5
D. 52.5
157
A coal sample (CV: 32.5 MJ/kg) has 22% VCM, 64% FC, 4% M, 1.4% N, and 1.6% S. It is burned using dry excess air at 28 °C and 1 atm. The stack gas that leaves at 250 °C, 740 mmHg and contains 8.37% CO2, 4.19% CO, and 2.51% H2. What is the percent excess oxygen? A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60
B. 40
158
A gas sample does 150 kJ of work and at the same time releases 90 kJ of internal energy. How much heat is absorbed/released by the gas? A. 60 kJ released B. 60 kJ absorbed C. 240 kJ released D. 240 kJ absorbed
B. 60 kJ absorbed
159
What is the change in internal energy (J/mol) of an ideal gas when temperature is increased from 10 to 20 degrees Celsius? A. 0.5Cv B. 0.5Cp C. 10Cv D. 10Cp
C. 10Cv
160
Which of the following is FALSE about a bomb calorimeter? A. The heat is equivalent to ΔH. B. It operates at isochoric condition. C. It can withstand combustion reactions. D. All of the statements are true.
A. The heat is equivalent to ΔH.
161
An irreversible process ________________. A. is the analog of frictionless motion in machines B. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system C. yields the maximum amount of work D. yields an amount of work less than that of a reversible process
D. yields an amount of work less than that of a reversible process
162
Which of the following is FALSE about the change in enthalpy of a gas at isobaric condition? A. The value is positive if ΔU is positive and if the volume is increased. B. The value is positive if ΔU is positive if the temperature is increased. C. The value is negative if ΔU is negative and if the volume is decreased at high P. D. All statements are true.
D. All statements are true.
163
A 100 g ice cube at 0°C is dropped in a kilogram of water at 20°C. Assuming there is no heat transfer with the atmosphere, what is the final temperature of the initial water-ice mixture? A. 0°C B. 2°C C. 11°C D. 12°C
C. 11°C
164
A 900-g ball, initially at 120°C, is submerged in 250 g of water at 20°C and kept inside a coffee-cup calorimeter with a calorimeter constant of 160 J/K. If the temperature of the water rose by 25°C, what is the heat capacity (J/gK) of the ball? A. 0.39 B. 0.45 C. 0.77 D. 0.83
B. 0.45
165
An isolated system is in equilibrium if the entropy has reached its _________. A. minimum B. zero C. maximum D. none of these
C. maximum
166
The temperature of the system increases in an ___________ process. A. isothermal compression B. isothermal expansion C. adiabatic expansion D. adiabatic compression
A. isothermal compression
167
A ton of refrigeration is equivalent to heat removal of ___________. A. 50 kcal/h B. 200 BTU/h C. 200 BTU/min D. 200 BTU/day
C. 200 BTU/min
168
Calculate the ΔG when a mol of an ideal gas is expanded twice its volume at constant temperature. A. R ln 0.5 B. R ln 2 C. RT ln 0.5 D. RT ln 2
C. RT ln 0.5
169
Which of the following cycles has two isobaric steps? A. Otto B. Diesel C. Stirling D. Ericsson
D. Ericsson
170
In which cycle is heat added at constant temperature? A. Rankine B. Diesel C. Brayton D. Stirling
D. Stirling
171
A nozzle is a device which _________. A. increases kinetic energy and decreases pressure B. reduces both kinetic energy and pressure C. reduces kinetic energy and increases pressure D. increases both kinetic energy and pressure
A. increases kinetic energy and decreases pressure
172
Adiabatic compression of saturated water vapor makes it __________. A. supersaturated B. superheated C. both A and B D. neither A nor B
B. superheated
173
Which of the following refrigeration cycles has the minimum COP? A. air cycle B. Carnot cycle C. ordinary vapor compression cycle D. vapor compression cycle with a reversible expansion engine
A. air cycle
174
For a gaseous system in a closed container, which condition will increase the reaction rate? A. heat the container B. introduce a catalyst poison C. increasing the volume of the container D. lowering the number of gaseous particles
A. heat the container
175
Consider the conversion of ozone to oxygen using chlorine. What are the reaction orders with respect to chlorine and ozone, respectively? A. 1/2, 3/2 B. 1,2 C. 3/2, 1/2 D. 2,1
A. 1/2, 3/2
176
In a first order reaction, which reaction characteristic varies as the reaction progresses? A. half-life B. rate law C. rate constant D. reaction rate
D. reaction rate
177
The concentration of A in a first order reaction A → B, decreases _________ as the reaction progresses. A. linearly with time. B. exponentially with time. C. very abruptly towards the end of the reaction. D. logarithmically with time.
B. exponentially with time.
178
The half-life of a first order reaction is __________ the initial concentration of the reactant. A. directly proportional to B. inversely proportional to C. independent of D. none of these
C. independent of
179
Consider the proposed mechanism for the acidic hydrolysis of an ester. Which of the following species is considered as an intermediate? RCOOR’ + H3O+ → RCOHOR’+ + H2O RCOHOR’+ + H2O → RC(OH)OR’(OH2)+ RC(OH)OR’(OH2)+ + H20 → RCOOH + R’OH + H3O+ A. RCOHOR’+ B. H3O+ C. RCOOR’ D. R’OH
A. RCOHOR’+
180
While holding other factors as constant, what happens to the instantaneous conversion as time progresses if the reaction order is greater or equal to one? A. increases constantly B. increases at first then plateaus C. decreases constantly D. decreases at first then plateaus
B. increases at first then plateaus
181
What happens to the fractional conversion of a first order reaction as the initial concentration increases? A. increases B. decreases C. remains constant D. unpredictable
C. remains constant
182
For the same conversion of reactant A into products, which of the following is FALSE? A. The reactor volume of PFR is less than that of the CSTR. B. The residence time using PFR is less than that of the CSTR. C. The area under the 1/r against C curve for PFR is the residence time. D. The area under the 1/r against C curve for CSTR is the residence time.
D. The area under the 1/r against C curve for CSTR is the residence time.
183
The buoyant force exerted on an object immersed in fluid is equivalent to __________. A. Weight of the object B. Volume of the fluid displaced by the object C. Weight of the fluid displaced by the object D. Volume of the object
C. Weight of the fluid displaced by the object
184
Water flowing from a large vessel through a sharp-edged entrance into a pipe will have _________. A. Friction loss due to contraction B. Friction loss due to expansion C. Negligible friction loss D. Friction loss due to straight pipe
A. Friction loss due to contraction
185
Processes with _________ have great risk of cavitation. A. high fluid temperature B. high density C. low fluid temperature D. low density
A. high fluid temperature
186
What is the approximate value of the Fanning friction factor for smooth pipe at a Reynolds number equivalent to 1,000,000? A. 0.3 B. 0.1 C. 0.01 D. 0.003
D. 0.003
187
Streamlines, streamlines, and pathlines are identical under _________ condition. A. transition flow B. steady flow C. isobaric flow D. isothermal flow
B. steady flow
188
Fitting that will add the least amount of pressure drop in a pipe system. A. Elbow B. Coupling C. Tee D. Gate Valve
B. Coupling
189
The drag coefficient of a spherical particle, under laminar conditions, is _________. A. directly proportional to fluid velocity B. inversely proportional to viscosity C. directly proportional to fluid density D. inversely proportional to particle Re
D. inversely proportional to particle Re
190
Water hammer in a pipeline results from the _________. A. bursting of pipelines due to closure by a valve B. rapid pressure change due to a rapid change in the rate of flow C. pressure increase due to closure of a valve resulting in decrease in rate of flow D. none of these
B. rapid pressure change due to a rapid change in the rate of flow
191
What will happen to a system if the actual NPSH is greater than the required NPSH? A. Flow in the pipeline will remain stable. B. Pressure will increase causing the pipe to burst. C. Fluid will solidify due to abrupt temperature gradient phenomena. D. Flash bubbles will form and damage the pump
A. Flow in the pipeline will remain stable.
192
Given the flow-rate requirement of a process, more often, the best size of pipe to choose is the one that is: A. more aesthetic B. more economical C. least corrosion resistant D. least expensive
B. more economical
193
To deliver 100 gpm of water from a reservoir to a storage tank at a head of 3000 ft, what pump must be used? A. Regenerative B. Centrifugal-Multistage C. Centrifugal-Single D. Axial Flow
B. Centrifugal-Multistage
194
What do you call the friction due to an unseparated boundary layer? A. Form friction B. Skin friction C. Rough friction D. Streamlined friction
B. Skin friction
195
Select the wrong statement pertaining to the flow of an incompressible fluid through a venturi meter. A. Venturi meter incurs less power loss compared to an equivalent orifice meter. B. Discharge of fluid through a venturi meter depends upon the gauge difference irrespective of the orientation of venturi meter. C. For frictionless flow, the fluid pressure entering the venturi meter will be exactly equal to that leaving the venturi meter. D. Venturi meter occupies less space than an orifice meter.
D. Venturi meter occupies less space than an orifice meter.
196
The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is: A. Logarithmic B. Parabolic C. Hyperbolic D. Linear
A. Logarithmic
197
Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe: A. varies parabolically across the cross-section B. remains constant over the cross-section C. is 0 at the center and varies linearly with the radius D. is 0 at the wall and increases linearly to the center
C. is 0 at the center and varies linearly with the radius
198
Fluids whose flow behavior show an increase in apparent viscosity with increasing shear rate has a power law equation with what value of n? A. n=1 B. n>1 C. n<1 D. n=0
B. n>1
199
Diffusion that takes place in fluid phases by physical mixing and by eddies of turbulent flow is called: A. eddy diffusion B. forced diffusion C. thermal diffusion D. reversed diffusion
A. eddy diffusion
200
Component A is diffusing in a medium B. The flux NA relative to a stationary point is equal to the flux due to molecular diffusion, if A. Mass transfer is accompanied by reaction B. diffusion of A is in stagnant medium B C. molecular mean free path is high D. there is equimolar counter diffusion
D. there is equimolar counter diffusion
201
Experimental determination of mass transfer coefficient is done using ____________. A. wetted wall column method B. inclined plate method C. spinning disk method D. parabolic velocity method
A. wetted wall column method
202
Penetration theory relates the average mass transfer coefficient with diffusivity as: A. K ∝ D B. K ∝ D^1/2 C. K ∝ D^2 D. K ∝ D^3/2
B. K ∝ D^1/2
203
For laminar flow, the Reynolds analogy is exact if: A. pressure gradient equals zero. B. Schmidt number equals one. C. Prandtl number equals one. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
204
When a drop of blue liquid is added to a cup of water then mixed using a spoon, what type of mass transfer occurs? A. molecular diffusion B. convective mass transfer C. thermal diffusion D. both A and B
D. both A and B
205
Resistance and conductance depend on: A. conductivity B. dimensions of the solid C. temperature gradient D. both A and B
D. both A and B
206
Steady state one-dimensional heat flow by conduction as given by Fourier's law does not assume that: A. There is no internal heat generation B. Boundary surfaces are isothermal C. Material is anisotropic D. Constant temperature gradient exists
C. Material is anisotropic
207
In cases where there is a multilayer wall of more than one material present in series, the total resistance of the system is: A. the difference of the resistance of the two outer materials B. the reciprocal of the highest resistance among the materials C. the sum of the individual resistances of the materials in series D. the sum of the reciprocal of the individual resistances of the materials in series
C. the sum of the individual resistances of the materials in series
208
A wall has two layers of materials A and B, each made of a different material. Both the layers have the same thickness. The thermal conductivity of material A is twice that of B. Under the equilibrium, the temperature difference across the layer A is: A. 6°C B. 12°C C. 18°C D. 24°C
B. 12°C
209
When a system considers very thick-walled cylinders, use the ____ mean radius in computing for heat flow. A. arithmetic B. logarithmic C. geometric D. either b or c
B. logarithmic
210
Given the same flow rates, inlet and outlet temperatures and heat transfer coefficient, which of the following is TRUE? A. Parallel flow is more preferred due to smaller area requirement. B. Countercurrent flow is more preferred due to smaller area requirement. C. Either parallel or countercurrent flow is desirable since both will require equal areas. D. All of the above.
B. Countercurrent flow is more preferred due to smaller area requirement.
211
If the baffle spacing in a shell and tube heat exchanger increases, then the Reynolds number of the shell side fluid: A. Remains unchanged B. Increases C. Increases or decreases depending on number of shell passes D. Decreases
D. Decreases
212
In a multipass shell and tube heat exchanger, tube side return pressure loss is equal to _____ the velocity head. A. twice B. half C. square of D. four times
D. four times
213
In a heat exchanger, floating head and baffles are provided to _____ and _____ respectively. A. easily clean the exchanger; relieve stresses caused by thermal expansion B. relieve stresses caused by thermal expansion; enhance turbulence C. increase the driving force of heat transfer; easily clean the exchanger D. enhance turbulence; increase the heat transfer area
B. relieve stresses caused by thermal expansion; enhance turbulence
214
Heat transfer co-efficient equation for forced convection, Nu = 0.023Re^0.8Pr^n, is not valid, if the value of: A. n = 0.4 is used for heating B. n = 0.3 is used for cooling C. Reynolds number for the flow involved is > 10000 D. Reynolds number for the flow involved is < 2100
D. Reynolds number for the flow involved is < 2100
215
In which of the following should fouling factor must be included in the calculation of overall heat transfer coefficient? A. The liquid contains suspended solids and flows at high velocity B. The liquid is highly viscous C. The liquid contains suspended solids and flows at low velocity D. The liquid has high specific gravity
C. The liquid contains suspended solids and flows at low velocity
216
Which of the following is TRUE? A. High-pressure liquid should be placed on the shell side of an S&T heat exchanger. B. Corrosive fluid should be placed on the shell side of an S&T heat exchanger. C. Fouling fluid should be place on the shell side of an S&T heat exchanger. D. None of the above.
D. None of the above.
217
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Planck's Law relates the monochromatic emissive power at a certain temperature and certain wavelength. B. The wavelength at which the blackbody emissive power is a maximum is derived from integrating Planck's Law. C. The total amount of radiation per unit area leaving a surface with a certain temperature over all wavelengths is derived from differentiating Planck's Law. D. None of the above.
A. Planck's Law relates the monochromatic emissive power at a certain temperature and certain wavelength.
218
Which of the following is NOT a property of a black body? A. α = 1.0 B. ε = 1.0 C. ρ = 0 D. k = 0
D. k = 0
219
In the electromagnetic spectrum, the wavelength range of 10^-13 to 10^-10 m is A. cosmic ray B. gamma ray C. thermal radiation D. visible radiation
B. gamma ray
220
According to Kirchhoff's Law, for a gray body, the ______ and __________ are equal even if the body is not in thermal equilibrium with its surroundings. A. absorptivity, reflectivity B. absorptivity, emissivity C. emissivity, thermal conductivity D. reflectivity, thermal conductivity
B. absorptivity, emissivity
221
This law states that the total emissive power is the total amount of radiation energy per unit area leaving a surface with temperature, T over all wavelengths: A. Kick's Law B. Planck's Law C. Kirchhoff's Law D. Stefan Boltzmann Law
D. Stefan Boltzmann Law
222
Which of the following is TRUE? A. Total emissive power increases as temperature increases. B. Total emissive power decreases as temperature increases. C. Total emissive power increases as temperature increases to a certain point, then decreases. D. Total emissive power decreases as temperature increases to a certain point, then increases.
A. Total emissive power increases as temperature increases.
223
What is the value of Stefan Boltzmann constant in SI units? A. 5.67 x 10^-8 B. 5.67 x 10^-4 C. 0.1713 x 10^-8 D. 0.1713 x 10^-4
A. 5.67 x 10^-8
224
The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt in a boiler is called the: A. evaporative capacity B. evaporative efficiency C. thermal efficiency D. steam load
A. evaporative capacity
225
When vaporization takes place directly at the heating surface, it is called: A. film boiling B. nucleate boiling C. vapor binding D. none of these
B. nucleate boiling
226
Steam is routed through the tubes in the case of a ___________ evaporator. A. basket-type B. horizontal tube C. short tube vertical D. long tube vertical
B. horizontal tube
227
Which of the following is most suitable for cold viscous feed? A. Forward feed B. Backward feed C. Mixed feed D. Parallel feed
B. Backward feed
228
In evaporators, liquid entrainment is primarily due to foaming of the solution. Which of the following accessories is provided in the vapor line for removing the entrained liquid? A. Bleed point B. Vent C. Catchall D. Baffle
C. Catchall
229
Oslo crystallizer : vaporization of solvent :: _____ : lowering of temperature A. Surface-cooled crystallizer B. Adiabatic evaporative cooler C. Forced-circulation crystallizer D. DTB crystallizer
A. Surface-cooled crystallizer
230
2. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Swenson-Walker crystallizer is a batch crystallizer. B. Supersaturation is the driving potential for a crystal growth. C. The first stage of crystal formation is called nucleation. D. Crystal size in a continuous crystallizer depends on the rate of heat transfer, degree of turbulence, and degree of supersaturation.
A. Swenson-Walker crystallizer is a batch crystallizer.
231
The overall process of crystallization from solution is considered to consist of the basic steps of nucleation (nucleus formation) and crystal growth. The driving force for the nucleation step as well as the growth step is: A. temperature B. concentration C. supersaturation D. crystal structure
C. supersaturation
232
The heat of crystallization of Glauber's salt is: A. -243.3 kJ/kg B. -75.6 kJ/kg C. +149.3 kJ/kg D. +8.4 kJ/kg
A. -243.3 kJ/kg
233
Which of the following feels cold to the touch upon crystallization? A. calcium nitrate tetrahydrate B. potassium sulfate C. plumbous chloride D. zinc sulfate monohydrate
D. zinc sulfate monohydrate
234
The McCabe ΔL law states that the: A. molar heats of vaporization of components are nearly equal. B. linear crystal growth rate depends on the degree of supersaturation. C. linear crystal growth rate does not depend on the crystal size. D. linear crystal growth rate depends on the crystal size.
C. linear crystal growth rate does not depend on the crystal size.
235
The caking of crystals can be prevented by: A. Maintaining high critical humidity B. Maintaining low critical humidity C. Coating the product with inert material D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
236
The critical moisture content in case of drying indicates the ______ rate period. A. Beginning of falling B. Beginning of constant C. End of falling D. None of these
A. Beginning of falling
237
Mechanism of moisture removal in case of freeze drying of food stuff is by: A. Evaporation B. Sublimation C. Dehydration D. Adsorption
B. Sublimation
238
Batch tray dryers suffer from the disadvantage of: A. High maintenance cost B. Non-uniform and low production rate C. High labor cost and low heat economy D. All of the above
C. High labor cost and low heat economy
239
For achieving rapid drying rate in a spray dryer, the diameter of the particles in the feed should be in the range of _____ microns (1 mm = 1000 microns). A. 1-5 B. 10-60 C. 200-300 D. > 500
B. 10-60
240
Which of the following is NOT a continuous dryer? A. Drum dryer B. Spray dryer C. Tunnel dryer D. Tray dryer
D. Tray dryer
241
This is the moisture that can be removed by drying under the given percent relative humidity. A. Equilibrium B. Critical C. Free D. Bound
C. Free
242
Rapid drying of solutions and suspensions in hot air or gas with dry particles or powders as product. A. Tray B. Supersonic C. Spray D. Splash
C. Spray
243
During sensible heating of humid air, A. relative humidity increases B. dew point remains constant C. dry and wet bulb temperature increase D. both B and C
D. both B and C
244
A psychrometer does not measure the _________ temperature of moist air. A. dew point B. dry bulb C. wet bulb D. none of these
A. dew point
245
The minimum temperature up to which water can be theoretically cooled down in the cooling tower by evaporative cooling is equal to the __________ temperature of air. A. wet bulb B. dry bulb C. saturation D. dew point
A. wet bulb
246
Which of the following properties remains constant during the adiabatic cooling of moist air? A. wet bulb temperature B. dry bulb temperature C. relative humidity D. specific humidity
A. wet bulb temperature
247
Evaporative cooling process employs a combination of cooling and humidification in which: A. sensible heat is added B. sensible heat is removed and the latent heat is added C. latent heat is removed D. sensible heat is added and latent heat is removed
B. sensible heat is removed and the latent heat is added
248
The analysis developed by Merkel for cooling towers is based upon which driving force? A. density difference B. specific volume difference C. enthalpy potential difference D. lower height
C. enthalpy potential difference
249
The velocity at which individual particles from a fluidized bed are carried away by the fluid passing through it is defined as the: A. minimum fluidization velocity B. terminal velocity C. elutriation velocity D. superficial velocity
C. elutriation velocity
250
All of the following are bed properties considered for fluidization EXCEPT: A. bulk density B. bed height C. internal porosity D. void fraction
C. internal porosity
251
For a sphere falling in the constant drag coefficient regime, which of the following best describes the relationship of terminal velocity and diameter? A. ut ∝ Dp B. ut ∝ √Dp C. ut ∝ Dp^2 D. ut ∝ 1/Dp
B. ut ∝ √Dp
252
The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the: A. first power of its diameter B. inverse of the fluid viscosity C. inverse square of the diameter D. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid
B. inverse of the fluid viscosity
253
Drag force acting on a body does not depend upon the: A. density of the fluid B. density of the body C. velocity of the body D. projected area of the body
B. density of the body
254
Minimum porosity for fluidization is: A. that corresponding to static bed. B. that corresponding to completely fluidized bed. C. the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins. D. less than that of the static bed.
C. the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins.
255
Filter aids like asbestos, kieselguhr (diatomaceous earth) and purified wood cellulose are used to increase the porosity of the final filter cake and reduce cake resistance during filtration by deplugging. Filter aid is __________. A. added to the feed slurry B. precoated on the filter medium prior to filtration C. separated from the cake by dissolving solids or by burning it off D. all of the above
D. all of the above
256
The flow of filtrate through the cake in plate and frame filter press follows a laminar flow. With this, which of the following will be valid? A. Kozeny-Carman equation B. Hagen-Poiseuille equation C. Burke-Plummer equation D. Fanning's equation
A. Kozeny-Carman equation
257
Which of the following best describes a compressible cake? A. It has maximum porosity at the upstream side. B. It has maximum porosity at the filter medium. C. It has same porosity throughout the cake thickness. D. Porosity gradient depends on the substance.
A. It has maximum porosity at the upstream side.
258
The inlet pressure in a constant rate filtration _________. A. increases continuously B. decreases gradually C. remains constant D. none of these
A. increases continuously
259
Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate volume versus time for constant pressure filtration? A. Parabola B. Straight line C. Hyperbola D. Exponential curve
A. Parabola
260
Filtration rate through a filter cake is proportional to (where, S = filtering surface, R = specific cake resistance, μ = viscosity of the filtrate): A. S B. 1/R C. 1/μ D. all of the above
D. all of the above
261
Which of the following is an advantage of using centrifugal force in place of gravitational force? A. Far greater rates of separation B. Possibility of achieving separations which are either not practically feasible, or actually impossible, in the gravitational field C. Substantial reduction of the size of the equipment D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
262
Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using: A. Tubular centrifuge B. Clarifier C. Sparkler filter D. Vacuum leaf filter
A. Tubular centrifuge
263
Ultracentrifuges running at speeds up to 100000 rpm is normally used for the: A. separation of isotopes based on their density or molecular weights difference. B. concentration of rubber latex. C. separation of cream from milk. D. dewaxing of lubricating oil.
A. separation of isotopes based on their density or molecular weights difference.
264
If radius of a batch basket centrifuge is halved & the rpm is doubled, then the: A. linear speed of the basket is doubled. B. linear speed of the basket is halved. C. centrifugal force is doubled. D. capacity of centrifuge is increased.
C. centrifugal force is doubled.
265
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? I. Maude and Whitmore equation is not applicable for uniformly sized particles. II. Traces of solids are removed from the liquid in a clarifier. A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. None of these.
B. II only
266
The state where settled solids and clear liquid are separated by a distinct single interface formed between. A. Zone Settling B. Dead Region C. Free Settling D. Critical Settling
D. Critical Settling
267
It ensures that the settling solids do not adhere at the bottom of the sedimentation tank during operation. A. Weir B. Baffle C. Paddle D. Rake
D. Rake
268
The opening of a 200-mesh screen (Taylor series) is A. 0.0074 cm B. 0.0074 mm C. 0.0047 cm D. 74 millimicrons
A. 0.0074 cm
269
Which of the following is TRUE about dry and wet screening? A. Wet screening requires addition of water to wash out fine materials. B. Wet screening is limited to particles larger than 200 mesh. C. Dry screening requires a downstream drying process. D. Dry screening has higher efficiency due to lower probability of screen clogging.
A. Wet screening requires addition of water to wash out fine materials.
270
A screening equipment that uses a high-speed rotating cylindrical perforated sheet for milling operations. A. Oscillating Screens B. Reels C. Gyratory Screens D. Trommels
B. Reels
271
Which of the following is not a function of screen capacity? A. Screening Surface B. Atmospheric Humidity C. Screen Opening Size D. Screening Mechanism
B. Atmospheric Humidity
272
In a size reduction crushing operation, the feed size is 10 to 50 mm while the product size is 2 to 10 mm. This is a case of ___________ crushing. A. Fine B. Ultrafine C. Primary D. Secondary
A. Fine
273
___________ balls are capable of grinding the feed in a ball mill that gives the maximum efficiency. A. Cast Iron B. Minimum size C. Elliptical D. Maximum size
B. Minimum size
274
Energy requirement (per unit mass of material crushed/ground) is highest for A. Jaw crusher B. Rod mill C. Ball mill D. Fluid energy mill
D. Fluid energy mill
275
In liquid-liquid extraction, the number of phases at plait point is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A. 1
276
When the solvent dissolves very little of solute, then A. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization should be used B. solvent of low freezing point should be used C. large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute D. very small quantity of solvent is required
C. large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute
277
The commonly used solvent in supercritical extraction is A. Methyl ketone B. Water C. Carbon tetrachloride D. Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide
278
Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water by A. Solvent extraction B. Continuous distillation C. Evaporation D. Absorption
A. Solvent extraction
279
The distribution coefficient of a solute A between solvents B and S is given by Y = 3.2X where Y = mass of A/mass of S in extract and X = mass of A/mass of B in raffinate. S and B are mutually immiscible. A solution containing 30% A in B is to be extracted in a single stage with recovery of 90%. How much S must be supplied per 100 kg of solution to attain the required condition? A. 175.86 kg B. 168.75 kg C. 187.65 kg D. 196.875 kg
D. 196.875 kg
280
Liquid-liquid extraction is based on the difference in A. solubility B. partial pressure C. viscosity D. specific volume
A. solubility
281
Which of the following sets of equipment is not used in liquid-liquid extraction? A. Pachuka tank B. Centrifugal extractors C. Agitated vessels D. Packed towers
A. Pachuka tank
282
At equilibrium, the concentration of the liquid retained by the solid leaving any stage is ___ the concentration of the liquid overflow from the same stage. A. higher than B. the same as C. lower than D. has no relationship to
B. the same as
283
The underflow in leaching is composed of the _________. A. inert solid and the retained solution B. the solvent and the dissolved solute C. the solution which is not retained by the inert solid D. the inert solid
A. inert solid and the retained solution
284
The rate determining step in leaching is the _____________. A. dissolution of solute in solvent B. diffusion of solvent into the solid particles C. diffusion of solute towards the surface of the solid D. diffusion of the solute from the surface towards the bulk of the solvent
C. diffusion of solute towards the surface of the solid
285
The overflow in leaching is composed of _____________. A. inert solid and the retained solution B. the solvent and the dissolved solute C. the solution which is not retained by the inert solid D. the inert solid
C. the solution which is not retained by the inert solid
286
The N value for overflow is generally _____________. A. <1 B. >1 C. equal to 1 D. equal to 0
D. equal to 0
287
With an increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases due to A. decreased liquid viscosity B. increased diffusivity C. both A and B D. neither A nor B
C. both A and B
288
Diameter to height ratio for a Raschig ring is A. 1 B. 0.5 C. 2 D. 8
A. 1
289
Flooding in a column results due to A. High pressure drop B. Low pressure drop C. Low velocity of the liquid D. High temperature
A. High pressure drop
290
In packed column gas absorption, a transfer unit means that the A. mole of solute is transferred in a unit height. B. mass transfer coefficient will approach unity. C. average driving force is equal to unity. D. concentration range is equal to average driving force.
D. concentration range is equal to average driving force.
291
At this point the entire column is filled with liquid and the gas now has to bubble through the liquid in the packing voids. A. Flooding Point B. Loading Point C. Flooding Velocity D. Mass Velocity
A. Flooding Point
292
In a stripping or desorption operation, the equilibrium curve is A. above the operating line B. below the operating line C. perpendicular with the tie line D. linear
A. above the operating line
293
As the gas velocity is increased the pressure drop also increased and some liquid started to be retained in the packings, this is known as A. Flooding Point B. Loading Point C. Flooding Velocity D. Mass Velocity
B. Loading Point
294
In a gas absorption packed tower, the most economical gas velocity is considered to be _____ the flooding velocity. A. equal to B. about half C. twice D. greater than
B. about half
295
In a gas absorption column, the pressure of the lean gas is expected to be _____ the pressure of the rich gas entering the column. A. lower than B. higher than C. the same as D. double
A. lower than
296
Which tray type is the cheapest and has the lowest pressure drop? A. Sieve Tray B. Bubble-Cap Tray C. Valve Tray D. Packed Column
A. Sieve Tray
297
Acetone is to be removed from air in an isothermal dilute absorber using pure water as solvent. The incoming air contains 5 mole% of acetone (yin = 0.05). The design equation to be used for obtaining the number of trays (N) of the absorber is, N+2 = 6 log (yin/yout). For 98% recovery of acetone, the number of trays required is/are: A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10
C. 9
298
A gas absorption tower needs to remove 99% of N2O4 in air. The packing will be 16-mm Pall rings. The gas enters at a rate of 1 lbm/s and contains 1.0 weight% N2O4 and 99% air at 300 K. The absorbent consists of water entering at 0.2 lbm/s. The N2O4 reacts readily with water. Assume Kya = 100 lbm N2O4/h-ft^3-atm-ΔY and the capacity of the column at the flood point is 1,000 lbm gas/h-ft^2. The units of y are lbm N2O4/lbm air. Suppose 75% of the flood point is use as operating gas mass velocity, find the diameter of the column. A. 2.47 ft B. 3.03 ft C. 5.31 ft D. none of these
A. 2.47 ft
299
A gas absorption tower needs to remove 99% of N2O4 in air. The packing will be 16-mm Pall rings. The gas enters at a rate of 1 lbm/s and contains 1.0 weight% N2O4 and 99% air at 300 K. The absorbent consists of water entering at 0.2 lbm/s. The N2O4 reacts readily with water. Assume Kya = 100 lbm N2O4/h-ft^3-atm-ΔY and the capacity of the column at the flood point is 1,000 lbm gas/h-ft^2. The units of y are lbm N2O4/lbm air. Calculate the height of a theoretical stage (Hog) and the number of theoretical stages (Nog) assuming that all interface concentration is zero. A. 5.4 ft, 6.69 B. 6.4 ft, 5.48 C. 7.4 ft, 4.61 D. none of these
C. 7.4 ft, 4.61
300
A gas absorption tower needs to remove 99% of N2O4 in air. The packing will be 16-mm Pall rings. The gas enters at a rate of 1 lbm/s and contains 1.0 weight% N2O4 and 99% air at 300 K. The absorbent consists of water entering at 0.2 lbm/s. The N2O4 reacts readily with water. Assume Kya = 100 lbm N2O4/h-ft^3-atm-ΔY and the capacity of the column at the flood point is 1,000 lbm gas/h-ft^2. The units of y are lbm N2O4/lbm air. What is the height of the column? A. 34.1 ft B. 35.1 ft C. 36.1 ft D. none of these
A. 34.1 ft
301
A gas absorption tower needs to remove 99% of N2O4 in air. The packing will be 16-mm Pall rings. The gas enters at a rate of 1 lbm/s and contains 1.0 weight% N2O4 and 99% air at 300 K. The absorbent consists of water entering at 0.2 lbm/s. The N2O4 reacts readily with water. Assume Kya = 100 lbm N2O4/h-ft^3-atm-ΔY and the capacity of the column at the flood point is 1,000 lbm gas/h-ft^2. The units of y are lbm N2O4/lbm air. The total weight of the Pall rings is ___ lbs. A. 3204 B. 4204 C. 5204 D. none of these
C. 5204
302
Weeping in a distillation column A. increases tray efficiency B. provides large interfacial surface for mass transfer C. results due to very high gas velocity D. results due to very low gas velocity
D. results due to very low gas velocity
303
For a distillation column operating at minimum reflux, the A. concentration of liquid and vapor leaving a plate will be same B. reflux ratio will be maximum C. number of plates required will be maximum D. none of these
C. number of plates required will be maximum
304
Rayleigh's equation applies to _______ distillation. A. Continuous B. Steam C. Differential D. Flash
C. Differential
305
In _______ distillation, a solvent is added to alter the relative volatility of the mixture to be separated. A. Molecular B. Azeotropic C. Extractive D. Flash
C. Extractive
306
Fenske equation determines the A. Maximum number of ideal plates B. Height of the distillation column C. Minimum number of theoretical plates D. Optimum reflux ratio
C. Minimum number of theoretical plates
307
For the same feed, feed quality and separation (in a distillation column), with the increase of total pressure, the number of ideal plates will A. increase B. decrease C. remain same D. data insufficient, can't be predicted
A. increase
308
The feed to fractionating column is changed from saturated vapor to saturated liquid. If the separation and reflux ratio remain unchanged, the number of ideal stages will A. increase B. decrease C. remains same D. depend on saturated boiling point; may increase or decrease
A. increase
309
Which of the following is FALSE? A. Constant pressure distillation cannot separate an azeotropic mixture. B. Relative volatility of a binary mixture changes appreciably with the minor change in temperature. C. The relative volatility of a binary mixture at azeotropic composition is unity. D. Flash distillation is practiced on wide spread scale in petroleum refinery.
B. Relative volatility of a binary mixture changes appreciably with the minor change in temperature.
310
In a binary distillation column, if the feed contains 40 mol% vapor, the q line will have a slope of A. 1.5 B. -0.6 C. -1.5 D. 0.6
C. -1.5
311
As the reflux ratio decreases, the A. separation becomes more efficient B. number of plates increases C. column diameter increases D. none of these
B. number of plates increases
312
At what percentage (by volume) of alcohol composition, it forms an azeotrope with water? A. 90 B. 91.5 C. 95 D. 99
C. 95
313
The ideal size of round bubble caps to be used in industrial distillation column having a diameter of 3-6 meters is _______ cm. A. 5 B. 15 C. 7.5 D. 50
B. 15
314
A mixture containing 60 mol% benzene and 40 mol% toluene is fed to a distillation column at its dew point to be separated into a liquid distillate and a liquid bottoms product of 95 mol% and 5 mol% benzene, respectively. The distillation column is operated at a pressure where relative volatility is constant at a value of 2.48. The reflux ratio is 2. Determine the number of equilibrium stages. A. 9 B. 11 C. 13 D. 15
D. 15
315
If D represents the tank diameter, the approximate liquid depth in an agitation tank is equal to A. 0.5 D B. D C. 0.75 D D. 2 D
B. D
316
The cost of handling of materials is considered under the _______ capital. A. working B. direct costs C. fixed D. indirect costs
A. working
317
A certain pressure vessel manufacturer avoids doing reinforcements calculations for openings by always providing a reinforcing pad extending up to double the diameter of the opening and of the same material and thickness as that of the shell wall. If area compensation is accepted as a code guideline, his approach leads to safe design ____________________. A. Only if the opening is on a spherical vessel B. Only if the opening is on a vertical cylindrical vessel C. Only if the opening is on a horizontal cylindrical vessel D. Irrespective of the shape of the vessel
D. Irrespective of the shape of the vessel
318
Poisson's ratio of a material is the ratio of unit lateral strain to the unit axial elongation within its elastic limit. The value of Poisson's ratio for structural and pressure vessel steel may be taken as _____. A. 0.01 B. 0.3 C. 0.75 D. 0.95
B. 0.3
319
The purest form of iron is __________. A. Cast iron B. Steel C. Wrought iron D. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron
320
Wall thickness of Sch 40 pipes is _________ compared to that of Sch 80 pipes. A. greater B. less C. the same D. depends on the internal diameter
B. less
321
Specific __________ is a dimensionless quantity. A. Heat B. Humidity C. Weight D. None of these
D. None of these
322
With increase in temperature, the surface tension of water A. increases B. decreases C. remains constant D. increases linearly
B. decreases
323
Surface tension is due to the __________ forces. A. Viscous B. Adhesive C. Cohesive D. All of these
C. Cohesive
324
Fahrenheit and Centigrade scales have the same readings at __________. A. -55° B. -40° C. -33° D. -58°
B. -40°
325
A batch reactor is most suitable for _______. A. achieving cent percent conversion of reactants into products B. large scale gaseous phase reactions C. liquid phase reactions D. obtaining uniform polymerization products in highly exothermic reactions
C. liquid phase reactions
326
Pick out the wrong statement. A. In a batch reactor, which is exclusively used for liquid phase reactions; temperature, pressure and composition may vary with time. B. In a semi-batch reactor, one reactant is charged batchwise, while the other reactant is fed continuously. C. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform concentration cannot be maintained throughout the vessel even in a well agitated system. D. In a continuous flow reactor, both the reactants and the products flow out continuously.
C. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform concentration cannot be maintained throughout the vessel even in a well agitated system.
327
Semi-batch reactor is preferred, when a/an _______. A. highly exothermic reaction is to be controlled B. undesirable side reaction (at high concentration of one of the reactants) is to be avoided C. gas is to be reacted with liquid (e.g. hydrogenation of fat) D. all of the above
D. all of the above
328
In a semi-batch reactor, _______. A. mixing takes place in axial direction only B. velocity of reaction can be controlled C. condition similar to plug flow reactor exists D. residence time is constant
B. velocity of reaction can be controlled
329
The range of a particular rotameter can be increased by _______. A. using floats of different densities B. no means C. increasing the diameter of the float D. decreasing the diameter of the float
A. using floats of different densities
330
The velocity of sound in air is independent of changes in its _______. A. humidity B. pressure C. temperature D. none of these
B. pressure
331
Which is an example of closed system? A. Air compressor B. Liquid cooling system of an automobile C. Boiler D. None of these
B. Liquid cooling system of an automobile
332
No work is done by the system, when a reaction occurs at constant _______. A. volume B. temperature C. pressure D. none of these
A. volume
333
The efficiency of a Carnot heat engine operating between absolute temperatures T1 and T2 (when T1 > T2) is given by (T1-T2)/T1. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a Carnot heat pump operating between T1 and T2 is given by: A. T1/(T1-T2) B. T2/(T1-T2) C. T1/T2 D. T2/R1
A. T1/(T1-T2)
334
In a P-V diagram (for an ideal gas), an isothermal curve will coincide within adiabatic curve (through a point), when: A. Cp < Cv B. Cp = Cv C. Cp > Cv D. Cp ≥ Cv
B. Cp = Cv
335
With increase in compression ratio, the efficiency of the Otto engine A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains constant D. Increases linearly
A. Increases
336
A closed system is cooled reversibly from 100°C to 50°C. If no work is done on the system: A. Its internal energy (U) decreases and its entropy (S) increases. B. U and S both decrease. C. U decreases but S is constant. D. U is constant but S decreases.
B. U and S both decrease.
337
If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical reaction, the enthalpy change is same for all of them. This is _________ law. A. Hess's B. Kirchoff's C. Lavoisier and Laplace D. None of these
A. Hess's
338
First law of thermodynamics deals with the _______. A. direction of energy transfer B. reversible processes only C. irreversible processes only D. none of these
A. direction of energy transfer
339
The thermodynamic law, PVγ = constant, is not applicable in case of: A. Ideal compression of air B. Free expansion of an ideal gas C. Adiabatic expansion of steam in a turbine D. Adiabatic compression of a perfect gas
B. Free expansion of an ideal gas
340
For an isothermal process, the internal energy of a gas _______. A. increases B. decreases C. remains unchanged D. data insufficient, can't be predicted
C. remains unchanged
341
There is a change in _______ during the phase transition. A. volume B. pressure C. temperature D. all of these
A. volume
342
Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on the ______ Law of thermodynamics. A. Zeroth B. First C. Second D. Third
C. Second
343
The expression for entropy change given by, ΔS = nR ln (V2/V1) + nCv ln (T2/T1) is valid for: A. Reversible isothermal volume change B. Heating of a substance C. Cooling of a substance D. Simultaneous heating and expansion of an ideal gas
D. Simultaneous heating and expansion of an ideal gas
344
Which of the following is an undesirable characteristic of a refrigerant? A. It should be non-explosive. B. It should have a sub-atmospheric vapor pressure at the temperature in refrigerator coils. C. Its vapor pressure at the condenser temperature should be very high. D. None of these.
B. It should have a sub-atmospheric vapor pressure at the temperature in refrigerator coils.
345
Pick out the correct statement. A. Compression ratio of an Otto engine is comparatively higher than a diesel engine. B. Efficiency of an Otto engine is higher than that of a diesel engine for the same compression ratio. C. Otto engine efficiency decreases with the rise in compression ratio, due to decrease in work produced per quantity of heat. D. Diesel engine normally operates at lower compression ratio than an Otto engine for an equal output of work.
B. Efficiency of an Otto engine is higher than that of a diesel engine for the same compression ratio.
346
1/V(∂V/∂T)p is the mathematical expression for A. Joule-Thomson co-efficient. B. specific heat at constant pressure (Cp). C. co-efficient of thermal expansion. D. specific heat at constant volume (Cv).
C. co-efficient of thermal expansion.
347
A liquid under pressure greater than its vapor pressure for the temperature involved is called a ____ liquid. A. subcooled B. saturated C. non-solidifiable D. none of these
A. subcooled
348
Lowering of condenser temperature (keeping the evaporator temperature constant) in case of vapor compression refrigeration system results in _______. A. increased COP B. same COP C. decreased COP D. increased or decreased COP; depending upon the type of refrigerant
A. increased COP
349
Requisites of a reversible process is that the _______. A. system and surroundings pressure be equal B. friction in the system should be absent C. system and surroundings temperature be equal D. none of these
B. friction in the system should be absent
350
Pressure drop (Δp) for a fluid flowing in turbulent flow through a pipe is a function of velocity (V) as: A. V^1.8 B. V^0.1 C. V^2.7 D. V^2
D. V^2
351
With increase in molecular weight of the gas, the head developed by a centrifugal compressor will A. decrease B. increase C. remain same D. be unpredictable
A. decrease
352
Mach number is the ratio of the speed of the A. fluid to that of the light B. light to that of the fluid C. fluid to that of the sound D. sound to that of the fluid
C. fluid to that of the sound
353
Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for the same discharge of water? A. Globe valve B. Gate valve C. Needle valve D. Butterfly valve
C. Needle valve
354
Which of the following is most prone to pulsating discharge flow? A. Centrifugal pump B. Reciprocating pump C. Gear pump D. Axial flow pump
C. Gear pump
355
Pascal's law is valid, only when the fluid is _______. A. frictionless and at rest B. at rest C. at rest and when the frictionless fluid is in motion D. none of these
B. at rest
356
Two piping system are said to be equivalent, when the __________ are same. A. fluid flow rate & friction loss B. length & friction factor C. diameter & friction factor D. length & diameter
A. fluid flow rate & friction loss
357
In fluid flow, cavitation is caused, if the _____ A. fluid velocity decreases to zero C. both A and B B. total energy decreases D. flow pressure approaches its vapor pressure at the prevailing temperature
D. flow pressure approaches its vapor pressure at the prevailing temperature
358
Sewage sludge is _________ type of non-Newtonian fluid. A. dilatant C. pseudoplastic B. Bingham plastic D. None of these
B. Bingham plastic
359
_________ pumps are axial flow pumps. A. Turbine B. Propeller C. Diffuser D. None of these
B. Propeller
360
Viscosity of a liquid decreases _________ with rise in temperature. A. exponentially C. logarithmically B. linearly D. none of these
C. logarithmically
361
The exit cone angle in case of a standard venturimeter is ________ the entrance cone angle. A. smaller than B. greater than C. equal to D. either A or B
A. smaller than
362
A fluid is a substance, that _______. A. has to be kept in a closed container B. is almost incompressible C. has zero shear stress D. flows when even a small shear is applied to it
D. flows when even a small shear is applied to it
363
The schedule number of a pipe is an indication of its: A. size C. material density B. roughness D. wall thickness
D. wall thickness
364
Pump used for the transportation of molten sodium in a fast breader reactor is a/an _________ pump. A. reciprocating C. electromagnetic B. plunger D. gear
C. electromagnetic
365
The most serious disadvantage of an orifice meter is: A. It is not very accurate C. Most of the pressure drop is not recoverable B. It is very costly D. It is not suitable for measuring gas flow
C. Most of the pressure drop is not recoverable
366
Propeller type centrifugal pumps are most suitable for _______. A. high capacity at high heads C. low capacity at high heads B. high capacity at low heads D. low capacity at low heads
B. high capacity at low heads
367
At high Reynolds number: A. Inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant B. Viscous forces predominate C. Inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control D. None of these
A. Inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
368
Viscosity of water is about __________ times that of air at room temperature. A. 15 B. 55 C. 155 D. 1050
B. 55
369
Cavitation can be prevented by: A. Suitably designing the pump B. Maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the vapor pressure C. Maintaining suction head = developed head D. Maintaining suction head lower than the vapor pressure
B. Maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the vapor pressure
370
Which of the following exercises most powerful influence on the mechanical properties of steel? A. Manganese B. Carbon C. Phosphorous D. Silicon
B. Carbon
371
Bronze is an alloy of copper and _______. A. lead B. tin C. nickel D. zinc
B. tin
372
Cold worked steel parts are normally subjected to _______. A. normalizing B. hardening C. annealing D. shot peening
C. annealing
373
Mild steel is _______. A. a low carbon steel (0.05 to 0.3% carbon) B. highly resistant to corrosion (as much as stainless steel) C. a high carbon steel (0.5 to 1.5% carbon) D. very poor in strength & ductility
A. a low carbon steel (0.05 to 0.3% carbon)
374
The softest material in Mho's scale (for measuring hardness) is _______. A. talc B. gypsum C. rubber D. none of these
A. talc
375
he wall thickness of thin cylindrical shell with hemispherical ends is __________ that of the spherical ends. A. equal to B. more than C. less than D. either (b) or (c); depends on maximum permissible internal pressure
B. more than
376
A certain pressure vessel manufacturer avoids doing reinforcements calculations for openings by always providing a reinforcing pad extending up to double the diameter of the opening and of the same material and thickness as that of the shell wall. If area compensation is accepted as a code guideline, his approach leads to safe design ______. A. only if the opening is on spherical vessel B. only if the opening is on a vertical cylindrical vessel C. only if the opening is on a horizontal cylindrical vessel D. irrespective of the shape of the vessel
D. irrespective of the shape of the vessel
377
The longitudinal stress induced in a thin-walled cylindrical vessel under internal pressure is A. pd/2t B. pd/4t C. p/t D. pd/8t
B. pd/4t
378
Joint efficiency (J) for a seamless pipe is _______. A. 1 B. 0.85 C. 1.2 D. < 0.5
A. 1
379
The wall thickness for a large high-pressure pipeline is determined by the consideration of the A. axial tensile stress in the pip C. circumferential pipe wall tension B. forces exerted by static and dynamic action at bends D. temperature stresses
C. circumferential pipe wall tension
380
The 'shanks system' of leaching (i.e., counter-current multiple contact leaching) is used for _______. A. recovery of tannins from the tree barks and woods B. leaching sodium nitrate from Chilean nitrate bearing rock C. both A & B D. neither A nor B
C. both A & B
381
The leaching solvent used in Baeyer's process for the purification of bauxite is _______. A. ammonium hydroxide C. sodium hydroxide B. sodium carbonate D. ammonium carbonate
B. sodium carbonate
382
Leaching of coarse solid lumps is also termed as _______. A. decoction C. percolation B. dissolution D. agitation and settling
C. percolation
383
Degree of freedom for leaching and solvent extraction process is _______. A. 1 B. 3 C. 0 D. 2
B. 3
384
Leaching rate is independent of the _______. A. agitation B. temperature C. particle size D. none of these
D. none of these
385
The most important application of distribution law is in _______. A. evaporation C. drying B. liquid extraction D. distillation
B. liquid extraction
386
Solvent used for extraction of oil is _______. A. hexane C. furfurol B. methyl ethyl ketone D. none of these
A. hexane
387
In a liquid-liquid extraction, 10 kg of a solution containing 2 kg of solute C and 8 kg of solvent A is brought into contact with 10 kg of solvent B. Solvent A and B are completely immiscible in each other whereas solute C is soluble in both the solvents. The extraction process attains equilibrium. The equilibrium relationship between the two phases is Y* = 0.9X, where Y* is the kg of C/kg of B and X is kg of C/kg of A. Choose the correct answer. A. The entire amount of C is transferred to solvent B. B. Less than 2 kg but more than 1 kg of C is transferred to solvent B. C. Less than 1 kg of C is transferred to B. D. No amount of C is transferred to B.
A. The entire amount of C is transferred to solvent
388
In case of constant underflow extraction operation, the _________ at all solute concentration. A. Solids are drained to the same extent B. Ratio of the insoluble to solution is constant C. Both A & B D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A & B
389
Bollman extractor _______. A. is a static bed leaching equipment C. is a centrifugal extractor B. is used for extraction of oil from oilseed D. employs only counter-current extraction
B. is used for extraction of oil from oilseed
390
Absorption factor, for a fixed degree of absorption from a fixed amount of gas should be: A. 1 B. > 1 C. < 1 D. ≤ 1
B. > 1
391
In a gas-liquid absorption column, for obtaining the maximum absorption efficiency: A. liquid stream should be distributed uniformly. B. gas stream should be distributed uniformly. C. both gas as well as liquid streams should be distributed uniformly. D. by passing should be completely avoided.
C. both gas as well as liquid streams should be distributed uniformly.
392
The reciprocal of stripping factor is termed as _______. A. selectivity index C. absorption factor B. relative volatility D. Murphree efficiency
C. absorption factor
393
In a packed absorption tower, if the equilibrium and operating lines are both straight lines, then the ratio, HETP/HTUog _________ the absorption factor. A. increases with increase in C. both A and B B. is one at unity value of D. neither A nor B
C. both A and B
394
For the gas absorption, the height of a transfer unit, based on the gas phase is given by (G: superficial molar gas velocity, L: superficial molar liquid velocity, F: mass transfer co-efficient, mol/m²̇ a: interfacial area per unit volume of tower) A. F/(FG.a) B. FG/(G.a) C. (G.a)/F.G D. L/(FG.G)
A. F/(FG.a)
395
The operating velocity in the absorption tower is usually 40-50% of the flooding velocity. Packed absorption towers are normally designed for a pressure drop of about ______ mm of water column per meter height of packing. A. 1-5 B. 20-40 C. 100-150 D. 1000-1500
B. 20-40
396
In packed absorption tower, onset of flooding usually occurs at a pressure drop of about ________ mm of water column per meter height of packing. A. 25-50 B. 50-75 C. 200-250 D. 750-1000
B. 50-75
397
Pressure drop (Δp) and the superficial gas mass velocity (G) in case of packed absorption tower operating in the preloading range are related as A. Δp = G B. Δp = G^0.5 C. Δp = G^2 D. Δp = 1/G^0.6
C. Δp = G^2
398
Height equivalent to a theoretical plate (HETP) is the height of packing that will give the same separation as one theoretical plate in gas-liquid mass transfer operations like distillation, absorption/stripping and humidification/dehumidification. HETP which is experimentally determined, depends upon the _______. A. flow rates of each fluid C. concentration of each fluid B. type and size of packing D. all of these
D. all of these
399
HETP is numerically equal to HTU, only when the operating line _______. A. lies below the equilibrium line C. and equilibrium lines are parallel B. lies above the equilibrium line D. is far from the equilibrium line
C. and equilibrium lines are parallel
400
Pick out the wrong statement. A. The slope of the stripping line is always less than unity. B. For a given separation in a binary distillation column, with increase in reflux ratio (above the minimum reflux ratio), the fixed cost of the distillation column first increases and then decreases. C. In Ponchon-Savart method of number of theoretical plate determination, the stripping and rectifying operating lines are vertical at total reflux. D. Kremsor-Brown-Souder's equation is used to calculate the efficiency of a plate tower.
C. In Ponchon-Savart method of number of theoretical plate determination, the stripping and rectifying operating lines are vertical at total reflux.
401
Which of the following is not a valid assumption in continuous binary distillation for calculating the number of equilibrium stages by McCabe-Thiele's method? A. Sensible heat changes for vapor & liquid are negligibly small. B. Reflux is not a saturated liquid. C. Molar latent heats of the two components are equal. D. Heat of mixing of normal liquid is assumed to be zero.
B. Reflux is not a saturated liquid.
402
For ethanol-water system, the lowering of distillate quality from 95% to 92% will cause _______. A. no change in theoretical plate requirement B. marginal decrease in the number of C. major decrease in the number of D. none of these
B. marginal decrease in the number of
403
Flooding in a distillation column is detected by a sharp _______. A. increase in Murphree plate efficiency C. decrease in liquid hold up in the column B. decrease in pressure drop D. increase in pressure drop
D. increase in pressure drop
404
Polar organic compounds are normally used as separating agents for the azeotropic and extractive distillation. Which of the following is the most important factor to be considered for the choice of the separating agent for extractive distillation? A. cost B. availability C. toxicity D. selectivity
D. selectivity
405
The reflux to a distillation column is 100 moles/hour, when the overhead product rate is 50 moles/hr. The reflux ratio is _______. A. 2 B. 0.5 C. 50 D. 150
A. 2
406
Overall efficiency of the distillation column is _______. A. The ratio of number of ideal plates to actual plates B. The ratio of number of actual plates to ideal plates C. Same as the Murphree efficiency D. Always more than the point efficiency
A. The ratio of number of ideal plates to actual plates
407
Inside the distillation columns, the _______. A. highest temperature is near the feed plate B. driving force for the liquid flow is its weight C. vapors are not always at their dew points D. all of the above
B. driving force for the liquid flow is its weight
408
For a binary mixture with low relative volatility, _______. A. use steam distillation B. use molecular distillation C. use high pressure distillation D. an azeotrope may be formed during distillation
D. an azeotrope may be formed during distillation
409
Vapor velocity in a distillation column for non-foaming mixture is in the range of _________ times the flooding velocity. A. 0.1 to 0.3 B. 0.6 to 0.7 C. 0.85 to 0.95 D. 1.5 to 2
B. 0.6 to 0.7
410
Which of the following is the most suitable for removing fine particles (< 1 micron diameter) from air below its dew point? A. Venturi scrubber C. Cyclone separator B. Electrostatic precipitator D. Fabric filter
B. Electrostatic precipitator
411
Use of hydrated lime in water treatment A. Before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters B. After filtration, combats the corrosiveness of water due to the presence of O2 & CO2 C. Is to adjust the pH value D. All of the above
D. All of the above
412
Brackish water which contains mostly dissolved salt, can be purified by the _______ process. A. Reverse osmosis C. Lime soda B. Sand filter D. Permutit
A. Reverse osmosis
413
Coagulant is used _________ filtration. A. Before B. After C. During D. To avoid
A. Before
414
Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment. A. Slow sand filters can remove color completely B. Activated carbon can be used for taste & odor control without subsequent filtration C. Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary hardness of water D. Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior to sedimentation
D. Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior to sedimentation
415
Insufficient washing of sand grains in a rapid sand filter causes ______. A. Air binding C. Mud balls B. Shrinkage of filtering media D. Expansion of filtering media
C. Mud balls
416
When larger particles e.g., grains are subjected to fluidization, the corresponding bed produced is termed as the _________ bed. A. Spouted B. Sluggish C. Boiling D. Teeter
A. Spouted
417
The uniformity of a gas fluidized bed depends upon the ______ of the solid particles. A. Size C. Both A and B B. Surface properties D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
418
Slugging occurs in a fluidized bed, if the bed is A. Narrow B. Deep C. Both A & B D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A & B
419
Operating principle of cyclone separator is based on the action of _________ dust particles. A. Diffusion of C. Gravitational force on B. Centrifugal force on D. Electrostatic force on
B. Centrifugal force on
420
Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are _________ forces. A. Gravitational & buoyant C. Gravitational or centrifugal buoyant drag B. Centrifugal & drag D. External, drag & viscous
C. Gravitational or centrifugal buoyant drag
421
Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system having very low-density difference? A. Mixer-settler extractor C. Pulsed extractor B. Centrifugal extractor D. Packed extraction tower
B. Centrifugal extractor
422
Extraction of penicillin employs a ________ extraction column. A. Centrifugal C. Plate B. Packed D. None of these
A. Centrifugal
423
_________ extractor uses centrifugal force for separating the two phases. A. Treybal C. Podbielniäk B. Schiebel D. None of these
C. Podbielniäk
424
The ratio of the area of openings in one screen (Taylor series) to that of the openings in the next smaller screen is A. 1.5 B. 1 C. √2 D. None of these
C. √2
425
Increasing the capacity of a screen _______ the screen effectiveness. A. Decreases C. Does not effect B. Increases D. None of these
A. Decreases
426
Screen capacity is expressed in terms of A. Tons/hr B. Tons/ft² C. Both A & B D. Tons/hr-ft²
D. Tons/hr-ft²
427
As particle size is reduced A. Screening becomes progressively more difficult B. Screening becomes progressively easier C. Capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased D. None of these
A. Screening becomes progressively more difficult
428
For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a A. Trommel C. Shaking screen B. Grizzly D. Vibrating screen
D. Vibrating screen
429
Which of the following will most accurately give the work required for size reduction of coal to -200 mesh in a ball mill? A. Rittinger's law B. Kick's law C. Bond's law D. None of these
A. Rittinger's law
430
Out of the following size reduction equipment, the maximum feed size can be accepted by the A. Tube mill C. Jaw crusher B. Ball mill D. Jet pulverizer
C. Jaw crusher
431
During size reduction by a jaw crusher, the energy consumed decreases with the A. Decreasing size of product at constant size of feed B. Decreasing machine capacity C. Increasing size of feed at constant reduction ratio D. None of these
C. Increasing size of feed at constant reduction ratio
432
Size reduction mechanism used in Jaw crushers is A. Attrition B. Compression C. Cutting D. Impact
B. Compression
433
Pick out the wrong statement. A. Recycled coarse material to the grinder by a classifier is termed as circulating load B. Wear and tear in wet crushing is more than that in dry crushing of materials C. Size enlargement (opposite of size reduction) is not a mechanical operation D. A 'dust catcher' is simply an enlargement in a pipeline which permits the solids to settle down due to reduction in velocity of the dust laden gas
C. Size enlargement (opposite of size reduction) is not a mechanical operation
434
Traces of solids are removed from, liquid in a A. Classifier C. Sparkler filter B. Clarifier D. Rotary vacuum filter
B. Clarifier
435
Which of the following is a batch sedimentation equipment? A. Dust catcher C. Dry cyclone separator B. Filter thickener D. Rotary sprayer scrubber
B. Filter thickener
436
Separation of solid suspended in liquid into a supernatant clear liquid and a denser slurry employs a process termed as the A. Coagulation B. Flocculation C. Sedimentation D. Clarification
C. Sedimentation
437
Gravity settling process is not involved in the working of a A. Hydrocyclone C. Dort-thickener B. Classifier D. Sedimentation tank
A. Hydrocyclone
438
A particle is settling in a liquid under Stokesian conditions. The free-falling velocity of the particle is proportional to A. (particle diameter)^½ C. (particle diameter)² B. particle diameter D. (particle diameter)³
B. particle diameter
439
For the same heat transfer area and the terminal conditions, the ratio of the capacities of a single effect evaporator to a triple effect evaporator is A. 3 B. 0.33 C. 1 D. 1.33
C. 1
440
Evaporation of 1kg of water from a solution in a single effect evaporator requires about ______ kg of steam. A. 0.4 - 0.6 B. 1-1.3 C. 1.8-2 D. 2 - 2.4
B. 1-1.3
441
In a multiple effect evaporator, the effect of boiling point elevation is to A. Reduce the capacity C. Increase the economy B. Reduce the economy D. None of these
A. Reduce the capacity
442
Which is the most suitable for the concentration of highly concentrated solution? A. Open pan evaporation C. Agitated film evaporator B. Long tube vertical evaporator D. None of these
A. Open pan evaporation
443
In evaporators, lowering the feed temperature A. Increases the heating area required C. Both A and B B. Reduces the economy D. Decreases the heating area required
C. Both A and B
444
n case of a vertical tube evaporator, with increase in the liquor level, the _________ is increased. A. Velocity of circulation C. Both A and B B. Liquor-film co-efficient D. Neither A and B
D. Neither A and B
445
Crystal size in a continuous crystallizer depends upon the A. Rate of heat transfer C. Degree of supersaturation B. Degree of turbulence D. All of the above
D. All of the above
446
The driving potential for the crystal growth during crystallization is the _________ of the solution. A. Concentration C. Supersaturation B. Viscosity D. Density
C. Supersaturation
447
Duhring rule is important in solving problems on A. Distillation B. Crystallization C. Evaporation D. Humidification
C. Evaporation
448
Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on its A. Rpm C. Both A & B B. Inclination with ground surface D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A & B
449
Drying of a solid involves _________ transfer. A. Only heat C. Both heat and mass B. Only mass D. None of these
C. Both heat and mass
450
Advantage of continuous drying over batch drying is that the A. Drying cost per unit weight of dried product is less B. Product with more uniform moisture content is produced C. Equipment size required is smaller D. All of the above
D. All of the above
451
Critical humidity of a solid salt means the humidity A. Above which it will always become damp B. Below which it will always stay dry C. Both A and B D. Above which it will always become dry and below which it will always stay damp
C. Both A and B
452
If moisture content of solid on dry basis is X, then the same on wet basis is A. X/(X + 1) B. X/(X - 1) C. (X + 1)/X D. (X - 1)/X
A. X/(X + 1)
453
For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used is the _________ dryer. A. Tunnel B. Tray C. Rotary D. None of these
C. Rotary
454
The drying time between fixed moisture content within diffusion controlled 'falling rate period' is proportional to (assuming that drying occurs from all surfaces of the solid) (where, T = thickness of the solid) A. √T B. T C. T^2 D. T^3
C. T^2
455
Flights in a rotary dryer are provided to: A. Lift and shower the solids thus exposing it thoroughly to the drying action of the gas B. Reduce the residence time of solid C. Increase the residence time of the solid D. None of these
A. Lift and shower the solids thus exposing it thoroughly to the drying action of the gas
456
A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you recommend? A. Spray dryer B. Drum dryer C. Rotary dryer D. Dielectric dryer
A. Spray dryer
457
In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying, A. Cracks develop on the surface of the solid B. Rate of drying decreases abruptly C. Surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs D. None of these
C. Surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
458
Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature 12°C and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer (temperature of water being constant at 40°C)? A. Humidification only B. Heating only C. Both heating and humidification D. Evaporative cooling
C. Both heating and humidification
459
The temperature of water cooled in cooling tower is always ________ temperature of entering air. A. More than the wet bulb B. Less than the wet bulb C. Equal to the wet bulb D. Equal to the dry bulb
A. More than the wet bulb
460
Humid volume, at a given temperature is a/an ________ function of humidity. A. Inverse B. Exponential C. Linear D. Logarithmic
C. Linear
461
When the temperature and humidity of air is low, we usually use ________ draft cooling tower. A. Natural B. Forced C. Induced D. None of these
A. Natural
462
At the boiling point of the liquid at the prevailing pressure, the saturated absolute humidity becomes A. 1 B. 0 C. ∞ D. None of these
C. ∞
463
n case of cooling towers, the ratio of the rates of heat and mass transfer is indicated by the ________ number. A. Lewis B. Grashoff C. Sherwood D. None of these
A. Lewis
464
The humid volume may be increased by increasing the A. Temperature at constant humidity B. Humidity at constant temperature C. Both A & B D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A & B
465
Relative humidity is the ratio of the A. Partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at room temperature B. Partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at gas temperature C. Actual humidity to saturation humidity D. None of these
B. Partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at gas temperature
466
The cooling effect in a cooling tower can be speeded up by A. Increasing the air velocity and area of exposed wet surface B. Reducing the barometric pressure C. Reducing the humidity of the air D. All of the above
D. All of the above
467
The mass diffusivity, the thermal diffusivity and the eddy momentum diffusivity are same for Pr = Sc = _________ A. 1 B. 0.5 C. 10 D. 0
A. 1
468
Dimension of mass diffusivity is the same as that of A. Kinematic viscosity B. Dynamic viscosity C. Surface tension D. Pressure
A. Kinematic viscosity
469
For experimental determination of mass transfer co-efficient by wetted wall tower, the mass transfer area is A. calculated B. unknown C. known D. not required
C. known
470
Pick out the wrong statement. A. Mass transfer co-efficient does not account for gas-liquid diffusion. B. Diffusion coefficient and mass transfer coefficient are not same in any mass transfer operation. C. Contacting cold vapor-gas mixture with hot liquid exemplifies humidification process. D. Contacting cold liquid with warm vapor-gas mixture exemplifies dehumidification process.
A. Mass transfer co-efficient does not account for gas-liquid diffusion.
471
According to Chilton-Colburn analogy for mass transfer, (NaNSc)2/3 is equal to A. f B. f/2 C. 2f D. 1/f
B. f/2
472
Calculation of mass transfer co-efficient is mostly/normally done using _________ theory. A. surface B. film C. penetration D. none of these
B. film
473
As per Gilliland's equation, the diffusivity is A. directly proportional to 'T 1.5'. B. inversely proportional to 'P'. C. dependent on the molecular volume & molecular weight of components. D. All of these
D. All of these
474
For turbulent mass transfer in pipes, the Sherwood number depends on the Reynolds number as A. Re^0.33 B. Re^0.53 C. Re^0.83 D. Re
C. Re^0.83
475
__________ equation applies to diffusivities in liquids. A. Gilliland B. Hirschfelder C. Wilke and Chang D. None of these
A. Gilliland
476
Smoke is an example of A. Solid dispersed in liquid B. Solid dispersed in gas C. Liquid dispersed in gas D. Gas dispersed in liquid
B. Solid dispersed in gas
477
Pick out the wrong statement. A. The binary diffusivity in liquids is of the order of 10^-5 cm²/sec. B. Molecular diffusion in solid is much faster than that in liquids. C. Particles movement from higher concentration to lower concentration takes place in diffusion process. D. According to Poiseuille's law, the permeability decreases with increase in temperature for flow of a gas through a given capillary.
B. Molecular diffusion in solid is much faster than that in liquids.
478
In physical terms, Schmidt number means A. Thermal diffusivity / mass diffusivity B. Thermal diffusivity /momentum diffusivity C. Momentum diffusivity / mass diffusivity D. Mass diffusivity / thermal diffusivity
C. Momentum diffusivity / mass diffusivity
479
In case of liquids, the binary diffusivity is proportional to (where, T = temperature) A. T B. √T C. T^2 D. 1/T
A. T
480
Mass transfer coefficient is directly proportional to _________ theory. A. Penetration B. Surface renewal C. Film D. None of these
A. Penetration
481
Diffusion in concentrated solutions differs from that of dilute solutions because of the change in the __________ with the concentration of the solution. A. degree of ideality B. viscosity C. both A and B D. neither B nor B
C. both A and B
482
Thermal diffusivity is the most important in heat transfer by A. conduction B. radiation C. condensation D. natural convection
A. conduction
483
Thermal conductivity of a gas at low density, _________ with increase in temperature. A. decreases B. increases C. remains unchanged D. may increase or decrease
B. increases
484
If heat transfer rate varies with the time, it is termed as A. Forced convection B. Steady state conduction C. Monochromatic radiation D. None of these
D. None of these
485
If the thermal conductivity of a wall material is independent _____ of temperature, the steady state temperature distribution in the very large thin plane wall having steady, uniform surface temperature follows ________ law. A. Hyperbolic B. Parabolic C. Linear D. Logarithmic
C. Linear
486
When does the heat generated by fluid friction becomes appreciable compared to the heat transferred between the fluids? A. At high fluid velocity B. At low velocity C. When fluid flows past a smooth surface D. None of these
A. At high fluid velocity
487
If h1 = inner film co-efficient and h2 = outer film co-efficient, then the overall heat transfer co-efficient is A. always less than h1 B. always between h1 and h2 C. always higher than h2 D. dependent on metal resistance
B. always between h1 and h2
488
Nusselt number is the ratio of the temperature gradient at the wall to _________. A. Temperature difference B. Heat flux C. That across the entire pipe D. None of these
C. That across the entire pipe
489
In forced convection, the heat transfer depends on A. Re, Pr B. Re, Gr C. Mainly Gr D. Re only
A. Re, Pr
490
Fouling factor for a heat exchanger is given by (where, U1 = heat transfer co-efficient of dirty surface U2 = heat transfer co-efficient of clean surface) A. U1 - U2 B. 1/U1 - 1/U2 C. 1/U2 - 1/U1 D. U2 - U1
B. 1/U1 - 1/U2
491
The Sieder-Tate correlation for heat transfer in turbulent flow in pipe gives Nu a Re^0.8, where, Nu is the Nusselt number and Re is the Reynolds number for the flow. Assuming that this relation is valid, the heat transfer co-efficient varies with the pipe diameter (D) as A. D^-1.8 B. D^-0.2 C. D^0.2 D. D^1.8
B. D^-0.2
492
Which of the following parameters of the fluid is not very important, while deciding its route in a shell and tube heat exchanger? A. pressure B. viscosity C. corrosiveness & fouling characteristics D. density
D. density
493
In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the shell side fluid velocity can not be changed by changing the A. tube layout B. tube diameter C. tube pitch D. no. of baffle
B. tube diameter
494
Stefen's block body radiation law can also be derived from __________ law. A. Kirchhoffs B. Planck's C. Fourier's D. none of these
B. Planck's
495
Which of the following has the minimum absorptivity? A. Aluminum foil B. Coal dust C. Refractory bricks D. Iron plates
A. Aluminum foil
496
Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon A. its temperature B. nature of the body C. kind and extent of its surface D. all of the above
D. all of the above
497
All radiations in a black body are A. reflected B. refracted C. transmitted D. absorbed
D. absorbed
498
At Pr > 1, conduction in an ordinary fluid flowing through a ________ heated pipe is limited to the A. buffer zone B. turbulent core C. both (a) and (b) D. viscous sub-layer
D. viscous sub-layer
499
Pick out the correct statement. A. 1 kcal/hr-m-°C is equal to 1 BTU/hr-ft-°F. B. In steady state heat conduction, the only property of the substance which determines the temperature distribution, is the thermal conductivity. C. In unsteady state heat conduction, heat flows in the direction of temperature rise. D. In heat transfer by forced convection, Grashoff number is very important.
A. 1 kcal/hr-m-°C is equal to 1 BTU/hr-ft-°F. B. In steady state heat conduction, the only property of the substance which determines the temperature distribution, is the thermal conductivity.
500
In Biot number, the characteristic length used is the ratio of the ________ of the solid. A. volume to surface area B. perimeter to surface area C. surface area to perimeter D. surface area to volume
A. volume to surface area
501
The radiation emitted by a black body is known as A. Black radiation B. Full radiation C. Total radiation D. All of these
D. All of these
502
Which of the following is not used as a fuel in rocket propellant? A. Liquid hydrogen B. Liquid oxygen C. Liquid hydrazine D. Kerosene oil
B. Liquid oxygen
503
Carburetor in a spark ignition engine is used to A. Mix air-fuel in the desired ratio B. Adjust the stroke length C. Maintain a constant speed at varying loads D. Increase the compression ratio
A. Mix air-fuel in the desired ratio
504
Alcohols are not suitable as diesel engine fuel because the cetane number of alcohols is A. Very low which prevents their ignition by compression B. Very high which prevents their ignition by compression C. Zero D. None of these
A. Very low which prevents their ignition by compression
505
Starting of a car takes time in winter, because the A. Octane number of fuel is decreased B. Fuel supply for ignition is not sufficient C. Vaporisation of the fuel is decreased D. Pour point of fuel decreases
C. Vaporisation of the fuel is decreased
506
Volumetric composition of flue gas analyzed with the Orsat apparatus is: CO2 = 12%, O2 = 8%, CO = nil, N2 = 80%. This flue gas composition indicates that A. Pure oxygen has been used for combustion B. Nitrogen percentage in the fuel is very high C. Excess air has been used for combustion D. Hydrogen is not present in the fuel
C. Excess air has been used for combustion
507
Presence of sulfur in the fuel fired in a furnace A. Contributes to its heating value B. Helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash from flue gases C. Corrodes ducts & air preheater, if the flue gas temperature is low D. All of the above
D. All of the above
508
Large scale fire on fuel gas line is normally extinguished by A. Water B. Steam C. Foam D. Nitrogen
D. Nitrogen
509
Which of the following accounts for maximum loss of energy in a coal fired boiler? A. Incomplete combustion of fuel. B. Outgoing flue gases. C. Radiation heat losses. D. Unburnt carbon in ash.
B. Outgoing flue gases.
510
The difference between gross & net calorific values of fuel is due to the A. sensible heat carried away by the flue gases. B. heat carried away by the steam from the moisture content of the fuel. C. heat lost by radiation. D. heat carried away by steam from the combustion of hydrogen in the fuel.
D. heat carried away by steam from the combustion of hydrogen in the fuel.
511
White smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace indicates the use of A. Low excess air B. Very high excess air C. Gaseous fuel in the furnace D. Liquid fuel in the furnace
B. Very high excess air
512
______________ explains the mechanism of catalysis. A. Activated complex theory B. Collision theory C. Thermodynamics D. None of these
A. Activated complex theory
513
For every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of chemical reaction doubles. When the temperature is increased from 30 to 70°C, the rate of reaction increases _______ times. A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 32
C. 16
514
A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is A. less when they are connected in series. B. more when they are connected in series. C. more when they are connected in parallel. D. same whether they are connected in series or in parallel.
B. more when they are connected in series.
515
Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to space velocity of flow reactors. A. The unit of space velocity is (time)^-1. B. The space velocity of 3 hr^-1 means that three reactor volumes of feed at specified conditions are being fed into the reactor every hour. C. The space velocity of 3 hr^-1 means that one third reactor volume of feed at specified conditions are being fed into the reactor. D. none of these.
C. The space velocity of 3 hr^-1 means that one third reactor volume of feed at specified conditions are being fed into the reactor.
516
The rate constant of a chemical reaction decreases by decreasing the A. pressure B. concentration of reactants C. temperature D. duration of reaction
C. temperature
517
. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible endothermic reaction A. decreases B. increases C. remains unaffected D. increases linearly with temperature
A. decreases
518
N' plug flow reactors in series with a total volume 'V' gives the same conversion as a single plug flow reactor of volume 'V' for _________ order reactions. A. first B. second C. third D. any
D. any
519
For a zero-order chemical reaction, the A. half-life period is directly proportion to the initial concentration of the reactants. B. plot of products concentration with time is a straight line through the origin. C. products concentration increases linearly with time. D. all (a), (b) and (c).
D. all (a), (b) and (c).
520
Radioactive decay follows _________ order kinetics. A. first B. second C. third D. zero
A. first
521
The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A → B are (L/gm mole)/min. Therefore, the reaction order is A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
C. 2
522
In an incompressible flow of fluid, the fluid A. Temperature remains constant B. Compressibility is greater than zero C. Density does not change with pressure & temperature D. Is frictionless
C. Density does not change with pressure & temperature
523
Which of the following pressure measuring device does not use an elastic element? A. Bourdon B. Bellow C. Diaphragm D. Piezoresistor
D. Piezoresistor
524
Batch process is preferred over continuous process, when the A. Product yields and quality cannot be achieved in continuous process, because of long residence time. B. Sales demand of product is not steady. C. Same equipment cannot be used for several processes of the same nature. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
525
In a/an __________ reactor, there is exchange of heat with the surroundings with sizeable temperature variation. A. adiabatic B. isothermal C. non-adiabatic D. none of these.
C. non-adiabatic
526
A closed system is cooled reversibly from 100°C to 50°C. If no work is done on the system, A. Its internal energy (U) decreases and its entropy (S) increases B. U and S both decreases C. U decreases but S is constant D. U is constant but S decreases
B. U and S both decreases
527
Heat of reaction at constant volume is identified with _________ change. A. enthalpy B. internal energy C. either A or B D. neither A nor B
B. internal energy
528
Entropy of a substance remains constant during a/an __________ change. A. Reversible isothermal B. Irreversible isothermal C. Reversible adiabatic D. None of these
C. Reversible adiabatic
529
Third law of thermodynamics is helpful in A. prediction of the extent of a chemical reaction. B. calculating absolute entropies of substances at different temperature. C. evaluating entropy changes of chemical reaction. D. both B and C
D. both B and C
530
Heat is added at constant temperature in an ideal __________ cycle. A. Stirling B. Brayton C. Rankine D. None of these
A. Stirling
531
The bank of tubes located at the back of the domestic refrigerators are the __________ tubes. A. Refrigerant cooling B. Evaporator C. Condenser D. Throttling
C. Condenser
532
Which of the following is not a characteristic in choosing a refrigerant? A. Vapor pressures B. Flammability C. Toxicity D. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fusion
533
It contains saturated paraffin hydrocarbons, predominantly methane, together with other gases. A. producer gas B. synthesis gas C. natural gas D. pyrolysis gas
C. natural gas
534
__________ the exhaust gas is an indication of the incomplete combustion of fuel. A. Low temperature of B. High temperature of C. High % of CO in D. High % of CO2 in
C. High % of CO in
535
Gross and net calorific value of a fuel will be the same ___________. A. if its ash content is zero. B. If its carbon content is very low. C. if its hydrogen/hydrogen compound content is zero. D. under no circumstances.
C. if its hydrogen/hydrogen compound content is zero.
536
A coal with high ash content A. has higher calorific value. B. is harder and stronger. C. is not subjected to washing. D. has low quantity of mineral matter.
B. is harder and stronger.
537
Hydraulic radius of 6" x 12" cross section is __________ inches. A. 2.5 B. 1.0 C. 2.0 D. 0.5
C. 2.0
538
With increase in molecular weight of the gas, the head developed by a centrifugal compressor will A. Decrease B. Increase C. Remain same D. Unpredictable
A. Decrease
539
For the transfer of solution of thick slurry, the pump used is a __________ pump. A. Reciprocating B. Gear C. Diaphragm D. Centrifugal
C. Diaphragm
540
In case of supersonic flow of a fluid through pipeline, the 'Mach number' is A. 0 B. 1 C. < 1 D. > 1
D. > 1
541
The head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe varies A. Directly as the velocity B. Inversely as the square of the velocity C. Approximately as the square of the velocity D. Inversely as the square of the diameter
C. Approximately as the square of the velocity
542
The __________ is measured by a piezometric opening. A. Dynamic pressure B. Static pressure C. Total pressure D. Point velocity
C. Total pressure
543
The fluid velocity varies as the cube of the cylindrical pipe diameter in case of steady state laminar flow at constant pressure drop for __________ fluid. A. Newtonian B. Pseudoplastic C. Dilatant D. Bingham plastic
B. Pseudoplastic
544
Momentum transfer in laminar flow of fluids results due to the A. Viscosity B. Density C. Velocity gradient D. None of these
C. Velocity gradient
545
The dimension of kinematic viscosity is A. ML^-T^-1 B. L^2T^-1 C. ML^-2T^-2 D. None of these
B. L^2T^-1
546
Vertical storage vessels are never supported by __________ support. A. bracket B. saddle C. skirt D. lug
B. saddle
547
__________ closure is the weakest enclosure for cylindrical vessels. A. Hemispherical B. Torisperical C. Conical or flat plate D. Elliptical
C. Conical or flat plate
548
Safety valves are provided in chemical equipment to guard against excessive A. temperature B. pressure/pressure fluctuation C. turbulence D. noise
B. pressure/pressure fluctuation
549
Scale up problem in design based on the similarity concept takes into account __________similarity. A. geometrical B. kinematic C. dynamic D. all of these
D. all of these
550
For storing hazardous chemicals in large storage tanks, the minimum safe distance between the two tanks should range between __________ times the tank diameter. A. 1 to 1.5 B. 2.5 to 3.5 C. 4 to 5 D. 6 to 8
A. 1 to 1.5
551
When acetone is added in a two-layer mixture of methyl isobutyl ketone and water at 30°C, the acetone distributes between the two layers and the composition of the layer follows two solubility curves. For this system, A. As the acetone concentration increases, the solubility curves approach each other. B. Both the phases become identical at a particular common point on both solubility curves called plait point C. The distribution curve which is a plot between x (acetone concentration in one phase) and y (acetone concentration in other phase) is analogous to x-y curve used in distillation and absorption terminates on the X-Y diagonal at the concentration of the plait point. D. All of the above
D. All of the above
552
A plait point is the point on the solubility curve, where the tie line reduces to a point. What is the number of plait point for a ternary system containing two pairs of partially miscible liquids? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
A. 0
553
With increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases because of the A. Increased diffusivity B. Decreased viscosity of liquid C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
554
Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by A. Hot water B. Hexane C. Dilute H2SO4 D. Lime water
A. Hot water
555
The overall mass transfer co-efficient for the absorption of SO2 in air with dilute NaOH solution can be increased substantially by A. Increasing the gas film coefficient B. Increasing the liquid film coefficient C. Increasing the total pressure D. Decreasing the total pressure
A. Increasing the gas film coefficient
556
In case of a desorber (stripper), the A. Operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve B. Operating line always lies below the equilibrium curve C. Temperature remains unaffected D. Temperature always increases
B. Operating line always lies below the equilibrium curve
557
Bubble cap plate column is A. A finite stage contactor B. Used only for distillation, not for absorption C. A differential stage contactor D. A continuous contactor
A. A finite stage contactor
558
Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to _________. A. low gas velocity. B. high gas velocity. C. excessive liquid gradient over the tray. D. low reflux ratio.
C. excessive liquid gradient over the tray.
559
The reflux to a distillation column is 100 moles/hr, when the overhead product rate is 50 moles/hr. The reflux ratio is A. 2 B. 0.5 C. 50 D. 150
A. 2
560
If f = moles of vapor present per mole of feed, then the slope of feed line is (Mcabe-Thiele method) A. (1 -f)/-f B. -(f -1)/f C. -1/f D. -f/(1 - f)
A. (1 -f)/-f
561
Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by using A. tall, narrow vessel B. deep bed of solids C. shallow beds of solids and proper choice of particle size D. very large particles
C. shallow beds of solids and proper choice of particle size
562
Fluidization has certain applications in the industry. For high conversion in a highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, it is best to use a A. fixed bed reactor then a fluidized bed reactor B. fluidized bed reactor then a fixed bed reactor C. fixed bed reactor D. fluidized bed reactor
B. fluidized bed reactor then a fixed bed reactor
563
Filtration rate through a filter cake is proportional to (where, S = filtering surface, R = specific cake resistance, μ = viscosity of the filtrate) A. S B. 1/R C. 1/μ D. All of these
D. All of these
564
Which of the following is the most suitable filter for separation of abrasive solids suspended in a corrosive liquid? A. Tank filter (ex: Nutsch filter) B. Filter press (ex: Plate and frame filter) C. Vacuum filter (ex: Rotary disc filter) D. Batch basket centrifuge
C. Vacuum filter (ex: Rotary disc filter)
565
_______ centrifuge is the most suitable for separation of non-friable crystals. A. Tubular bowl B. Disc-bowl C. Perforated horizontal basket continuous D. Suspended batch basket
C. Perforated horizontal basket continuous
566
For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a A. trommel B. grizzly C. shaking screen D. vibrating screen
D. vibrating screen
567
The sphericity of a cylinder of 1 mm diameter and length 3 mm is A. 0.9 B. 0.78 C. 0.6 D. 0.5
A. 0.9
568
In case of grinding in a ball mill A. wet grinding achieves a finer product size than dry grinding. B. its capacity decreases with increasing fineness of the products. C. grinding cost and power requirement increases with increasing fineness of the products. D. all of the above
D. all of the above
569
The most commonly used substance to speed up the sedimentation of sewage is A. lime B. sulphuric acid C. chlorine D. sodium bisulphite
A. lime
570
Dorr thickener is an equipment used for A. Classification B. Sedimentation C. Clarification D. Leaching
B. Sedimentation
571
The relation, Sc = Pr = 1, is valid, when the mechanism of __________ transfer is same. A. Mass and momentum B. Momentum and heat C. Heat and mass D. Heat, mass and momentum
C. Heat and mass
572
According to this theory, the mass transfer coefficient is directly proportional to diffusivity. A. Penetration theory B. Chilton theory C. Film theory D. Colburn theory
C. Film theory
573
Diffusivity in concentrated solution differs from that in dilute solutions, because of changes in A. Viscosity with concentration B. Degree of ideality of the solution C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
574
What is the diffusivity of oxygen in air at 25°C and 1 atm? A. 0.175 cm^2/s B. 0.202 cm^2/s C. 0.156 cm^2/s D. 0.207 cm^2/s
D. 0.207 cm^2/s
575
The dimension of diffusivity is the same as that of the A. density B. molar concentration C. kinematic viscosity D. pressure drop
C. kinematic viscosity
576
Which of the following is false? A. The binary diffusivity in liquids is of the order of 10^-6 cm^2/s. B. Molecular diffusion in solid is much faster than that in liquids. C. In diffusion, particle movement takes place from higher concentration to lower concentration. D. None of the above.
B. Molecular diffusion in solid is much faster than that in liquids.
577
The ratio of momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity is the ________ number. A. Prandtl B. Nusselt C. Sherwood D. Schmidt
D. Schmidt
578
The emissivity of a polished silver body is __________, as compared to black body. A. same B. low C. very low D. high
C. very low
579
Wavelength corresponding to the maximum energy is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature. This is __________ law. A. Stefan's B. Dalton's C. Wein's D. Kirchhoff's
C. Wein's
580
Which is the best tube arrangement (in a shell and tube heat exchanger) if the fluids are clean and non-fouling? A. Square pitch B. Triangular pitch C. Diagonal square pitch D. None of these.
B. Triangular pitch
581
Baffles provided on the shell side of a shell and tube heat exchanger are meant for A. Providing support for the tubes B. Improving heat transfer C. Both A & B D. Preventing the fouling of tubes & stagnation of shell side fluid
C. Both A & B
582
Heat Transfer by conduction in the turbulent core of a fluid flowing through a heated pipe is negligible, if the value of Prandtl number is A. 0.2 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 0.8
C. 0.6
583
Film coefficients are semiempirical in nature. Which of the following affects film coefficients? A. Physical properties of the fluid B. Type and velocity of the flow C. Geometry of the physical system D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
584
The overall resistance for heat transfer through a series of flat resistances, is the _____ of the resistances. A. Arithmetic mean B. Geometric mean C. Product D. Sum
D. Sum
585
A fluid is flowing inside the inner tube of a double pipe heat exchanger with diameter D. For a fixed mass flow rate, the tube side heat transfer coefficient for turbulent flow conditions is proportional to A. D^0.8 B. D^0.2 C. D^-1 D. D^-1.8
B. D^0.2
586
Minimum recommended baffle spacing in a shell and tube heat exchanger is about _____ of the shell diameter. A. 20% B. 50% C. 66% D. 80%
A. 20%
587
If heat transfer rate varies with time, the process is called A. Forced convection B. Unsteady state heat transfer C. Monochromatic radiation D. Lumped capacity system
B. Unsteady state heat transfer
588
Vibrations in the tubes of a shell and tube heat exchanger are due to the A. Flow of fluid in the tube and shell sides B. Oscillations in the flow of shell/tube side fluids C. Vibrations transmitted through piping and/or supports due to external reasons D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
589
Which of the following forced convection heat transfer equation accounts for the liquid viscosity effect for viscous liquids? A. Dittus-Boelter equation B. Sieder-Tate equation C. Chilton equation D. Stokes equation
B. Sieder-Tate equation
590
Which of the following is generally considered as opaque surface towards radiation? A. gases B. liquids C. solids D. both B and C
D. both B and C
591
What is the specific humidity, if pressure of water is 5 atm and total pressure is 10 atm? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
D. 100%
592
It results from mixing warm, highly saturated tower discharge air with cooler ambient air that lacks the capacity to absorb all the moisture as vapor. A. Drifting B. Fogging C. Blowdown D. Recirculation
B. Fogging
593
What is the difference in the density of dry air at 1 atm and 25°C and moist air with 50% relative humidity under the same conditions? (kg/m^3) A. 1.987 B. 1.178 C. 0.648 D. 0.007
D. 0.007
594
Drying of refractory is normally carried out in a __________ dryer. A. Open pan B. Tray C. Rotary vacuum D. Truck/tunnel
D. Truck/tunnel
595
Evaporation of 1kg of water from a solution in a single effect evaporator requires about ______ kg of steam. A. 0.4 - 0.6 B. 1-1.3 C. 1.8-2 D. 2 - 2.4
B. 1-1.3
596
It occurs when solutions deposit solid materials on heating surfaces as result of decomposition or decrease in solubility causing reduction in overall heat transfer coefficient. A. Frothing B. Scaling C. Crystallization D. Nucleation
B. Scaling
597
In most of the vacuum crystallizer, vacuum is generally produced by means of a A. Suction pump B. Compressed air jet C. Steam jet ejector with a barometric condenser D. None of these
C. Steam jet ejector with a barometric condenser
598
In the reaction CaO(s) + 2HCl(g) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l), which of the following can be used to measure the reaction rate? A. change in pressure per time B. change in total mass per time C. change in pH per time D. change in volume per time
C. change in pH per time
599
The reactions with low activation energy are A. always spontaneous B. slow C. fast D. non-spontaneous
C. fast
600
The reaction rate of a certain reaction is first order with respect to reactant X and second order with respect to reactant Y. Which of the following is a unit of the reaction constant? A. L^2/mol^2·min B. M/s C. L/mol^2·min D. 1/M·s
A. L^2/mol^2·min
601
Half-life period of a chemical reaction is proportional to Cao^1, if the reaction is of _____ order. A. First B. Zero C. Second D. Third
C. Second
602
In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor, the composition of the exit stream A. Is same as that in the reactor B. Is different than that in the reactor C. Depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream D. None of these
A. Is same as that in the reactor
603
. A high space velocity means that a given A. Reaction can be accomplished with small reactor B. Conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate C. Both A and B D. None of these
C. Both A and B
604
For identical flow rate and feed composition, X plug flow reactors (PFR) in series with a total volume V gives the same conversion as single A. CSTR of volume V B. PFR of volume V C. CSTR of volume V/X D. PFR of volume V/X
B. PFR of volume V
605
In a/an __________ reactor, there is exchange of heat with the surroundings with sizeable temperature variation. A. Adiabatic B. Isothermal C. Non-adiabatic D. None of these
C. Non-adiabatic