Day 4 - Laws, Engines, FLT Controls Flashcards

1
Q

How does a side stick input get relayed to the control surfaces?

A

Electrically controlled but hydraulically activated

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2
Q

What 2 control surfaces can be mechanically controlled?

A

THS and Rudder. The cable moves a hydraulic valve which in turn moves the control surfaces

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3
Q

How many spoilers and slats do you have on each wing?

A

5 spoilers on each wing (10 all together)

5 slats on each wing (10 all together)

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4
Q

ELAC stands for?

How many ELACs?

A

Elevator Aileron Computer

2 ELACs

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5
Q

What are ELACs used for?

A

Normal Elevator and Stabilzer control and Aileron control

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6
Q

What does SEC stand for?

How many SECs are there?

A

Spoiler Elevator Computer

3 SECs

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7
Q

What are SECs used for?

A

Spoilers control, and Standby Elevator, and Stabiliser Control

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8
Q

What does FAC stand for?

How many?

A

Flight Augmentation Computers

2 FACs

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9
Q

What are FACs used for?

A

Electric Rudder control

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10
Q

What does FCDC stand for?

How many?

A

Flight Control Data Concentrators

2 FCDCs

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11
Q

What does the FCDCs do?

A

Acquire data from the ELACs and SECs and send it to the electronic instrument system (EIS) and Centralised Fault display system (CFDS)

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12
Q

What are the control modes of the electrically-controlled, hydraulic servo jacks?

What do these modes mean?

A

Active - The jack is electrically controlled

Damping - The jack follows surface movement

Centering - the jack hydraulically locked in the neutral position

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13
Q

What is aileron droop?

A

When flaps are extended, the ailerons deflect 5 degrees down to provide extra lift

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14
Q

If the ground spoilers are armed, and the wheel speed exceeds 72kts, the ground spoilers will auto extend as soon as…?

A

Both thrust levers are set to idle

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15
Q

If the ground spoilers are not armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72kts, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as…?

A

Reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle)

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16
Q

(Landing) With speed brake lever not in the retract position (1/2 deflection or full) or ground spoilers armed… The ground spoilers will auto extend fully when what conditions are met?

A
  • both main landing gears on ground
  • both thrust levers at or below idle position, or reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
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17
Q

(Landing) With the speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed… The ground spoilers will auto extend fully when what conditions are met?

A
  • both main landing gear on ground
  • reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
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18
Q

Max roll rate in normal law?

A

15 degrees/second

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19
Q

What are the 5 normal law protections?

A

Load Factor
Pitch Attitude
High AoA
High Speed
Bank Angle

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20
Q

What protections do you have in alternate law (with protections)?

A

Load factor protection plus high speed and low speed stabilities

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21
Q

Pitch attitude protection limits in CONF 0, 1, 2 and 3?

Pitch attitude protection limits in CONF FULL?

A

30 degrees nose up in CONF 0 to 3 (progressively reduced to 25degree at low speed)

25 degrees nose up in CONF FULL (progressively reduced to 20degrees at low speed)

15 degrees nose down for all CONFs

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22
Q

At what attitude will the FDs disappear?

When will they reappear?

A

25 degrees up or 13 degrees down.

They’ll reappear below 22up and 10 down

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23
Q

How to tell if you’re in alternate law?

A

Amber crosses at attitude and bank angle limits

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24
Q

Alternate law (without protections) offers what protection?

A

Load factor only

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25
Q

How to tell when you’re in direct law?

A

Amber crosses for attitude and bank angle limit, plus “Man pitch trim only” in Amber on PFD

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26
Q

How to tell when you’re in mechanical law?

A

“MAN pitch trim only” will show in red on the PFD

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27
Q

What protections do you get in direct law?

A

None

28
Q

Max bank angle?

A

67 degrees. But 33 degrees for normal law flight path stability

29
Q

When do you get Alpha Prot?

A

In normal law

30
Q

Can you go into Alpha Prot in normal law?

A

Yes, but not with auto pilot engaged

31
Q

How many flap positions?

A
  1. These include 0, 1, 2, 3, FULL
32
Q

Alpha lock does what?

A

Prevents slats from retracting above a specific speed and AoA limit

33
Q

Where is VSW in direct law?

Where is VLS in direct law?

A

Top of red and black blocks

Top of amber line

34
Q

Priority right take over button gives what indications?

Press and hold for 40secs does what?

A

Red arrow pointing right on CPT side, FO in green on the FOs side and an aural warning.

Locks the other pilot out

35
Q

If you lose all flight computers, what law are you in?

In this law, what control surfaces do you have remaining?

A

Mechanical law

You only have THS and rudder mechanically operating hydraulic valves

36
Q

What does SFCC stand for?

How many?

A

Slat and Flap Control Computer

2 SFCCs

37
Q

If we lose 1 SFCC, what impact does this have on flap operation?

A

Half speed operation

38
Q

What does solid red on the speed tape indicate in normal law?

A

Alpha Max

39
Q

Top of the amber blocks on the speed tape in normal law?

Top of amber line on speed tape in normal law

A

Alpha Prot

VLS

40
Q

Where is VSW in alternate law?

Where is VLS in alternate law?

A

Top of red/black blocks

Top of amber line

41
Q

How many FADECs are there?

A

2 - channel A and B

42
Q

Can the FADEC still operate in the event of a power failure?

A

Yes. The engines have an alternator which powers the FADEC

43
Q

How many igniters are used to start the engine in normal conditions?

After 1 engine start attempt, how many igniters are used to start the engine?

After each start attempt, what is the fuel required to start reduced by as a %?

How many starts will the FADEC attempt in a start sequence?

A

1

2

7%

4

44
Q

Engine start process?

A

LP fuel valve opens
Airflow (engine start valve opens)
16% N2 - ignition
22% N2 - fuel introduced (hp valve opens)
EGT increases
50% started and igniters cut off

45
Q

What are the 3 idle engine modes?

A

Modulated, approach, reverse

46
Q

What is modulated idle?

A

In flight when flaps are retracted and on the ground without reverse thrust selected.

It is regulated according to bleed system demand and ambient conditions

47
Q

Approach idle is?

A

Regulated according to aircraft altitude regardless of bleed system demand. Selected in flight when the flaps are extended. It revs slightly higher allowing lower spool up times

48
Q

What is reverse idle?

A

Is selected on the ground. Increases thrust slightly when reverse idle is selected

49
Q

What’s the time limit for 2 engine TOGA?

What’s the time limit for 1 engine TOGA?

A

5 mins

10 mins

50
Q

2 engine thrust lever range?

Single engine thrust lever range?

A

Idle to climb

Idle to MCT

51
Q

Electrical power priority

A

Aircraft Generator (engine driven)
GPU on
APU

52
Q

Oil burn?

A

0.5 quartz per hour

53
Q

How do the FADEC channels work?

A

1 active channel and another channel standby

54
Q

What is in the HMU?

A

Fuel flow control, fuel hydraulic actuators and over speed protectors

55
Q

FADEC protections?

A

Hot start
Hung start
Wet start (failure to light up)
Surge (stall)

56
Q

Where does thrust come from?

A

N1 (70%)

Turbine (30%)

57
Q

What does the FADEC us to calculate thrust?

A

N1 (fan speed)

58
Q

If you turn off the engine master switch in flight, how does the engine physically shut down?

A

By closing the hi and low pressure fuel

59
Q

Does engine master need confirmation to shut down?

A

Yes

60
Q

Where do you see N1 and N2?

A

E/WD engine warning display

61
Q

What does FADEC mean?

A

Full Authority Dual Engine Control

62
Q

What is the red temp on the engine EGT gauge?

A

950 degrees C

63
Q

Max EGT for MCT?

A

915 degrees C

64
Q

Does MCT have a time limit?

A

No

65
Q

EGT limit when operating MCT? And time limit

A

915 degrees C with no time limit

66
Q

What is the minimum oil temp before takeoff?

A

-10 degrees

67
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with the slats and or flaps extended?

A

20,000 ft